Definitions / Concepts / Terms

Question 1

What is Gain - loss effect?

Answer 1

Research on the gain-loss effect (Aronson & Linder, 1965) has found that we’re more attracted to people who initially dislike us but then change their minds after they get to know us than we are to people who express constant liking for us.

Question 2

What is the immigrant paradox

Answer 2

Research has found that, for some immigrant groups, recent immigrants often have better health and educational outcomes than more established immigrants and nonimmigrants do. This is referred to as the immigrant paradox.

Question 3

What is colourism?

Answer 3

it is a form of internalized racism and refers to discrimination within a racial group based on colour are other physical characteristics like hair texture or eye colour.

Question 4

Stress-induced increases in cortisol levels in the hippocampus have been linked to impairments in the:
A. retrieval of procedural memories.
B. retrieval of declarative memories.
C. consolidation of procedural memories.
D. consolidation of declarative memories.

Answer 4

Research has found that increases in cortisol levels in the hippocampus as the result of stress enhances the encoding and consolidation of declarative memories when stress occurs prior to learning but impairs the retrieval of declarative memories when stress occurs prior to retrieval, with these effects being strongest for emotionally arousing material (Wolf, 2010).

Question 5

When measuring the relationship between two variables, a restriction in range of scores on the variables will most likely produce a correlation coefficient that:
A. underestimates the actual relationship between the variables.
B. overestimates the actual relationship between the variables.
C. either under- or overestimates the actual relationship between the variables.
D. neither under- nor overestimates the actual relationship between the variables.

Answer 5

A. underestimates the actual relationship between the variables.
To determine the true relationship between variables, scores on both variables must be unrestricted in terms of range. When the range is restricted (e.g., when only low scorers are included in sample), the resulting correlation coefficient will underestimate their actual relationship.

Question 6

What studies the variations in tone, rhythm, volume, and stress that are used to express emotions and modify or clarify the meaning of a verbal communication?

Answer 6

Paralanguage

Question 7

Of the following, which is least likely to be the optimal intervention when a child’s target behavior is harmful to him/herself or others?
A. response cost
B. operant extinction
C. overcorrection
D. differential reinforcement

Answer 7

Operant extinction

Of the interventions listed in the answers, operant extinction would be the least desirable when the target behavior is harmful to the individual or others because extinction often causes an increase in the behavior (an extinction burst) before the behavior begins to decrease.

Question 8

Reducing the amount of reinforcement for a behavior is referred to as _________

Answer 8

Thinning

Switching from a continuous to an intermittent schedule of reinforcement or from an FR-10 to an FR-20 schedule are examples of thinning. Thinning the reinforcement schedule once a behavior reaches its desired level helps increase resistance to extinction.

Question 9

What it is called when two behaviors (Behaviors A and B) are being reinforced and the frequencies of Behavior A and Behavior B change when there is an alteration in the rate of reinforcement for one of the behaviors

Answer 9

Behavioural contrast

Question 10

What is positive behavioral contrast?

Answer 10

when the amount of reinforcement for Behavior A is decreased while the amount of reinforcement for Behavior B is unaltered, Behavior A will decrease and Behavior B will increase. This is referred to as positive behavioral contrast.

Question 11

What is negative behavioral contrast?

Answer 11

When the amount of reinforcement for Behavior A is increased while the amount of reinforcement for Behavior B is unaltered, Behavior A will increase and Behavior B will decrease. This is referred to as negative behavioral contrast.

Question 12

Which intermittent reinforcement schedule produce the highest rate of responding and the greatest resistance to extinction

Answer 12

Variable Ratio schedule

Question 13

Which law predicts that rate of responding will match the magnitude of the reinforcement.

Answer 13

Matching Law

Question 14

According to which law, when two or more behaviors are concurrently reinforced on different schedules, the rate of performing each behavior is proportional to the frequency of reinforcement.

Answer 14

Matching Law

Question 15

How it is called when a behavior increases because it was accidentally reinforced.

Answer 15

Superstitious behaviour

Question 16

Why is Stimulus control is called two-factor learning?

Answer 16

Stimulus control is an example of two-factor learning, because combines operant and classical conditioning: Performance of a particular behavior is due to positive reinforcement (operant conditioning). Performance of the behavior in the presence of a positive discriminative stimulus but not in the presence of a negative discriminative stimulus is the result of discrimination training (classical conditioning).

Question 17

What is stimulus control?

