Definitions / Concepts / Terms

Question 1

What is Gain - loss effect?

Answer 1

Research on the gain-loss effect (Aronson & Linder, 1965) has found that we’re more attracted to people who initially dislike us but then change their minds after they get to know us than we are to people who express constant liking for us.

Question 2

What is the immigrant paradox

Answer 2

Research has found that, for some immigrant groups, recent immigrants often have better health and educational outcomes than more established immigrants and nonimmigrants do. This is referred to as the immigrant paradox.

Question 3

What is colourism?

Answer 3

it is a form of internalized racism and refers to discrimination within a racial group based on colour are other physical characteristics like hair texture or eye colour.

Question 4

Stress-induced increases in cortisol levels in the hippocampus have been linked to impairments in the:
A. retrieval of procedural memories.
B. retrieval of declarative memories.
C. consolidation of procedural memories.
D. consolidation of declarative memories.

Answer 4

Research has found that increases in cortisol levels in the hippocampus as the result of stress enhances the encoding and consolidation of declarative memories when stress occurs prior to learning but impairs the retrieval of declarative memories when stress occurs prior to retrieval, with these effects being strongest for emotionally arousing material (Wolf, 2010).

Question 5

When measuring the relationship between two variables, a restriction in range of scores on the variables will most likely produce a correlation coefficient that:
A. underestimates the actual relationship between the variables.
B. overestimates the actual relationship between the variables.
C. either under- or overestimates the actual relationship between the variables.
D. neither under- nor overestimates the actual relationship between the variables.

Answer 5

A. underestimates the actual relationship between the variables.
To determine the true relationship between variables, scores on both variables must be unrestricted in terms of range. When the range is restricted (e.g., when only low scorers are included in sample), the resulting correlation coefficient will underestimate their actual relationship.

Question 6

What studies the variations in tone, rhythm, volume, and stress that are used to express emotions and modify or clarify the meaning of a verbal communication?

Answer 6

Paralanguage

Question 7

Of the following, which is least likely to be the optimal intervention when a child’s target behavior is harmful to him/herself or others?
A. response cost
B. operant extinction
C. overcorrection
D. differential reinforcement

Answer 7

Operant extinction

Of the interventions listed in the answers, operant extinction would be the least desirable when the target behavior is harmful to the individual or others because extinction often causes an increase in the behavior (an extinction burst) before the behavior begins to decrease.

Question 8

Reducing the amount of reinforcement for a behavior is referred to as _________

Answer 8

Thinning

Switching from a continuous to an intermittent schedule of reinforcement or from an FR-10 to an FR-20 schedule are examples of thinning. Thinning the reinforcement schedule once a behavior reaches its desired level helps increase resistance to extinction.

Question 9

What it is called when two behaviors (Behaviors A and B) are being reinforced and the frequencies of Behavior A and Behavior B change when there is an alteration in the rate of reinforcement for one of the behaviors

Answer 9

Behavioural contrast

Question 10

What is positive behavioral contrast?

Answer 10

when the amount of reinforcement for Behavior A is decreased while the amount of reinforcement for Behavior B is unaltered, Behavior A will decrease and Behavior B will increase. This is referred to as positive behavioral contrast.

Question 11

What is negative behavioral contrast?

Answer 11

When the amount of reinforcement for Behavior A is increased while the amount of reinforcement for Behavior B is unaltered, Behavior A will increase and Behavior B will decrease. This is referred to as negative behavioral contrast.

Question 12

Which intermittent reinforcement schedule produce the highest rate of responding and the greatest resistance to extinction

Answer 12

Variable Ratio schedule

Question 13

Which law predicts that rate of responding will match the magnitude of the reinforcement.

Answer 13

Matching Law

Question 14

According to which law, when two or more behaviors are concurrently reinforced on different schedules, the rate of performing each behavior is proportional to the frequency of reinforcement.

Answer 14

Matching Law

Question 15

How it is called when a behavior increases because it was accidentally reinforced.

Answer 15

Superstitious behaviour

Question 16

Why is Stimulus control is called two-factor learning?

Answer 16

Stimulus control is an example of two-factor learning, because combines operant and classical conditioning: Performance of a particular behavior is due to positive reinforcement (operant conditioning). Performance of the behavior in the presence of a positive discriminative stimulus but not in the presence of a negative discriminative stimulus is the result of discrimination training (classical conditioning).

Question 17

What is stimulus control?

Answer 17

A behavior is brought under stimulus control when it occurs in the presence of one stimulus but not another stimulus. e.g., rats might learn that, when a light is blinking and they press a lever, a food pellet will be delivered; but, when the light is not blinking and they press the lever, a food pellet will not be delivered. In this situation, the blinking light is a positive discriminative stimulus (also referred to as just the discriminative stimulus or SD) because it signals that reinforcement will be delivered. In contrast, the non-blinking light is a negative discriminative stimulus (also referred to as the S-delta stimulus) because it signals that reinforcement will not be delivered

Question 18

Gradually removing a prompt once the behavior is at the desired level is referred to as _________

Answer 18

Fading

Question 19

Avoidance conditioning is the result of two-factor learning. It is combination which two factors?

Answer 19

It occurs when a stimulus signals that an unpleasant stimulus is about to be applied and a behavior occurs because it allows the individual to avoid the unpleasant stimulus. A dog might learn that a blinking light (associated with electric shock and is a conditioned stimulus - classical conditioning) signals that electric shock is about to be applied to the floor of its cage, and it jumps over the barrier (result of negative reinforcement - operant conditioning) as soon as the light starts to blink to avoid being shocked.

Question 20

Under what conditions psychologists can use deception in research?

Answer 20

1. it’s justified by the prospective value of the study,
2. alternative procedures are unavailable,
3. participants are debriefed about the true nature of the study as early as is feasible (which may or may not be immediately after participation), and
4. participants are allowed to withdraw their data from the study.

Question 21

Org Psych

When conducting a(n) ___________, an organizational psychologist would assign points to a job’s compensable factors

Answer 21

Job Evaluation

The point system is a commonly used method of job evaluation. It involves determining the monetary value of a job by assigning points to the job’s compensable factors (e.g., effort, skill, responsibility, work conditions); summing the points to derive a total score; and using the total score to determine the appropriate compensation for the job.

Question 22

Research

The central limit theorem predicts that, regardless of the shape of the population distribution of scores, a sampling distribution of means increasingly approaches the shape of:
A. the population distribution as the number of samples increases.
B. the population distribution as the sample size increases.
C. a normal distribution as the number of samples increases.
D. a normal distribution as the sample size increases.

Answer 22

D. a normal distribution as the sample size increases.

Question 23

According to the encoding specificity hypothesis, forgetting is caused by inadequate:
A. retrieval cues.
B. elaborative rehearsal.
C. attention to details while encoding new information.
D. organization of new information.

Answer 23

Retrieval Cues

According to the encoding specificity hypothesis, retrieval from long-term memory is maximized when the conditions at the time of encoding new information are the same as the conditions at the time of information retrieval – e.g., when the person learns and retrieves information in the same environment or while in the same mood. When this occurs, conditions at the time of recall act as retrieval cues.

Question 24

A supervisor tells you that the low job motivation of one of her newly hired supervisees is affecting his job performance, and she asks your advice about the best management style when working with him. As an advocate of ______________, you question the supervisor about some of the characteristics of the supervisee and his job tasks and, based on her answers, recommend that she adopt a supportive style with this supervisee.
A. Fiedler’s contingency theory
B. Dansereau, Graen, and Haga’s (1975) leader-member exchange theory
C. House’s path-goal theory
D. Vroom-Yetton-Jago’s leadership model

Answer 24

House’s Path Goal Theory

According to House’s (1971) path-goal theory, an effective leader adopts the style (directive, achievement-oriented, supportive, or participative) that best fits certain characteristics of the employee and the employee’s tasks.

Question 25

Generalized onset seizures always:
A. include a loss of consciousness.
B. include motor symptoms.
C. include a loss of consciousness and motor symptoms.
D. begin with an aura.

Answer 25

A.include a loss of consciousness

There are two types of generalized onset seizures – generalized onset motor seizures (also known as tonic-clonic seizures) and generalized onset non-motor seizures (also known as absence seizures). Both include a loss of consciousness but, as their names suggest, only generalized onset motor seizures include motor symptoms. Although auras are most associated with focal onset seizures, there is evidence that they occur for some people with generalized onset seizures.

Question 26

Beginning in early adolescence, the rate of major depressive disorder for females is about ________ times the rate for boys

Answer 26

1.5 to 3 times

Question 27

Which of the following best describes implied consent?
A. It refers to a person’s informed consent when it is not written or documented.
B. It applies only when a person is believed to be a danger to self or others.
C. It is inferred from the behaviors or circumstances of a person.
D. It applies only when a person lacks the capacity to give informed consent.

Answer 27

It is inferred from the behaviours and circumstances of the person

Question 28

Which of the following is true about the prescription and tapering of benzodiazepines for older adults?
A. Benzodiazepines that have a shorter half-life are preferred, and tapering should be slow.
B. Benzodiazepines that have a shorter half-life are preferred, and tapering should be rapid.
C. Benzodiazepines that have a longer half-life are preferred, and tapering should be slow.
D. Benzodiazepines that have a longer half-life are preferred, and tapering should be rapid.

Answer 28

A. Benzodiazepines that have a shorter half-life are preferred, and tapering should be slow.

Increasing age increases the half-life of the benzodiazepines, so, benzodiazepines with a shorter half-life are recommended for older adults. In addition, a slow taper of the drugs over several months is recommended to reduce the risk for and severity of withdrawal symptoms.

tapering schedule depending on the initial drug dose and duration of treatment

Question 29

What is the range of scores for Reliability Coefficient?

Answer 29

0 to 1.0
closer the coefficient is to 1.0 the less the effect of measurement error and greater the consistency of scores

Question 30

What is the range of scores for Criterion-related validity coefficient?

Answer 30

-1.0 to +1.0
The closer it is to 0 the lower the predicotr’s criterion-related validity

Question 31

what would be the best for a company - a high or low selection ratio?

Answer 31

A low selection ratio is good for the company as it means it has more applicants to choose from.

Question 32

What does it means when the base rate is low with regard to employee selection procedure?