Answer 17

A behavior is brought under stimulus control when it occurs in the presence of one stimulus but not another stimulus. e.g., rats might learn that, when a light is blinking and they press a lever, a food pellet will be delivered; but, when the light is not blinking and they press the lever, a food pellet will not be delivered. In this situation, the blinking light is a positive discriminative stimulus (also referred to as just the discriminative stimulus or SD) because it signals that reinforcement will be delivered. In contrast, the non-blinking light is a negative discriminative stimulus (also referred to as the S-delta stimulus) because it signals that reinforcement will not be delivered

Question 18

Gradually removing a prompt once the behavior is at the desired level is referred to as _________

Answer 18

Fading

Question 19

Avoidance conditioning is the result of two-factor learning. It is combination which two factors?

Answer 19

It occurs when a stimulus signals that an unpleasant stimulus is about to be applied and a behavior occurs because it allows the individual to avoid the unpleasant stimulus. A dog might learn that a blinking light (associated with electric shock and is a conditioned stimulus - classical conditioning) signals that electric shock is about to be applied to the floor of its cage, and it jumps over the barrier (result of negative reinforcement - operant conditioning) as soon as the light starts to blink to avoid being shocked.

Question 20

Under what conditions psychologists can use deception in research?

Answer 20

1. it’s justified by the prospective value of the study,
2. alternative procedures are unavailable, 3. participants are debriefed about the true nature of the study as early as is feasible (which may or may not be immediately after participation), and
3. participants are allowed to withdraw their data from the study.

Question 21

Org Psych

When conducting a(n) ___________, an organizational psychologist would assign points to a job’s compensable factors

Answer 21

Job Evaluation

The point system is a commonly used method of job evaluation. It involves determining the monetary value of a job by assigning points to the job’s compensable factors (e.g., effort, skill, responsibility, work conditions); summing the points to derive a total score; and using the total score to determine the appropriate compensation for the job.

Question 22

Research

The central limit theorem predicts that, regardless of the shape of the population distribution of scores, a sampling distribution of means increasingly approaches the shape of:
A. the population distribution as the number of samples increases.
B. the population distribution as the sample size increases.
C. a normal distribution as the number of samples increases.
D. a normal distribution as the sample size increases.

Answer 22

D. a normal distribution as the sample size increases.

Question 23

According to the encoding specificity hypothesis, forgetting is caused by inadequate:
A. retrieval cues.
B. elaborative rehearsal.
C. attention to details while encoding new information.
D. organization of new information.

Answer 23

Retrieval Cues

According to the encoding specificity hypothesis, retrieval from long-term memory is maximized when the conditions at the time of encoding new information are the same as the conditions at the time of information retrieval – e.g., when the person learns and retrieves information in the same environment or while in the same mood. When this occurs, conditions at the time of recall act as retrieval cues.

Question 24

A supervisor tells you that the low job motivation of one of her newly hired supervisees is affecting his job performance, and she asks your advice about the best management style when working with him. As an advocate of ______________, you question the supervisor about some of the characteristics of the supervisee and his job tasks and, based on her answers, recommend that she adopt a supportive style with this supervisee.
A. Fiedler’s contingency theory
B. Dansereau, Graen, and Haga’s (1975) leader-member exchange theory
C. House’s path-goal theory
D. Vroom-Yetton-Jago’s leadership model

Answer 24

House’s Path Goal Theory

According to House’s (1971) path-goal theory, an effective leader adopts the style (directive, achievement-oriented, supportive, or participative) that best fits certain characteristics of the employee and the employee’s tasks.

Question 25

Generalized onset seizures always:
A. include a loss of consciousness.
B. include motor symptoms.
C. include a loss of consciousness and motor symptoms.
D. begin with an aura.

Answer 25

A.include a loss of consciousness

There are two types of generalized onset seizures – generalized onset motor seizures (also known as tonic-clonic seizures) and generalized onset non-motor seizures (also known as absence seizures). Both include a loss of consciousness but, as their names suggest, only generalized onset motor seizures include motor symptoms. Although auras are most associated with focal onset seizures, there is evidence that they occur for some people with generalized onset seizures.

Question 26

Beginning in early adolescence, the rate of major depressive disorder for females is about ________ times the rate for boys

Answer 26

1.5 to 3 times

Question 27

Which of the following best describes implied consent?
A. It refers to a person’s informed consent when it is not written or documented.
B. It applies only when a person is believed to be a danger to self or others.
C. It is inferred from the behaviors or circumstances of a person.
D. It applies only when a person lacks the capacity to give informed consent.