Answer 32

It means that soemthing other than the slection procedure (e.g. inadequate training) is the problem becasue its not likely that use of current procedure resulats in shoosing least suitable applicants.

A moderate base rate (.50) is associated with greatest increase in decision-making accuracy

Question 33

What for Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser Formula used?

Answer 33

It is used for utility analysis - method for evaluating the economic return on investment of human resource intervention such as staffing and training

Question 34

What are Self-defining memory (SDM)?

Answer 34

Self-defining memory (SDM) is a component of episodic memory and consists of memories that contribute to the construction and maintenance of one’s personal identity.

Question 35

What are characteristics of Self-defining memory?

Answer 35

According to Singer (2005), SDMs have five characteristics:
1. Emotional intensity,
2. Vividness,
3. High levels of repetition,
4. Linkage to similar memories, and
5. Connections to enduring concerns or unresolved conflicts.

Question 36

Which aspect of an item characteristic curve (ICC) indicates the probability of choosing the correct answer to the item by guessing alone?
A. the position of the curve
B. the slope of the curve
C. the point at which the curve intercepts the x-axis
D. the point at which the curve intercepts the y-axis

Answer 36

D. the point at which the curve intercepts the y-axis
The various item response theory models produce item response curves that provide information on three parameters being
1. item difficulty,
2. item discrimination, and
3. the probability of guessing correctly.
`The probability of guessing correctly is indicated by the point at which the item response curve intercepts the y-axis.

Question 37

A worker-oriented _______________ is conducted to identify the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics required to perform a job successfully.
A. job evaluation
B. job analysis
C. organizational analysis
D. needs analysis

Answer 37

B. Job Analysis

Methods of job analysis are categorized as work-oriented or worker-oriented. Work-oriented methods focus on the tasks that must be accomplished to achieve desired job outcomes, while worker-oriented methods focus on the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics (KSAOs) of the worker that are required to accomplish job tasks.

Question 38

An undergraduate student is writing a paper on Taylor’s scientific management for her organizational psychology class. Assuming that the student understands the major assumptions of this approach, she’s likely to note in her paper that Taylor believed that worker motivation is most affected by which of the following?
A. desire for economic gain
B. desire for satisfying social relationships
C. prepotent needs
D. fear of punishment

Answer 38

A. Desire for economic gain

Question 39

Control, commitment, and challenge have been identified as the “3 C’s” of

Answer 39

Hardiness

Question 40

Herzberg’s (1966) two-factor theory predicts that ____________ is the best way to increase employees’ job motivation and satisfaction.

Answer 40

Job enrichment

Question 41

Kirkpatrick (1998) distinguished between four levels of training program evaluation and proposed that which of the following is the most informative level?

Answer 41

Results

Kirkpatrick’s evaluation model distinguishes between four levels of training program evaluation that are arranged in order from least to most informative: reaction, learning, behavior, and results.

Question 42

When obtaining a high score on one or more predictors cannot compensate for a low score on another predictor, the best technique for making a hiring decision on the basis of multiple predictors is which of the following?

Answer 42

Multiple cutoff

It is a noncompensatory technique that requires a job applicant to obtain a score that’s above the cutoff on each predictor to be considered for the job.

Question 43

As described by Fiedler (1967):
A. low LPC leaders are task-oriented, while high LPC leaders are person-oriented.
B. low LPC leaders are person-oriented, while high LPC leaders are task-oriented.
C. low LPC leaders are high in growth need strength, while high LPC leaders are low in growth need strength.
D. low LPC leaders are low in growth need strength, while high LPC leaders are high in growth need strength.

Answer 43

A. low LPC leaders are task-oriented, while high LPC leaders are person-oriented.

Low LPC leaders are task-oriented and describe their least preferred coworker in negative terms because they focus on the coworker’s task performance. In contrast,** high LPC leaders are person-oriented** and describe their least preferred coworker in positive terms because they separate interpersonal characteristics from task performance.

Question 44

What is Criterion contamination?

Answer 44

Criterion contamination occurs when a performance (criterion) measure is affected by factors unrelated to job performance – for example, when a supervisor’s performance ratings of employees are biased by the supervisor’s knowledge of how well employees did on the predictors that were used to hire them.

how well employees did on the selection measures that were used to hire them affects how the supervisor subsequently rates them

Question 46

What is myth of meritocracy?

Answer 46

It is a microinvalidation and is a form of racial microaggressions. It happens when someone assets that race has no effect on a person’s success or other life outcomes.

Question 47

what are tightest culture states in USA?

Answer 47

MAA - Mississippi, Alabama, and Arkansas were classified as the three “tightest” states

Question 48

What are the tightest culture nations?

Answer 48

Pakistan Malaysia and India

Question 49

What are loosest culture states in USA

Answer 49

COW - California, Oregon, and Washington were classified as the three “loosest” states.

Question 51

What is Gift giving?

Answer 51

Gift giving refers to the direct benefits that a client perceives he/she receives from therapy. These include providing the client with reassurance and a sense of hope, normalizing the client’s feelings, and using interventions that reduce the client’s depression or anxiety.

Question 52

What do you mean by empirically supported treatments?

Answer 52

often used to refer only to treatments that have been found to be effective by scientific research that meets certain criteria – e.g., multiple group studies that found the treatment to be superior to no-treatment or to be equivalent or superior to an established treatment.

Question 53

The use of folktales to present models of adaptive behaviour in therapy is referred to as__________

For Hispanic Latino Americans

Answer 53

Cuento therapy

Question 54

The use of proverbs and idiomatic expressions to help clients express their feelings is referred to as_________

Answer 54

Dichos

Question 55

Norcross and Lambert (2011) attribute ________ of variability in psychotherapy outcomes to patient contributions, _________ to the therapeutic relationship, __________ to the treatment method, __________ to therapist characteristics, _________ to other factors, and ___________ to unexplained variance.

Answer 55

Norcross and Lambert (2011) attribute 30% of variability in psychotherapy outcomes to patient contributions, 12% to the therapeutic relationship, 8% to the treatment method, 7% to therapist characteristics, 3% to other factors, and 40% to unexplained variance.

Question 56

What is theme interference?

Answer 56

Theme interference occurs when a consultee’s biases and unfounded beliefs interfere with his/her ability to be objective when working with certain types of clients. It is a factor in Consultee-centered Case consultation

Question 58

What are Efficacy Research studies or Clinical trials?

Answer 58

Efficacy research studies are also known as clinical trials and **maximize internal validity **(the ability to draw conclusions about the cause-effect relationship between therapy and outcomes) by maximizing experimental control. e.g, participants are randomly assigned to groups and therapists use treatment manuals to ensure that treatment is provided in the same way to all participants.

Question 59

What is a effectiveness study?

Answer 59

effectiveness research studies maximize external validity (the ability to generalize the conclusions drawn from the study to other people and conditions) by providing therapy in naturalistic clinical settings. Helps determining in “real world” settings generalizability, feasibility, and cost-effectiveness of a intervention/treatment.

Question 60

Eysenck concluded that _______ of patients who participated in psychoanalytic psychotherapy, _______of patients who participated in eclectic psychotherapy, and _________ of patients who did not participate in psychotherapy experienced an improvement in symptoms.

Answer 60

Eysenck concluded that 44% of patients who participated in psychoanalytic psychotherapy, 64% of patients who participated in eclectic psychotherapy, and 72% of patients who did not participate in psychotherapy experienced an improvement in symptoms.

Question 61

Bergin (1971) noted that the criteria Eysenck used to determine recovery were questionable and found that use of different criteria produced a recovery rate of_______ for patients who participated in psychoanalytic psychotherapy and ________ for patients who did not receive psychotherapy.

Answer 61

Bergin (1971) noted that the criteria Eysenck used to determine recovery were questionable and found that use of different criteria produced a recovery rate of 83% for patients who participated in psychoanalytic psychotherapy and 30% for patients who did not receive psychotherapy.

Question 62

What is the percentage of improvement for patients whose psychotherapy had an effect size of .85?

Answer 62

an effect size of .85 means that the average patient who received psychotherapy was better off than 80% of patients who didn’t receive therapy

Question 63

Howard et al (1986, 1996) research predicts that _______ of therapy clients can be expected to exhibit a clinically significant improvement in symptoms by six to eight sessions, __________ by 26 sessions, and ___________ by 52 sessions.

Answer 63

Howard et al (1986, 1996) predicts that 50% of therapy clients can be expected to exhibit a clinically significant improvement in symptoms by 6 to 8 sessions, 75% by 26 sessions, and 85% by 52 sessions.

Question 65

What is medical cost offset?

Answer 65

Research has found out courses of psychotherapy reduce overall medical utilization and expense. This is call medical cost offset. Chiles, Lambert, and Hatch’s (1999) meta-analysis of research conducted between 1967 and 1997 found out that 90% of the studies included in their analysis reported evidence of a medical cost offset and that the average cost savings attributable to a psychological intervention was 20%.

Question 66

What is Beta Bias?

Answer 66

tendency to minimize differences is called “beta bias”. A beta bias refers to theories that ignore or minimise sex differences. These theories often assume that the findings from studies using males can apply equally to females

Question 67

What is Alpha bias?

Answer 67

Alpha bias refers to theories which exaggerate the differences between males and females. e.g. Freud argued that ‘anatomy is destiny’, meaning that there are genuine psychological differences between men and women because of their physiological differences, for example, he claimed young girls suffer from ‘penis envy’, and viewed femininity as failed form of masculinity.

Question 68

What are Quaternary preventions?

Answer 68

Quaternary preventions identify patients who are at risk for over-medicalization in order to reduce their exposure to unnecessary and potentially harmful interventions.

Question 69

Are there evidence of gender differences? what are they?

Answer 69

Maccoby and Jacklin (1974) concluded that there were only four differences between boys and girls, including:

1. Girls have greater verbal ability
2. Boys have greater visual and spatial abilities
3. Boys have greater arithmetical ability, a difference that only appears at adolescence
4. Girls are less aggressive than boys

Question 70

what is evaluation apprehension?

Answer 70

It is also known as audience inhibition
Even when a bystander feels competent to provide help, he or she may decide not to do so because concerns about being judged negatively by others

Question 71

What is stimulus overload?