Answer 27

It is inferred from the behaviours and circumstances of the person

Question 28

Which of the following is true about the prescription and tapering of benzodiazepines for older adults?
A. Benzodiazepines that have a shorter half-life are preferred, and tapering should be slow.
B. Benzodiazepines that have a shorter half-life are preferred, and tapering should be rapid.
C. Benzodiazepines that have a longer half-life are preferred, and tapering should be slow.
D. Benzodiazepines that have a longer half-life are preferred, and tapering should be rapid.

Answer 28

A. Benzodiazepines that have a shorter half-life are preferred, and tapering should be slow.

Increasing age increases the half-life of the benzodiazepines, so, benzodiazepines with a shorter half-life are recommended for older adults. In addition, a slow taper of the drugs over several months is recommended to reduce the risk for and severity of withdrawal symptoms.

tapering schedule depending on the initial drug dose and duration of treatment

Question 29

What is the range of scores for Reliability Coefficient?

Answer 29

0 to 1.0
closer the coefficient is to 1.0 the less the effect of measurement error and greater the consistency of scores

Question 30

What is the range of scores for Criterion-related validity coefficient?

Answer 30

-1.0 to +1.0
The closer it is to 0 the lower the predicotr’s criterion-related validity

Question 31

what would be the best for a company - a high or low selection ratio?

Answer 31

A low selection ratio is good for the company as it means it has more applicants to choose from.

Question 32

What does it means when the base rate is low with regard to employee selection procedure?

Answer 32

It means that soemthing other than the slection procedure (e.g. inadequate training) is the problem becasue its not likely that use of current procedure resulats in shoosing least suitable applicants.

A moderate base rate (.50) is associated with greatest increase in decision-making accuracy

Question 33

What for Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser Formula used?

Answer 33

It is used for utility analysis - method for evaluating the economic return on investment of human resource intervention such as staffing and training

Question 34

What are Self-defining memory (SDM)?

Answer 34

Self-defining memory (SDM) is a component of episodic memory and consists of memories that contribute to the construction and maintenance of one’s personal identity.

Question 35

What are characteristics of Self-defining memory?

Answer 35

According to Singer (2005), SDMs have five characteristics:
1. Emotional intensity,
2. Vividness,
3. High levels of repetition,
4. Linkage to similar memories, and
5. Connections to enduring concerns or unresolved conflicts.

Question 36

Which aspect of an item characteristic curve (ICC) indicates the probability of choosing the correct answer to the item by guessing alone?
A. the position of the curve
B. the slope of the curve
C. the point at which the curve intercepts the x-axis
D. the point at which the curve intercepts the y-axis

Answer 36

D. the point at which the curve intercepts the y-axis
The various item response theory models produce item response curves that provide information on three parameters being
1. item difficulty,
2. item discrimination, and
3. the probability of guessing correctly.
`The probability of guessing correctly is indicated by the point at which the item response curve intercepts the y-axis.

Question 37

A worker-oriented _______________ is conducted to identify the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics required to perform a job successfully.
A. job evaluation
B. job analysis
C. organizational analysis
D. needs analysis

Answer 37

B. Job Analysis

Methods of job analysis are categorized as work-oriented or worker-oriented. Work-oriented methods focus on the tasks that must be accomplished to achieve desired job outcomes, while worker-oriented methods focus on the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics (KSAOs) of the worker that are required to accomplish job tasks.

Question 38

An undergraduate student is writing a paper on Taylor’s scientific management for her organizational psychology class. Assuming that the student understands the major assumptions of this approach, she’s likely to note in her paper that Taylor believed that worker motivation is most affected by which of the following?
A. desire for economic gain
B. desire for satisfying social relationships
C. prepotent needs
D. fear of punishment

Answer 38

A. Desire for economic gain

Question 39

Control, commitment, and challenge have been identified as the “3 C’s” of

Answer 39

Hardiness

Question 40

Herzberg’s (1966) two-factor theory predicts that ____________ is the best way to increase employees’ job motivation and satisfaction.

Answer 40

Job enrichment

Question 41

Kirkpatrick (1998) distinguished between four levels of training program evaluation and proposed that which of the following is the most informative level?

Answer 41

Results

Kirkpatrick’s evaluation model distinguishes between four levels of training program evaluation that are arranged in order from least to most informative: reaction, learning, behavior, and results.