Answer 71

Stimulus overload can occur in big cities and other noisy environments and causes a person to restrict his or her attention to stimuli that seem personally relevant (Milgram, 1970)

Question 72

What is pluralistic ignorance?

Answer 72

bystander may fail to help someone because of the ambiguity of the situation or because of pluralistic ignorance, which is a misperception of how others are thinking or feeling. He/ she concludes that the inactivity of other bystanders is due to the fact that they know the situation does not constitute an emergency.

Question 73

What is diffusion of responsibility?

Answer 73

Diffusion of responsibility refers to a reduced sense of personal responsibility due to the belief that others are willing and able to provide assistance, and it increases as the number of bystanders increases. Studies have found that a victim is most likely to get help when there is only one bystander

Question 74

what is the negative state relief model ?

Answer 74

Negative state relief model (Cialdini, Darby & Vincent, 1973) focuses on the role of egoism and proposes that people help others to reduce their own distress. According to this model, people may feel empathy for a person-in-need, but their empathy produces sadness or guilt, which they attempt to alleviate by providing help.

Question 75

What do you measure using the F Scale?

Answer 75

F (Fascism) Scale assess authoritarianism and found that scores on the scale had high correlations with scores on measures of ethnocentrism and prejudice. Adorno and his colleagues (1950)

Question 77

____________ syndrome affects males, is due to the presence of an extra X chromosome, and causes a number of physical abnormalities.

A. Prader-Willi

B. Angelman

C. Klinefelter

D. Turner

Answer 77

Answer C is correct.
The symptoms of Klinefelter syndrome vary, but most males with an extra X chromosome have undeveloped testes, breast enlargement, long limbs with a short trunk, less facial and body hair, and a low testosterone level.

Question 79

In a research study, children were told not to play with an attractive toy during a free play period. Some of the children were told that the consequence for playing with the toy would be mild punishment, while others were told the consequence would be more severe punishment. All of the children refrained from playing with the toy but, when subsequently asked about the toy, only those who faced the threat of mild punishment said they disliked it. These results are consistent with the predictions of which of the following?

A. cognitive dissonance theory

B. elaboration likelihood model

C. theory of planned behavior

D. balance theory

Answer 79

Correct answer
A. cognitive dissonance theory

This question describes a study conducted by E. Aronson and J. M. Carlson (Effect of severity of threat on the devaluation of forbidden behavior, Journal of Abnormal and Social Psychology, 66, 584-588, 1963). In that study, children in the mild punishment group changed their attitude toward the toy because they did not have adequate justification for not playing with it. In other words, there was insufficient deterrence which, like insufficient justification, caused cognitive dissonance that the children reduced by deciding they didn’t like the toy

Question 81

The theory of planned behavior (Ajzen & Fishbein, 2005) predicts that a person’s behavior intention is affected by all of the following except:

A. current attitude.

B. need for cognitive constancy.

C. subjective norms.

D. perceived behavior control.

Answer 81

Answer B is correct. According to the theory of planned behavior, attitudes influence a person’s behavior intention which, in turn, affects the person’s behavior. In addition, three factors influence a person’s behavior intention: the person’s attitude toward the behavior, what the person thinks others believe he/she should do (subjective norms), and the person’s confidence in his/her ability to perform the behavior (perceived behavior control).

Question 82

In a research study, Halloween trick-or-treaters were assigned to one of four conditions: alone and identifiable, alone and unidentifiable, group and identifiable, or group and unidentifiable. For children in each condition, the researcher left the room after instructing them to take only one piece of candy from the bowl on the table. The results indicated that children took the most candy from the bowl when they were in a group and unidentifiable. These results provide support for which of the following?

A. deindividuation

B. insufficient justification

C. behavioral willingness

D. groupthink

Answer 82

Answer A is correct. The study described in this question is similar to the one conducted by E. Diener, S. C. Fraser, A. L. Beaman, and R. T. Kelem (Effects of deindividuation variables on stealing by Halloween trick-or-treaters, Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 33, 178-183, 1976). Consistent with other research on deindividuation, Diener et al. found that children took the most candy when they were in a group and could do so anonymously.

Question 83

Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy’s (1989) hopelessness model of depression proposes that hopelessness is a proximal cause of depression and that a sense of hopelessness is the result of:

A. a lack of response contingent reinforcement.

B. stable and global attributions for negative life events.

C. depressogenic cognitive schemata.

D. deficits in self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement.

Answer 83

Answer B is correct. According to L. Y. Abramson, G. I. Metalsky, and L. B. Alloy, the tendency to attribute negative life events to stable and global factors produces hopelessness (an expectation that desirable outcomes will not occur and/or that undesirable outcomes will occur). Hopelessness then leads to a specific type of depression, which they refer to as “hopelessness depression” (Hopelessness depression: A theory-based subtype of depression, Psychological Review, 96, 358-372, 1989).

Question 84

Damage to certain areas of the dominant parietal lobe can produce Gerstmann’s syndrome, which includes all of the following symptoms except:

A. finger agnosia.

B. agraphia.

C. left-right confusion.

D. ataxia.

Answer 84

Answer D is correct. Gerstmann’s syndrome involves four symptoms: finger agnosia, left-right confusion, agraphia (difficulty writing), and acalculia (difficulty performing simple mathematical operations). Even if you’re not familiar with Gerstmann’s syndrome, you may have been able to identify the correct answer to this question as long as you know that ataxia (loss of muscle control) is usually caused by damage to the cerebellum.

Question 86

The first step in Meichenbaum’s (1977) self-instructional training is:

A. conceptualization.

B. cognitive modeling.

C. problem identification.

D. orientation.

Answer 86

Answer B is correct. Meichenbaum’s self-instructional training was originally developed to help impulsive children have greater self-control when completing tasks by teaching them to use helpful self-statements to guide their behaviors. It involves five steps: cognitive modeling, overt external guidance, overt self-guidance, faded overt self-guidance, and covert self-instruction.

Question 88

Members of quality circles (QCs):

A. use statistical analysis, project management, and problem-solving methods to reduce the defect rate of products.

B. provide management with recommendations for resolving the work-related problems they’ve identified.

C. have total control over their own work, including task assignments and methods, work schedules, employee selection and training, and performance appraisal.

D. identify the unique and best aspects of the organization and generate ideas about how to build on them.

Answer 88

Answer B is correct.
Quality circles are small groups of employees who volunteer to meet regularly to identify problems and methods for resolving them. The employees then provide management with recommendations for alleviating the identified problems.

Question 89

Prader-Willi syndrome is most often caused by:

A. an extra chromosome 21.

B. an extra chromosome 15.

C. deletion of a segment on maternal chromosome 21.

D. deletion of a segment on paternal chromosome 15

Answer 89

Answer D is correct. Knowing that Prader-Willi syndrome is due to a chromosomal deletion would have helped you eliminate answers A and B, and knowing that chromosome 21 is most associated with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) would have helped you eliminate answer C. Prader-Willi syndrome is most often the result of the deletion of a segment on paternal chromosome 15, while Angelman syndrome is usually the result of the deletion of a segment on maternal chromosome 15.

Question 90

Which of the following is not a type of nonrandom sampling?

A. convenience sampling

B. quota sampling

C. cluster sampling

D. snowball sampling

Answer 90

Answer C is correct. Cluster sampling is a type of random (probability) sampling that can involve one or two stages: One-stage cluster sampling involves dividing the population of interest into clusters (groups) and then using simple random sampling to select clusters from the population and including all individuals in the selected clusters to participate in the research study. Two-stage cluster sampling begins in the same way as one-stage cluster sampling but ends with randomly selecting individuals from each of the selected clusters to participate in the research study. The other sampling techniques listed in the answers are nonrandom (non-probability) sampling techniques: Convenience sampling (answer A) involves including any individuals in the study who are available and meet specified criteria (e.g., all clients in a clinic who have received a diagnosis of major depressive disorder). When using quota sampling (answer B), the researcher identifies the major groups of interest, determines the number of participants to include from each group, and then selects convenience samples of the desired size from each group. When using snowball sampling, participants are obtained by asking the first person who is located or volunteers for the study to identify other possible participants who meet specified criteria, then asking those people to identify other possible participants, and so on until a sufficient number of participants is obtained. This method is useful when it’s difficult to locate members of a special population (e.g., homeless individuals, gang leaders).

Question 92

As described by Leyens et al. (2000), infrahumanization is characterized by:

A. ingroup favoritism and outgroup derogation.

B. ingroup derogation and outgroup favoritism.

C. ingroup and outgroup favoritism.

D. ingroup and outgroup derogation.

Answer 92

Answer A is correct. According to infrahumanization theory, people tend to humanize members of ingroups by attributing secondary emotions to them (pride, compassion, remorse and other emotions that are unique to humans) which, in turn, elicits empathy and prosocial behaviors toward them. In contrast, people tend to dehumanize members of outgroups by attributing fewer secondary emotions to them which, in turn, elicits less empathy toward and acceptance of them (J. P. Leyens, A. Rodriguez-Perez, R. Rodriguez-Torres, R. Gaunt, P. M. Paladino, J. Vaes, and S. Demoulin, Psychological essentialism and the differential attribution of uniquely human emotions to ingroups and outgroups, European Journal of Social Psychology, 31, 359-411, 2001).

Question 93

The Taylor-Russell tables are used to obtain an estimate of a predictor’s:

A. criterion-related validity.

B. incremental validity.

C. likelihood of causing adverse impact.

D. susceptibility to the effects of measurement error.

Answer 93

Answer B is correct. The Taylor-Russell tables are used to obtain an estimate of a predictor’s incremental validity for various combinations of criterion-related validity coefficients, base rates, and selection ratios.

Question 94

As described by Gelfand and colleagues (2006), the factors that determine whether a culture is “tight” or “loose” are:

A. formality of social norms and degree of authoritarianism.

B. strength of social norms and tolerance for deviance.

C. cultural fit and cultural distance.

D. degree of individualism versus collectivism.

Answer 94

Answer B is correct. Cultural tightness-looseness refers to the strength of a culture’s social norms and tolerance for deviant behaviors: Tight cultures have strong social norms and low tolerance for deviant behaviors, while loose cultures have weak social norms and high tolerance for deviant behaviors.

Question 95

Covert sensitization uses which of the following to eliminate an undesirable behavior?

A. higher-order conditioning

B. classical extinction

C. aversive counterconditioning

D. avoidance conditioning

Answer 95

Answer C is correct. Covert sensitization is a type of aversion therapy that’s conducted in imagination rather than in vivo (with real stimuli). Aversion therapy is also known as aversive counterconditioning.

Question 98

Glasser’s reality therapy is based on choice theory which states that all people are motivated to:

A. satisfy five genetically encoded needs.

B. find meaning and purpose in life.

C. fulfill their innate capacity for self-actualization.

D. develop an adaptive lifestyle.

Answer 98

Answer A is correct. According to choice theory, all people are born with five genetically encoded needs (love/belonging, power, fun, freedom, and survival) and satisfying these needs is the primary source of motivation. Answer B describes existential therapy, answer C describes person-centered therapy, and answer D describes Adler’s individual psychology.

Question 100

What is a Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ)

Answer 100

The Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) is a worker-oriented job analysis questionnaire that addresses six categories of work activity:
1. information input,
2. mental processes,
3. work output,
4. relationships with other people,
5. job context, and
6. other characteristics.

Question 101

Implosive therapy combines:

A. in vivo exposure and reciprocal inhibition.

B. in vivo exposure and cognitive restructuring.

C. exposure in imagination and psychodynamic techniques.

D. exposure in imagination and stimulus generalization.

Answer 101

Answer C is correct. When using implosive therapy, the client imagines the feared object or situation and the therapist embellishes the imagined scene with psychodynamic themes (e.g., aggression, guilt, or sexuality).

Question 102

Research has found that the greatest age-related atrophy in the adult cortex occurs in the:

A. frontal and parietal lobes.

B. frontal and occipital lobes.

C. temporal and parietal lobes.

D. temporal and occipital lobes.

Answer 102

Answer A is correct. Studies investigating age-related changes in the adult brain have found that the greatest decrease in volume occurs in the frontal lobes (especially the prefrontal cortex) and parietal lobes. See, e.g., S. M. Resnick et al., Longitudinal magnetic resonance imaging studies of older adults: A shrinking brain, Journal of Neuroscience, 23, 3295-3301, 2003.

Question 103

An infant’s babbling initially includes sounds from all languages but begins to narrow to the sounds of the infant’s native language by about ___ months of age.

A. 4

B. 6

C. 9

D. 12

Answer 103

Answer C is correct. The initial babbling of infants includes sounds of all languages regardless of the language(s) the infant has been exposed to. By about 9 months of age, babbling begins to narrow to the language sounds the infant hears every day.

Question 104

After watching a 15-minute infomercial for a diet program that includes packaged meals and motivational CDs, a viewer bought the program because she thought the spokesperson (a well-known TV celebrity) was credible and attractive and watching the infomercial put her in a good mood. According to the elaboration likelihood model (Petty & Cacioppo, 1981):

A. the information presented in the infomercial was in the viewer’s latitude of acceptance.

B. the information presented in the infomercial was in the viewer’s latitude of non-commitment.

C. the viewer used the peripheral route to process the information presented in the infomercial.

D. the viewer used the central route to process the information presented in the infomercial.

Answer 104

Answer C is correct. According to the elaboration likelihood model, when using the peripheral route,** peripheral cues (e.g., the credibility and attractiveness of the person delivering the message)** are more influential than the content of the message. In addition, the model predicts that a person is more likely to use the peripheral route when he/she is in a good mood and/or perceives the message to be unimportant.

Question 106

Of the three types of microaggression described by Sue and his colleagues (2007), __________ is most similar to “old-fashioned” racism.

A. microinvalidation

B. microinsult

C. microassault

D. microinjustice

Answer 106

Answer C is correct. D. W. Sue and his colleagues distinguish between three types of microaggression: microinvalidation, microinsult, and microassault. They state that microassaults are closest to “old-fashioned” racism and consist of “an explicit racial derogation characterized by a verbal or nonverbal attack meant to hurt the intended victim through name-calling, avoidant behavior, or purposeful discriminatory actions” [Racial microaggressions in everyday life: Implications for clinical practice, American Psychologist, 62(4), 271-286, 2007].

Question 108

A friend of yours says she’s noticed that she’s most attracted to people who start out “not being too crazy” about her but like her a lot after they get to know her. Your friend’s comment is most consistent with which of the following?

A. the law of attraction

B. the gain-loss effect

C. the mere exposure effect

D. the sleeper effect

Answer 108

Answer B is correct. Research on the gain-loss effect (Aronson & Linder, 1965) has found that we’re more attracted to people who initially dislike us but then change their minds after they get to know us than we are to people who express constant liking for us.

Question 109

Studies investigating ____________ often place infants in uncertain situations that include a stranger, a novel toy or other object, or the visual cliff.

A. basic temperament

B. problem-solving

C. social referencing

D. self-awareness

Answer 109

Answer C is correct. Social referencing refers to the use of the emotional reactions of a parent or other person to determine how to respond in ambiguous situations. Most studies on social referencing in infancy have created an ambiguous situation by presenting the infants with a stranger, a novel object, or the visual cliff while a parent or other caregiver is nearby.

Question 110

A young man with synesthesia is most likely to say he:

A. experiences different sounds as different colors.

B. never experiences strong emotions.

C. feels numbness and tingling in his hands and feet.

D. can’t distinguish between hot and cold.

Answer 110

Answer A is correct. Synesthesia is a rare neurological phenomenon in which one type of external sensory input simultaneously stimulates another type of sensory input – e.g., an auditory stimulus is not only perceived as a sound but also as a color.

Question 111

Marlatt and Gordon’s relapse prevention (RP) model identifies which of the following as the immediate precipitant of alcohol use after a period of abstinence?

A. craving for alcohol

B. high-risk situations

C. lifestyle imbalance

D. “apparently irrelevant decisions”

Answer 111

Answer B is correct. Marlatt and Gordon’s RP model proposes that relapse is the result of immediate determinants and covert antecedents and describes high risk situations (an immediate determinant) as the immediate precipitators of alcohol use after a period of abstinence. See, e.g., M. E. Larimer, R. S. Palmer, and G. A. Marlatt, Relapse prevention: An overview of Marlatt’s cognitive-behavioral model, Alcohol Research and Health, 23(2), 151-160, 1999.

Question 112

Samantha, age 16, says that it’s not necessary to use protection when having sex with her boyfriend because “there’s no way I’m going to get pregnant.” According to Elkind (1976), this is an example of which of the following?

A. identity moratorium

B. magical thinking

C. the personal fable

D. the self-serving bias

Answer 112

Answer C is correct. Elkind proposed that early formal operational thought is characterized by adolescent egocentrism, and he identified the personal fable as one of its manifestations. As defined by Elkind, the personal fable is the belief that one is unique and not subject to the rules or consequences that apply to other people. An adolescent’s belief that there’s “no way” that having unprotected sex with her boyfriend could lead to pregnancy is an example of the personal fable.

Question 113

Job applicants who are hired on the basis of their scores on a job selection test but then obtain unsatisfactory scores on a measure of job performance six months later are:

A. false negatives.

B. true negatives.

C. false positives.

D. true positives.

Answer 113

Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you have to remember that a person’s score on the predictor (in this case, the job selection test) determines whether he/she is a “positive” or “negative” and that the person’s score on the criterion (the measure of job performance) determines whether he/she is a “true” or “false” positive or negative. Therefore, for this question, a “true positive,” is an applicant who scored above the cutoff on the job selection test and receives satisfactory scores on the job performance measure, while a “false positive” (the correct answer) is an applicant who scored above the cutoff on the job selection test but receives unsatisfactory scores on the job performance measure. A “true negative” is an applicant who scored below the cutoff on the job selection test and would have received unsatisfactory scores on the job performance measure if he/she had been hired, while a “false negative” is an applicant who scored below the cutoff on the job selection test but would have received satisfactory scores on the job performance measure if he/she had been hired.

Question 114

The assessment of treatment fidelity focuses on which of the following?

A. efficacy and effectiveness

B. reliability and validity

C. differentiation, adherence, and competency

D. familiarity, confidence, and preparedness

Answer 114

Answer C is correct. Treatment fidelity refers to the degree to which a treatment is delivered as intended and is affected by the
1. degree to which the therapist delivered only the target treatment and no other treatments (differentiation),
2. the therapist’s adherence to the treatment protocol (adherence), and
3. the therapist’s competence in delivering the treatment (competency).
Consequently, these three factors are the primary targets of an evaluation of a treatment’s fidelity.

Question 115

Soon after a young child learns that the family pet is a “doggie,” he starts calling cats and all other furry four-legged animals “doggie.” According to Piaget, this is an example of which of the following?

A. assimilation

B. equilibration

C. accommodation

D. horizontal decalage

Answer 115

Answer A is correct. Piaget proposed that the construction of knowledge involves adaptation, which consists of two processes – assimilation and accommodation. Assimilation occurs when children apply their existing schemes (cognitive structures) to new experiences, while accommodation occurs when children modify their existing schemes to better fit new experiences. Applying the word “doggie” to all furry four-legged animals is an example of assimilation.

Question 116

Long-term potentiation (LTP) has been linked to:

A. REM sleep.

B. visual processing.

C. seizure disorders.

D. memory storage.

Answer 116

Answer D is correct. LTP refers to an increase in synaptic efficacy as the result of repetitive stimulation and is believed to play an important role in the formation and storage of new memories.

Question 117

A picture of a knife is projected onto a screen so that it’s briefly presented only to the right visual field of a split-brain patient, and a picture of a fork is then briefly presented only to the patient’s left visual field. When asked to verbally identify what he has seen, the patient:

A. will be able to say “knife” and, although he can’t say “fork,” will be able to pick out a fork with his left hand.

B. will be able to say “fork” and, although he can’t say “knife,” will be able to pick out a knife with his right hand.

C. will be able to say “knife” but won’t be able to say “fork” or pick out a fork with his right or left hand.

D. will be able to say “fork” but won’t be able to say “knife” or pick out a knife with his right or left hand.

Answer 117

Answer A is correct. Ordinarily information received by the left hemisphere is shared with the right hemisphere and vice versa, but split-brain patients have had their corpus callosums severed to control severe epilepsy which limits communication between the two hemispheres.** Most language processing occurs in the left hemisphere, so split-brain patients can verbally identify images that are projected to the right visual field because information about those images is sent via the optic nerve to the left hemisphere. In contrast, split-brain patients cannot verbally identify images that are presented to the left visual field **because that information is sent to the right hemisphere and isn’t shared with the left hemisphere. However, they can pick out the objects depicted in the images with their left hands because the right hemisphere controls the left hand.