Question 42

When obtaining a high score on one or more predictors cannot compensate for a low score on another predictor, the best technique for making a hiring decision on the basis of multiple predictors is which of the following?

Answer 42

Multiple cutoff

It is a noncompensatory technique that requires a job applicant to obtain a score that’s above the cutoff on each predictor to be considered for the job.

Question 43

As described by Fiedler (1967):
A. low LPC leaders are task-oriented, while high LPC leaders are person-oriented.
B. low LPC leaders are person-oriented, while high LPC leaders are task-oriented.
C. low LPC leaders are high in growth need strength, while high LPC leaders are low in growth need strength.
D. low LPC leaders are low in growth need strength, while high LPC leaders are high in growth need strength.

Answer 43

A. low LPC leaders are task-oriented, while high LPC leaders are person-oriented.

Low LPC leaders are task-oriented and describe their least preferred coworker in negative terms because they focus on the coworker’s task performance. In contrast,** high LPC leaders are person-oriented** and describe their least preferred coworker in positive terms because they separate interpersonal characteristics from task performance.

Question 44

What is Criterion contamination?

Answer 44

Criterion contamination occurs when a performance (criterion) measure is affected by factors unrelated to job performance – for example, when a supervisor’s performance ratings of employees are biased by the supervisor’s knowledge of how well employees did on the predictors that were used to hire them.

how well employees did on the selection measures that were used to hire them affects how the supervisor subsequently rates them

Question 46

What is myth of meritocracy?

Answer 46

It is a microinvalidation and is a form of racial microaggressions. It happens when someone assets that race has no effect on a person’s success or other life outcomes.

Question 47

what are tightest culture states in USA?

Answer 47

MAA - Mississippi, Alabama, and Arkansas were classified as the three “tightest” states

Question 48

What are the tightest culture nations?

Answer 48

Pakistan Malaysia and India

Question 49

What are loosest culture states in USA

Answer 49

COW - California, Oregon, and Washington were classified as the three “loosest” states.

Question 51

What is Gift giving?

Answer 51

Gift giving refers to the direct benefits that a client perceives he/she receives from therapy. These include providing the client with reassurance and a sense of hope, normalizing the client’s feelings, and using interventions that reduce the client’s depression or anxiety.

Question 52

What do you mean by empirically supported treatments?

Answer 52

often used to refer only to treatments that have been found to be effective by scientific research that meets certain criteria – e.g., multiple group studies that found the treatment to be superior to no-treatment or to be equivalent or superior to an established treatment.

Question 53

The use of folktales to present models of adaptive behaviour in therapy is referred to as__________

For Hispanic Latino Americans

Answer 53

Cuento therapy

Question 54

The use of proverbs and idiomatic expressions to help clients express their feelings is referred to as_________

Answer 54

Dichos

Question 55

Norcross and Lambert (2011) attribute ________ of variability in psychotherapy outcomes to patient contributions, _________ to the therapeutic relationship, __________ to the treatment method, __________ to therapist characteristics, _________ to other factors, and ___________ to unexplained variance.

Answer 55

Norcross and Lambert (2011) attribute 30% of variability in psychotherapy outcomes to patient contributions, 12% to the therapeutic relationship, 8% to the treatment method, 7% to therapist characteristics, 3% to other factors, and 40% to unexplained variance.

Question 56

What is theme interference?

Answer 56

Theme interference occurs when a consultee’s biases and unfounded beliefs interfere with his/her ability to be objective when working with certain types of clients. It is a factor in Consultee-centered Case consultation

Question 58

What are Efficacy Research studies or Clinical trials?

Answer 58

Efficacy research studies are also known as clinical trials and **maximize internal validity **(the ability to draw conclusions about the cause-effect relationship between therapy and outcomes) by maximizing experimental control. e.g, participants are randomly assigned to groups and therapists use treatment manuals to ensure that treatment is provided in the same way to all participants.

Question 59

What is a effectiveness study?

Answer 59

effectiveness research studies maximize external validity (the ability to generalize the conclusions drawn from the study to other people and conditions) by providing therapy in naturalistic clinical settings. Helps determining in “real world” settings generalizability, feasibility, and cost-effectiveness of a intervention/treatment.

Question 60

Eysenck concluded that _______ of patients who participated in psychoanalytic psychotherapy, _______of patients who participated in eclectic psychotherapy, and _________ of patients who did not participate in psychotherapy experienced an improvement in symptoms.