Question 118

Alma A., a 68-year-old retired real estate agent, is brought to therapy by her daughter who says that Alma has become forgetful, has difficulty concentrating, and seems depressed. The presence of which of the following would suggest that Alma’s symptoms are more likely due to a neurocognitive disorder than to pseudodementia (major depressive disorder)?

A. Alma’s daughter says her mother’s symptoms began soon after the family dog died.

B. Alma’s daughter says her mother’s symptoms are worse in the evening.

C. Alma often answers “I don’t know” in response to assessment questions.

D. Alma exaggerates her cognitive problems.

Answer 118

Answer B is correct. Major depressive disorder and neurocognitive disorder share some symptoms, but they also differ in important ways. The behaviors described in answers A, C, and D are more characteristic of pseudodementia than of a neurocognitive disorder.
In contrast, worsening of symptoms in the evening (“sundowning”) is more characteristic of a neurocognitive disorder.

Question 119

Therapy based on Boyd-Franklin’s (1989) multisystems model:

A. combines components of the treatment process with levels at which the therapist can provide treatment.

B. includes interventions that target the microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, macrosystem, and chronosystem.

C. combines individual interventions for each family member with group therapy and family therapy.

D. involves progressively intervening at the individual, family, and community levels.

Answer 119

Answer A is correct. Boyd-Franklin developed the multisystems model specifically for African American families. The model consists of two main axes: Axis I consists of the components of the treatment process (e.g., joining, assessing, restructuring), while Axis II consists of the various levels at which treatment can be applied (e.g., individual, family, nonblood kin, friends, community).

Question 120

When using the Mini Mental State Exam (MMSE) as a screening tool for cognitive impairment in older adults, it’s important to keep in mind that use of the standard cutoff score for African American and Latino patients may result in too many ____________ and that __________ the cutoff score for these individuals reduces this problem.

A. false positives; lowering

B. false positives; raising

C. false negatives; lowering

D. false negatives; raising

Answer 120

Answer A is correct. The studies have found that use of the standard cutoff score (24) on the MMSE with African American and Latino patients results in too many false positives. Scores on the MMSE range from 0 to 30, with lower scores indicating greater cognitive impairment, so lowering the cutoff score for these patients reduces this problem. See, e.g., C. A. Manning and J. K. Ducharme, Dementia syndromes in the older adult, in P. A. Lichtenberg (Ed.), Handbook of assessment in clinical gerontology, pp. 155-178, Academic Press, San Diego, CA, 2010.

Question 121

The goodness-of-fit model developed by Thomas and Chess (1977) focuses on the match between a child’s __________ and the demands of the social environment.

A. temperament

B. sense of self

C. emotional development

D. cognitive development

Answer 121

Answer A is correct. The goodness-of-fit model proposes that maladjustment in young children is often the result of a mismatch between the child’s temperament and the demands of the social environment, especially the parents’ expectations and childrearing practices.

Question 122

Regulated breathing has been found to be an effective treatment for which of the following?

A. childhood-onset fluency disorder

B. dysarthria

C. intermittent explosive disorder

D. central sleep apnea

Answer 122

Answer A is correct. Regulated breathing is a behavioral intervention that has been found to be effective for treating stuttering (childhood-onset fluency disorder). It involves teaching the child to breathe in a way that’s incompatible with stuttering. See, e.g., C. A. Conelea, K. A. Rice, and D. W. Woods, Regulated breathing as a treatment for stuttering: A review of the empirical evidence, Journal of Speech-Language Pathology and Applied Behavior Analysis, 1(2), 94-102, 2006.

Question 123

John Jr. just turned 14 and has started demanding to be allowed to make his own decisions and to have more privileges and independence from the family. In response, John’s parents continue to treat him like a child and have become more punitive in an attempt to keep things the way they were. The parents’ response to John’s demands illustrates which of the following?

A. positive feedback

B. negative feedback

C. reframing

D. restraining

Answer 123

Answer B is correct. Negative feedback serves to maintain the status quo (i.e., to keep things the way they were), while positive feedback promotes change. Reframing and restraining are paradoxical techniques used by therapists to alter behavior.

Question 124

The effects of damage to the left and right hemispheres of the cerebral cortex depend on the specific location of the damage but, with regard to emotions, damage to the left hemisphere is most likely to produce:

A. inappropriate indifference or euphoria.

B. depression or emotional volatility.

C. unprovoked rage and hostility.

D. unrealistic confidence and optimism.

Answer 124

Answer B is correct.
Positive emotions are processed primarily in the left hemisphere, and damage to this hemisphere can produce depression or emotional volatility (which is described by some authors as a catastrophic reaction). Negative emotions are processed primarily in the right hemisphere, and damage can produce inappropriate indifference or euphoria.

Question 125

Brain imaging studies have linked the negative symptoms of schizophrenia to:

A. an overactive HPA axis.

B. a smaller-than-normal cerebellum.

C. temporal-limbic overactivity.

D. prefrontal underactivity.

Answer 125

Answer D is correct. Prefrontal underactivity is also known as hypofrontality and refers to reduced blood flow to the frontal lobes. It has been linked to the negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Temporal-limbic overactivity has been linked to the disorder’s positive symptoms.

Question 126

____________ consists of three overlapping stages: conceptualization, skill acquisition and rehearsal, and application and follow-through.

A. Self-instructional training

B. Stress inoculation training

C. Problem-solving therapy

D. Motivational interviewing

Answer 126

Answer B is correct. Meichenbaum’s (2003) stress inoculation training is based on the assumption that acquiring effective strategies for coping with stress helps “inoculate” a person from experiencing high levels of stress in the future. It consists of the three stages:
1. conceptualization,
2. skill acquisition and rehearsal, and
3. application and follow-through.

Question 127

Based on her observations of children 2-1/2 to 4 years of age, Mildred Parten (1932) derived six types of social participation that differ in terms of level of social complexity. Of these six types, she identified which of the following as the most socially complex?

A. parallel play

B. mastery play

C. cooperative play

D. associative play

Answer 127

Answer C is correct. Parten concluded that the six types of social participation emerge sequentially and progress from least to most complex in terms of social interaction and cooperation:
Acronym - USO PAC
1. unoccupied behavior,
2. solitary play,
3. onlooker behavior,
4. parallel play,
5. associative play, and
6. cooperative play.

Question 128

Mowrer’s (1960) two-factor theory of learning is most useful for understanding which of the following?

A. avoidance conditioning

B. escape conditioning

C. spontaneous recovery

D. operant extinction

Answer 128

Answer A is correct. Mowrer’s two-factor theory of learning proposes that some behaviors are the result of a combination of classical and operant conditioning. Avoidance conditioning is an example of two-factor learning because it combines classical conditioning and negative reinforcement (operant conditioning). For example, a rat may learn that it can escape (stop) an electric shock by pressing a bar, which is the negative reinforcement component. Then, if a flashing light signals that the shock is about to occur, the light becomes paired with the shock so that the light elicits anticipatory fear, which is the classical conditioning component. The rat then avoids the shock by pressing the bar as soon as the light starts flashing.

Question 129

A young man taking a conventional antipsychotic as a treatment for schizophrenia develops tardive dyskinesia. Of the following, which would be the best course of action in this situation?

A. increase the dose of the conventional antipsychotic

B. replace the conventional antipsychotic with an atypical antipsychotic

C. immediately discontinue the conventional antipsychotic

D. have the patient take a low dose of a dopamine antagonist

Answer 129

Answer B is correct. The atypical antipsychotics are less likely to cause tardive dyskinesia and, if a patient’s symptoms require continued treatment with an antipsychotic drug, switching to an atypical drug is an option. The actions described in the other answers would increase the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. (Withdrawing the conventional antipsychotic is also an option but gradual withdrawal is preferred because symptoms may worsen if the drug is abruptly withdrawn.)

Question 130

At the beginning of her third therapy session, your new client says she’s “already feeling much better.” According to Howard et al.’s (1996) phase model, the client’s improvement is most likely due to which of the following?

A. the formation of a therapeutic alliance

B. an initial decrease in symptoms

C. the experience of catharsis

D. an increased sense of hope

Answer 130

Answer D is correct. According to Howard et al.’s phase model, the effects of therapy change over time and occur in three phases – remoralization,
remediation, and
rehabilitation.
Remoralization occurs during the first few sessions and involves an increased sense of hope that a positive outcome is possible.

Question 131

The Kuder-Richardson Formula 20 (KR-20) can be used to estimate a test’s ____________ reliability when test items are scored dichotomously.

A. alternate forms

B. internal consistency

C. test-retest

D. inter-rater

Answer 131

Answer B is correct. KR-20 is a variation of coefficient alpha that can be used to evaluate a test’s internal consistency reliability when test items are scored dichotomously (e.g., as correct or incorrect).

Question 132

In the context of psychological assessment, the terms “floor” and “ceiling” refer to:

A. the lowest and highest true scores an examinee is likely to have, given his or her obtained predictor score.

B. the lowest and highest scores an examinee is likely to obtain on a criterion, given his or her predictor score.

C. the degree to which a test can discriminate among examinees who have very low levels or very high levels of the characteristic measured by the test.

D. the degree to which a test accurately predicts the criterion scores of examinees who obtain very low scores or very high scores on the test.

Answer 132

Answer C is correct. A test has **limited floor **when it cannot discriminate well among examinees who have a low level of the characteristic measured by the test because the test does not include a sufficient number of easy items.

In contrast, a test has limited ceiling when it cannot discriminate well among examinees who have a high level of the characteristic measured by the test because it** does not include a sufficient number of difficult items.**

Question 133

A young man complains that “everyone at work hates me.” His therapist says it may be true that his coworkers hate him and asks him to list the ways they have expressed their hate. The therapist is using which of the following paradoxical techniques?

A. reframing

B. prescribing

C. restraining

D. positioning

Answer 133

Answer D is correct.
When using positioning, the therapist accepts and exaggerates the client’s concern. in order to help the client recognize its absurdity or irrationality.

In Symptom Prescription the
Family is requested to continue to perform or even exaggerate and aggravate the symptom. It may be compliance based (when the goal of the therapist is for the family to comply with the suggestion) or defiance based (when the
therapist wants the family to defy the suggestion).
Restraining Techniques
Members of the family are warned of the dangers of change and restrained
from trying to do so. Applied in families ambivalent to change.

Question 134

Which of the following is most responsible for depth perception of objects that are at a close distance?

A. motion parallax

B. interposition of objects

C. retinal disparity

D. linear perspective

Answer 134

Answer C is correct. Retinal disparity refers to differences in retinal images in the left and right eyes and is responsible for depth perception of objects that are at a close distance. In contrast, motion parallax (the quicker movement of closer objects across the visual field), interposition (overlap) of objects, and linear perspective are responsible for depth perception of objects that are at a greater distance.

Question 135

Erik Erikson (1978) identified a positive outcome (“virtue”) for each of his eight stages of psychosocial development. Which of the following does not accurately match a stage with its positive outcome?

A. generativity vs. stagnation: care

B. autonomy vs. shame and doubt: purpose

C. industry vs. inferiority: competence

D. basic trust vs. mistrust: hope

Answer 135

Answer B is correct. Erikson identified will (initiative and self-determination) as the positive outcome of the autonomy vs. shame stage of psychosocial development.

Question 136

In their Robbers Cave study, Sherif and his colleagues (1966) found that competition between two groups of boys for desired prizes produced a high degree of intergroup hostility. These results provide support for which of the following theories of prejudice and discrimination?

A. social identity theory

B. realistic conflict theory

C. scapegoat theory

D. extended contact theory

Answer 136

Answer B is correct. According to realistic conflict theory, prejudice and discrimination are the result of direct competition between groups for scarce and valued resources. Evidence for this theory is provided by Sherif’s Robbers Cave study in which conflict between groups was generated by having two groups of boys who had strong attachments to members of their own group compete for desired prizes.

Question 137

Mark, age 9, is brought to therapy by his parents who say his behavior has gotten “out of control” and they don’t know why or what to do about it. Mark’s parents describe his symptoms and say they started about a year ago. Based on their description, it appears that Mark’s symptoms are consistent with a diagnosis of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, predominantly hyperactive/impulsive presentation. To confirm this diagnosis, you will do which of the following?

A. confirm the age of onset of his symptoms

B. determine if his symptoms occur outside the home

C. administer a measure of academic achievement

D. administer a measure of adaptive functioning

Answer 137

Answer B is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of ADHD requires the presence of characteristic symptoms in at least two settings (e.g., at home and at school) with an onset before 12 years of age and a duration of at least six months.

Question 138

By about __________ months of age, children use two words to create a simple sentence – for example, “juice gone,” “get toy,” and “big doggie.”

A. 12 to 18

B. 18 to 24

C. 24 to 30

D. 30 to 36

Answer 138

Answer B is correct. The use of two words to create a sentence is referred to as telegraphic speech. It begins when a child is between 18 and 24 months of age and usually includes a** noun and a verb or a noun and an adjective.**

Question 139

Thorndike’s research with ____________ led to his development of the law of effect.

A. mice in a maze

B. chimpanzees in a cage

C. cats in a puzzle box

D. pigeons in an operant-conditioning chamber

Answer 139

Answer C is correct. Thorndike found that, through trial-and-error, hungry cats in a puzzle box eventually performed the behavior that opened a door and gave them access to food. He also found that the successful behavior was quickly “stamped in” and repeated, which led to his development of the law of effect. It predicts that behaviors that are followed by satisfying consequences are more likely to recur.

Question 140

Which of the following provides global scores that correspond to two theoretical models – the Cattell-Horn-Carroll model of cognitive abilities and the Luria neuropsychological processing model?

A. Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children, Second Edition

B. Slosson Intelligence Test, Revised Third Edition

C. Cognitive Assessment System, Second Edition

D. Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test, Fourth Edition

Answer 140

Answer A is correct. The Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children, Second Edition (KABC-II) provides five scale scores (
1. Simultaneous,
2. Sequential,
3. Planning,
4. Learning, and
5. Knowledge) and
two global scores.

The global score based on the Cattell-Horn-Carroll model of cognitive abilities includes performance on measures of acquired (crystallized) knowledge, while the global score based on the Luria neuropsychological processing model does not include performance on measures of acquired knowledge.

Question 141

When people are exposed to arguments that address both sides of a controversial issue, a primacy effect is most likely to occur when:

A. one side is presented immediately after the other side and attitudes are measured immediately after the second presentation.

B. one side is presented immediately after the other side and attitudes are measured one week later.

C. one side is presented one week after the other side and attitudes are measured immediately after the second presentation.

D. one side is presented one week after the other side and attitudes are measured one week later.

Answer 141

Answer B is correct. The primacy effect is the tendency to remember or be persuaded most by information that’s presented first.
Miller and Campbell (1959) found that the primacy effect is most likely to occur when the two sides of an argument are presented back-to-back and there’s an interval of time between presentation of the second side and attitude assessment.

Question 142

The self-serving bias is the tendency to:

A. attribute our successes to controllable factors and our failures to uncontrollable factors.

B. attribute our successes to dispositional factors and our failures to situational factors.

C. seek out information that confirms our attitudes and beliefs and ignore information that contradicts them.

D. bolster our self-esteem by focusing on our successes and minimizing or denying our failures.

Answer 142

Answer B is correct. The self-serving bias occurs when we attribute our own behaviors to dispositional factors when those behaviors have desirable outcomes but to situational factors when they have undesirable outcomes.

Question 143

The Wonderlic Personnel Test-Revised is a measure of:

A. general mental ability.

B. work-related motivation.

C. occupational interests.

D. work-related integrity.

Answer 143

Answer A is correct. The Wonderlic Personnel Test – Revised (WPT-R) is a 12-minute test of general mental ability that’s used to predict job success.

Question 144

Research on the Fagan Test of Intelligence has confirmed that ____________ in infancy is a good predictor of IQ in childhood, adolescence, and young adulthood.

A. socio-emotional behavior

B. language production and comprehension

C. sensorimotor development

D. selective attention to novel stimuli

Answer 144

Answer D is correct. The Fagan Test of Intelligence is a measure of selective attention to novel stimuli, and research has found that performance on the Fagan Test is a good predictor of IQ scores in childhood, adolescence, and early adulthood. See, e.g., J. F. Fagan, C. R. Holland, and K. Wheeler, The prediction, from infancy, of adult IQ and achievement, Intelligence, 35(3), 225-231, 2007.

Question 145

Francis Galton was surprised when he found that a group of contestants at a country fair produced a more accurate estimate of an oxen’s weight when their individual estimates were averaged than the estimate made by any one cattle expert. Averaging the estimates provided by a group of contestants is an example of which of the following tasks?

A. disjunctive

B. conjunctive

C. discretionary

D. compensatory

Answer 145

Answer D is correct. Steiner (1972) distinguished between five types of group tasks:
C2AD2 or CCADD
1.additive,
2. compensatory,
3. disjunctive,
4. conjunctive, and
5. discretionary.
When working on a compensatory task, the group’s output is the average of each member’s estimate, judgment, or other input.

Question 146

In the first phase of one of Pavlov’s experiments with dogs, a tone was repeatedly paired with food so that, eventually, a dog salivated when the tone was presented alone. In the second phase of the experiment, a light was repeatedly paired with the tone so that the dog also salivated when the light was presented alone. The procedure used in this experiment is known as:

A. stimulus generalization.

B. stimulus discrimination.

C. delay conditioning.

D. higher-order conditioning.

Answer 146

Answer D is correct. Higher-order conditioning involves using the initial conditioned stimulus (the tone in the situation described in this question) as an unconditioned stimulus by pairing it with a neutral stimulus (the light) so that the neutral stimulus also becomes a conditioned stimulus and elicits a conditioned response (salivation) when it’s presented alone. Note that, when higher-order conditioning involves a second conditioned stimulus, it’s also referred to as second-order conditioning; and, when it involves a third conditioned stimulus, it’s also referred to as third-order conditioning.

Question 147

For most infants, separation anxiety begins when the infant is between __________ months of age.

A. 2 and 4

B. 4 and 6

C. 6 and 8

D. 8 and 10

Answer 147

Answer C is correct. The age at which separation anxiety begins varies somewhat but, for most infants, it’s first evident between the ages of 6 and 8 months, peaks in intensity between 14 and 18 months, and then gradually decreases.
See, e.g., D. R. Shaffer and K. Kipp, Developmental psychology: Childhood and adolescence (9th ed.), Belmont, CA, Wadsworth, 2014.

Question 148

A client whose symptoms meet the diagnostic criteria for dissociative amnesia is unable to recall any events that occurred for about six weeks after she was brutally raped two years ago. This type of dissociative amnesia is referred to in the DSM-5 as:

A. selective.

B. localized.

C. continuous.

D. generalized.

Answer 148

Answer B is correct. Dissociative amnesia is characterized by an inability to recall important autobiographical information that’s often related to exposure to a stressful or traumatic event and is more severe than normal forgetting. As described in DSM-5, memory loss associated with this disorder can take several forms including localized amnesia. This type occurs when the person is unable to recall events that happened during a limited period of time (e.g., for several weeks after the person experienced a traumatic event).

Question 149

To assign the DSM-5 diagnosis of intermittent explosive disorder, the individual must be at least _____ years of age or at an equivalent developmental level.

A. three

B. six

C. nine

D. twelve

Answer 149

Answer B is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of intermittent explosive disorder cannot be assigned to individuals under the chronological age of six years or the equivalent developmental level.

Question 151

In the context of operant conditioning, ________ refers to the systematic and gradual removal of prompts.

A. desensitization

B. habituation

C. fading

D. thinning

Question 152

Following a traumatic brain injury, a young woman is unable to form new long-term declarative memories. Most likely, the injury affected which of the following areas of her brain?

A. amygdala

B. hippocampus

C. hypothalamus

D. substantia nigra

Answer 152

nswer B is correct. The hippocampus is part of the limbic system but is involved more in memory than emotion. One of its functions is to consolidate long-term declarative memories – i.e., to transfer memories related to facts and events from short-term to long-term memory.