Answer 60

Eysenck concluded that 44% of patients who participated in psychoanalytic psychotherapy, 64% of patients who participated in eclectic psychotherapy, and 72% of patients who did not participate in psychotherapy experienced an improvement in symptoms.

Question 61

Bergin (1971) noted that the criteria Eysenck used to determine recovery were questionable and found that use of different criteria produced a recovery rate of_______ for patients who participated in psychoanalytic psychotherapy and ________ for patients who did not receive psychotherapy.

Answer 61

Bergin (1971) noted that the criteria Eysenck used to determine recovery were questionable and found that use of different criteria produced a recovery rate of 83% for patients who participated in psychoanalytic psychotherapy and 30% for patients who did not receive psychotherapy.

Question 62

What is the percentage of improvement for patients whose psychotherapy had an effect size of .85?

Answer 62

an effect size of .85 means that the average patient who received psychotherapy was better off than 80% of patients who didn’t receive therapy

Question 63

Howard et al (1986, 1996) research predicts that _______ of therapy clients can be expected to exhibit a clinically significant improvement in symptoms by six to eight sessions, __________ by 26 sessions, and ___________ by 52 sessions.

Answer 63

Howard et al (1986, 1996) predicts that 50% of therapy clients can be expected to exhibit a clinically significant improvement in symptoms by 6 to 8 sessions, 75% by 26 sessions, and 85% by 52 sessions.

Question 65

What is medical cost offset?

Answer 65

Research has found out courses of psychotherapy reduce overall medical utilization and expense. This is call medical cost offset. Chiles, Lambert, and Hatch’s (1999) meta-analysis of research conducted between 1967 and 1997 found out that 90% of the studies included in their analysis reported evidence of a medical cost offset and that the average cost savings attributable to a psychological intervention was 20%.

Question 66

What is Beta Bias?

Answer 66

tendency to minimize differences is called “beta bias”. A beta bias refers to theories that ignore or minimise sex differences. These theories often assume that the findings from studies using males can apply equally to females

Question 67

What is Alpha bias?

Answer 67

Alpha bias refers to theories which exaggerate the differences between males and females. e.g. Freud argued that ‘anatomy is destiny’, meaning that there are genuine psychological differences between men and women because of their physiological differences, for example, he claimed young girls suffer from ‘penis envy’, and viewed femininity as failed form of masculinity.

Question 68

What are Quaternary preventions?

Answer 68

Quaternary preventions identify patients who are at risk for over-medicalization in order to reduce their exposure to unnecessary and potentially harmful interventions.

Question 69

Are there evidence of gender differences? what are they?

Answer 69

Maccoby and Jacklin (1974) concluded that there were only four differences between boys and girls, including:

1. Girls have greater verbal ability
2. Boys have greater visual and spatial abilities
3. Boys have greater arithmetical ability, a difference that only appears at adolescence
4. Girls are less aggressive than boys

Question 70

what is evaluation apprehension?

Answer 70

It is also known as audience inhibition
Even when a bystander feels competent to provide help, he or she may decide not to do so because concerns about being judged negatively by others

Question 71

What is stimulus overload?

Answer 71

Stimulus overload can occur in big cities and other noisy environments and causes a person to restrict his or her attention to stimuli that seem personally relevant (Milgram, 1970)

Question 72

What is pluralistic ignorance?

Answer 72

bystander may fail to help someone because of the ambiguity of the situation or because of pluralistic ignorance, which is a misperception of how others are thinking or feeling. He/ she concludes that the inactivity of other bystanders is due to the fact that they know the situation does not constitute an emergency.

Question 73

What is diffusion of responsibility?

Answer 73

Diffusion of responsibility refers to a reduced sense of personal responsibility due to the belief that others are willing and able to provide assistance, and it increases as the number of bystanders increases. Studies have found that a victim is most likely to get help when there is only one bystander

Question 74

what is the negative state relief model ?

Answer 74

negative state relief model (Cialdini, Darby & Vincent, 1973) focuses on the role of egoism and proposes that people help others to reduce their own distress. According to this model, people may feel empathy for a person-in-need, but their empathy produces sadness or guilt, which they attempt to alleviate by providing help.

Question 75

What do you measure using the F Scale?

Answer 75

F (Fascism) Scale assess authoritarianism and found that scores on the scale had high correlations with scores on measures of ethnocentrism and prejudice. Adorno and his colleagues (1950)