Question 153

An organizational psychologist familiar with goal-setting theory is likely to tell a supervisor that having supervisees participate in setting their own performance goals will produce goals that are:

A. less realistic than the goals the supervisor would set alone.

B. the same in terms of difficulty as the goals the supervisor would set alone.

C. less difficult than the goals the supervisor would set alone.

D. more difficult than the goals the supervisor would set alone.

Answer 153

Answer D is correct. Research on goal-setting theory has found that, when supervisees participate in setting their own performance goals, the goals tend to be more difficult than the goals the supervisor would have set alone.

Question 154

The WISC-V is appropriate for individuals ages:

A. 2.6 to 7.7.

B. 6.0 to 16.11.

C. 7.6 to 18.11.

D. 12.0 to 20.11.

Answer 154

Answer B is correct. The Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children, Fifth Edition (WISC-V) is a downward extension of the WAIS-IV for individuals ages 6.0 to 16.11.

Question 155

According to some investigators, the acquisition of most aspects of human development have a ________ period. This means that these skills can be acquired most easily during a particular period of time but can be acquired later, although it may be more difficult to do so.

A. sensitive

B. critical

C. relative refractory

D. absolute refractory

Answer 155

Answer A is correct. Some authors use the terms critical period and sensitive period interchangeably but others describe them as distinct. For the latter authors, a critical period is a limited period of time during which an individual must be exposed to certain experiences for development to occur, while a sensitive period is a more flexible period of time that’s optimal for development because the individual is most responsive to certain experiences during that period. However, development may still occur when the individual is exposed to relevant experiences outside the boundaries of the sensitive period, but development may be more difficult.

Question 156

When using the _____________ heuristic, people judge the likelihood of an event based on the extent to which it resembles a prototype.

A. confirmation

B. anchoring and adjustment

C. representativeness

D. availability

Answer 156

Answer C is correct. Use of the representativeness heuristic involves ignoring base rates and other important information and basing judgments about the frequency or likelihood of an event on the extent to which the event resembles a prototype (typical case).

Question 157

Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy’s (1989) hopelessness model of depression proposes that hopelessness is a proximal cause of depression and that a sense of hopelessness is the result of:

A. a lack of response contingent reinforcement.

B. stable and global attributions for negative life events.

C. depressogenic cognitive schemata.

D. deficits in self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement.

Answer 157

Answer B is correct. According to L. Y. Abramson, G. I. Metalsky, and L. B. Alloy, the tendency to attribute negative life events to stable and global factors produces hopelessness (an expectation that desirable outcomes will not occur and/or that undesirable outcomes will occur). Hopelessness then leads to a specific type of depression, which they refer to as “hopelessness depression” (Hopelessness depression: A theory-based subtype of depression, Psychological Review, 96, 358-372, 1989).

Question 158

A researcher would use which of the following to compare two interventions when costs and outcomes are both expressed in monetary terms?

A. cost-utility analysis

B. cost-benefit analysis

C. cost-effectiveness analysis

D. cost-consequences analysis

Answer 158

Answer-147 B is correct. Of the types of economic evaluation listed in the answers, only cost-benefit analysis is used when the costs and benefits of the interventions being evaluated are expressed in monetary terms. Cost-utility analysis (answer A) is used to compare the outcomes of two or more interventions when outcomes are expressed as quality-adjusted life-years (QALY) or disability-adjusted life-years (DALY). Cost-effectiveness analysis (answer C) is used to compare two or more interventions that have outcomes that are measured in nonmonetary terms other than QALYs or DALYs (e.g., as reduction in symptom severity or probability of relapse).
Cost-consequences analysis (answer D) is used to compare the outcomes of two or more interventions when there are multiple outcomes that are simply listed and not aggregated into QALY, DALY, a cost-effectiveness ratio, or other single metric.

Question 159

Kandel’s (2001) research with the sea snail, Aplysia, provided information on neuronal changes associated with:

A. learning and memory.

B. reproductive behavior.

C. goal-oriented behavior.

D. pain perception.

Answer 159

Answer A is correct. Because of the small number and relatively large size of its neurons, Aplysia has been found to be a useful subject for studying the neuronal changes associated with learning and memory. Kandel (2001), for example, studied classical conditioning in Aplysia and found that it produced changes at existing synapses as well as an increase in the number of synapses.

Question 160

For a DSM-5 diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder, symptoms must:

A. be present in the early developmental period.

B. have persisted for at least six months.

C. include an intellectual impairment.

D. be related to a known or suspected biological or environmental factor.

Answer 160

Answer A is correct. For the diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder, the DSM-5 requires symptoms to be present during the early developmental period. It notes that symptoms are usually recognized by the time the child is between 12 and 24 months of age but may occur earlier or later, depending on the severity of the symptoms.

Question 161

The dopamine hypothesis attributes __________ to elevated levels of or oversensitivity to dopamine in certain areas of the brain.

A. depression

B. schizophrenia

C. ADHD

D. anorexia nervosa

Answer 161

Answer B is correct. The dopamine hypothesis predicts that excessive dopamine activity in the mesolimbic pathways of the brain are responsible for the positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

Question 162

Members of quality circles (QCs):

A. use statistical analysis, project management, and problem-solving methods to reduce the defect rate of products.

B. provide management with recommendations for resolving the work-related problems they’ve identified.

C. have total control over their own work, including task assignments and methods, work schedules, employee selection and training, and performance appraisal.

D. identify the unique and best aspects of the organization and generate ideas about how to build on them.

Answer 162

Answer B is correct.
Quality circles are small groups of employees who volunteer to meet regularly to identify problems and methods for resolving them. The employees then provide management with recommendations for alleviating the identified problems.

Question 163

Milan systemic family therapists use which of the following types of questions to obtain information on the communication patterns that are maintaining a family’s problematic behaviors?

A. exception

B. circular

C. process

D. opening space

Answer 163

Answer B is correct. Circular questions are used to help family members recognize differences in their perceptions about events and relationships and to uncover family communication patterns that are maintaining problematic behaviors. For example, rather than asking a father about his drinking, the therapist might ask family members, “Who gets most upset when Dad has been drinking?” Then, if one or more family members say that Mom gets most upset, the therapist might ask, “What does Mom do when she gets upset?”

Question 164

Heritability estimates for bipolar disorder vary somewhat from study to study. However, according to the DSM-5-TR and several other sources, a number of twin studies have produced heritability estimates of around:

A. 35%.

B. 55%.

C. 70%.

D. 90%.

Answer 164

Answer D is correct. According to the DSM-5-TR, “genetic processes strongly affect predispositions to bipolar disorder, with heritability estimates around 90% in some twin studies” (p. 147). Note that sources reporting ranges of heritability for bipolar disorder most often report a range of 70 to 90% or 80 to 90%.

Question 165

A child with dyslexia whose reading problems significantly interfere with his academic performance and have not substantially improved with appropriate intervention would receive a DSM-5 diagnosis of:

A. learning disability.

B. language disorder.

C. reading disorder.

D. specific learning disorder.

Answer 165

Answer D is correct. Learning disorders involving impairments in reading, written expression, or mathematics are diagnosed as specific learning disorders, and dyslexia is identified in the DSM-5 as a type of reading impairment that involves “problems with accurate or fluent word recognition, poor decoding, and poor spelling abilities” (p. 67).

Question 166

Charles Ridley (2005) described a Black therapy client who is willing to self-disclose to a Black therapist but unwilling to self-disclose to a White therapist as a:

A. healthy cultural paranoiac.

B. functional paranoiac.

C. confluent paranoiac.

D. intercultural nonparanoiac.

Answer 166

Answer A is correct. Ridley developed a typology for Black therapy clients to help explain why they may or may not be willing to self-disclose to Black or White therapists.
It distinguishes between four types of “paranoiacs” based on level of functional paranoia and cultural paranoia:
Functional paranoia is an unhealthy psychological condition that involves suspicion and distrust as the result of a psychological condition, while cultural paranoia involves suspicion and distrust as the result of experiences with racism.
A Black client who is low in functional paranoia and high in cultural paranoia is classified as a **healthy cultural paranoiac **(answer A) and is willing to self-disclose to Black therapists but not to White therapists.
In contrast, a Black client who is high in functional paranoia and low in cultural paranoia is classified as a functional paranoiac and is unwilling to self-disclose to Black or White therapists (answer B).
A Black client who is high in both functional and cultural paranoia is classified as a confluent paranoiac and is also unwilling to self-disclose to Black or White therapists (answer C). A Black client who is low in both functional and cultural paranoia is classified as an intercultural nonparanoiac and is willing to self-disclose to Black and White therapists (answer D).

Question 167

What is most likely to happen when Behavior A and Behavior B are being reinforced on the same reinforcement schedule and the reinforcement for Behavior A is suddenly stopped?

A. Behaviors A and B will both increase.

B. Behaviors A and B will both decrease.

C. Behavior A will decrease and Behavior B will stay the same.

D. Behavior A will decrease and Behavior B will increase.

Answer 167

Answer D is correct. This question is asking about positive behavioral contrast, which occurs when two behaviors are being reinforced and the reinforcement for one behavior is stopped while reinforcement for the other behavior stays the same. In this situation the behavior that is no longer reinforced will decrease, while the behavior that is still receiving the same amount of reinforcement will increase. Note that behavioral contrast can also be negative: Negative behavioral contrast occurs when two behaviors are being reinforced and the reinforcement for one behavior is increased. In this situation, the behavior that receives more reinforcement will increase, while the behavior that receives the same amount of reinforcement will decrease.

Question 168

The symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder (e.g., restlessness, difficulty concentrating, irritability) are similar for individuals of all ages, but the content of an individual’s worries are often related to his/her age. For example children with generalized anxiety disorder are most likely to worry about:

A. abandonment by friends and family members.

B. academic and athletic performance.

C. safety and physical health.

D. everyday hassles.

Answer 168

Answer B is correct. The DSM-5 states that children with generalized anxiety disorder are most likely to worry about academic and athletic performance and about earthquakes, tornados, and other catastrophic events.

Question 169

In a(n) ____________ interaction, one partner adopts a dominant “one-up” position while the other partner adopts a submissive “one-down” position.

A. closed

B. open

C. complementary

D. symmetrical

Previous Question

Answer 169

Answer C is correct. Some practitioners of family therapy distinguish between complementary and symmetrical interactions. Symmetrical interactions reflect equality, while complementary interactions reflect inequality. For example, when both partners in a relationship are domineering and neither backs down during interactions, their interactions are symmetrical. In contrast when one partner is domineering and the other partner is submissive, their interactions are complementary.

Question 171

For a DSM-5 diagnosis of cyclothymic disorder, an adult must have experienced depressive symptoms that do not meet the criteria for a major depressive episode and hypomanic symptoms that do not meet the criteria for a hypomanic episode for at least __________, while a child or adolescent must have experienced symptoms for at least __________.

A. 12 months; 6 months

B. 18 months; 9 months

C. 24 months; 12 months

D. 36 months; 18 months

Answer 171

Answer C is correct. The diagnosis of cyclothymic disorder requires the presence of characteristic symptoms for at least two years for adults and one year for children and adolescents.

Question 172

Lisa, age 24, says she can’t stand what she looks like because of the “ugly mole” on her chin, and she decides to have the mole removed. However, after removal of the mole, she starts complaining about the small scar the removal left as well as redness under her eyes and dark pigmentation above her upper lip. The scar is very small and not noticeable and there are no abnormalities under her eyes or above her lip. Lisa starts applying heavy make-up to her face to cover up her perceived facial imperfections, won’t leave the house without make-up, and has stopped dating because she thinks no man could ever think she is anything but ugly. Lisa constantly checks her face in a mirror she carries in her purse and has seen three dermatologists since her mole was removed six months ago. All three dermatologists have told her there’s nothing wrong with her face. The most likely diagnosis for Lisa is:

A. somatic symptom disorder.

B. body dysmorphic disorder.

C. illness anxiety disorder.

D. factitious disorder.

Answer 172

Answer B is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of body dysmorphic disorder requires preoccupation with one or more perceived flaws in physical appearance that appear to be minor or are not apparent to others, accompanied by repetitive behaviors (e.g., mirror checking) and significant distress or impaired functioning. Lisa’s symptoms meet these criteria.

Question 173

The DSM-5 diagnosis of gender dysphoria requires marked incongruence between one’s experienced/expressed gender and one’s assigned gender for at least:

A. 12 months for children and six months for adolescents and adults.

B. 18 months for children and 12 months for adolescents and adults.

C. 12 months for children, adolescents, and adults.

D. six months for children, adolescents, and adults.

Answer 173

Answer D is correct.
The symptoms of gender dysphoria differ somewhat for children and adolescents/adults, but the DSM-5 requires a minimum duration of symptoms of six months regardless of the individual’s age.

Question 175

The item discrimination index (D) provides information on how well a test item discriminates between examinees who obtain a high or low score on the entire test. It ranges in value from:

A. 0 to +1.0

B. -1.0 to +1.0.

C. 0 to 100

D. -.50 to +.50

Answer 175

Answer B is correct. The item discrimination index (D) is calculated by subtracting the percent of examinees in the low scoring group (those who obtained a low score on the entire test) who answered the item correctly from the percent of examinees in the high scoring group (those who obtained a high score on the entire test) who answered the item correctly.
D ranges from -1.0 to +1.0 and, the closer D is to 0, the weaker its ability to discriminate.

Question 176

A psychologist is engaged in consultee-centered case consultation when he:

A. helps a recently licensed psychotherapist derive a diagnosis and treatment plan for a new client who has symptoms of multiple disorders.

B. helps a recently licensed psychotherapist acquire the knowledge and skills she needs to work with clients from a cultural group she has not worked with before.

C. works collaboratively with a colleague to develop a relapse prevention program for patients receiving treatment at a community mental health clinic.

D. works collaboratively with a team of educational and mental health experts to determine if students qualify for special education.

Answer 176

Answer B is correct. As its name suggests, the focus of consultee-centered case consultation is on the consultee (rather than on a client or program) and involves helping a therapist, teacher, or other consultee acquire the knowledge, skills, or objectivity needed to effectively perform his/her professional duties.

Question 177

The primary goal of Bowen’s extended family systems therapy is best described as:

A. replacing rigid and diffuse boundaries with clear boundaries.

B. increasing the differentiation of family members.

C. helping family members take responsibility for their own choices.

D. reducing symptoms by disrupting dysfunctional interactions.

Answer 177

Answer B is correct. Differentiation is a key concept in extended family systems therapy and refers to a family member’s ability to separate his/her own emotional and intellectual functioning from the functioning of other family members. According to Bowen, family members with a low level of differentiation tend to become fused (emotionally overconnected) with other family members.

Question 178

A meta-analysis of the research led Rhodes and Wood (1992) to conclude that _______________ are associated with the greatest susceptibility to persuasion.

A. low levels of both self-esteem and intelligence

B. moderate levels of both self-esteem and intelligence

C. low levels of self-esteem and moderate levels of intelligence

D. moderate levels of self-esteem and low levels of intelligence

Answer 178

Answer D is correct. Rhodes and Wood found an inverted U-shaped relationship between self-esteem and influenceability with moderate levels of self-esteem being associated with the greatest susceptibility to influence. In contrast, they found a linear relationship between intelligence and influenceability, with lower levels of intelligence being associated with greater influenceability.

Question 179

The ____________ is based on the Cattell-Horn-Carroll model of cognitive abilities and provides scores on five factors derived from that model: knowledge, fluid reasoning, quantitative reasoning, visual-spatial processing, and working memory.

A. SB5

B. WAIS-IV

C. KABC-II

D. WJ-IV

Answer 179

Answer A is correct. The Cattell-Horn-Carroll (CHC) model of cognitive ability integrates Horn and Cattell’s distinction between fluid and crystallized intelligence with Carroll’s three-stratum theory that includes general intelligence (g), several broad cognitive abilities, and multiple narrow cognitive abilities that each contribute to one of the broad abilities. The CHC model is a theoretical foundation for many cognitive ability tests including the SB5, WAIS-IV, KABC-II, and WJ-IV, but only the SB-5 provides scores on the five factors listed in the question.

Question 180

Glasser’s (1998) reality therapy is based on the premise that ____________ leads to the development of a failure identity.

A. a boundary disturbance

B. irresponsible behavior

C. an unresolved intrapsychic conflict

D. incongruence between self and experience

Answer 180

Answer B is correct. According to Glasser, when people satisfy their needs in a responsible way (in a way that does not interfere with the ability of other people to satisfy their needs), they have adopted a success identity. In contrast, when people are unable to fulfill their needs or do so in an irresponsible way, they have adopted a failure identity.

Question 181

Tourette’s disorder, ADHD, and obsessive-compulsive disorder have been linked to abnormalities in which of the following?

A. basal ganglia

B. hypothalamus

C. amygdala

D. medulla

Answer 181

Answer A is correct. The basal ganglia are involved in the regulation of voluntary movement and consist of the caudate nucleus, putamen, and globus pallidus. A number of disorders have been linked to abnormalities in these structures including Tourette’s disorder, ADHD, and obsessive-compulsive disorder.

Question 182

During his first session with a family, a structural family therapist notices that, whenever the father tries to shed some light on the family’s problems, the mother and teenage son interrupt him and contradict what he’s saying. The therapist will describe this interaction as a:

A. detouring coalition.

B. stable coalition.

C. symmetrical interaction.

D. complementary interaction.

Answer 182

Answer B is correct. Practitioners of Minuchin’s structural family therapy distinguish between four rigid family triads – stable coalition, triangulation or unstable coaliton, detouring-attack coalition, and detouring-support coalition. A stable coalition occurs when two family members (often a parent and child) consistently “gang up” against a third family member (the other parent).

Question 183

The method of loci is most useful for:

A. memorizing a short speech.

B. remembering how to pronounce foreign-language words.

C. remembering a list of unrelated words.

D. linking a list of words to their definitions.

Answer 183

Answer C is correct. The method of loci uses a visual image to help encode and recall a list of unrelated words. It involves choosing a familiar location and visually placing each word in a different place in that location. For example, to remember a shopping list, you might visualize your kitchen and place each item in the list in a different place – on the stove, on the counter next to the stove, next to the coffee maker on the counter, etc. Then, to recall the items, you visually “walk through” the kitchen.

Question 184

During process consultation, an organizational development (OD) consultant will most likely focus on which of the following?

A. job satisfaction and motivation

B. theft, sabotage, and other counterproductive behaviors

C. perceptions related to organizational justice

D. communication, decision-making, and problem-solving

Answer 184

Answer D is correct. As its name suggests, process consultation focuses on communication, decision-making, problem-solving, and other organizational processes that are contributing to performance problems.

Question 185

People with specific phobia typically experience an increase in sympathetic nervous system arousal when confronted with the feared object or event. However, people with which of the following types of specific phobia are more likely to experience vasovagal fainting instead of increased arousal?

A. situational

B. animal

C. blood-injection-injury

D. natural environment

Answer 185

Answer C is correct. As noted in DSM-5, in contrast to people with other types of specific phobia, people with the blood-injection-injury type often experience vasovagal fainting, which involves an “initial brief acceleration of heart rate and elevation of blood pressure followed by a deceleration of heart rate and drop in blood pressure” (p. 199).

Question 186

Smith, Glass, and Miller (1980) conducted a meta-analysis of 475 psychotherapy outcome studies that compared the outcomes of individuals in treatment groups and no-treatment control groups. Their analysis produced an effect size of .85, which means that the average individual who received therapy was “better off” than about _____% of individuals who needed therapy but did not receive it.

A. 50

B. 60

C. 80

D. 90

Answer 186

Answer C is correct. The effect size calculated by Smith, Glass, and Miller is a type of standard score that has a mean of 0 and standard deviation of 1.0. This means that an effect size of .85 indicates that the mean score obtained by individuals who received treatment was slightly less than one standard deviation above the mean score obtained by individuals who did not receive treatment. In a normal distribution, 84% of scores fall below the score that is one standard deviation above the mean, so slightly less than 84% of scores fall below a score that is .85 standard deviations above the mean. Therefore, answer C (80%) is the best answer.

Question 187

A 20-year-old who has received a diagnosis of ADHD would likely obtain the highest score on which of the following WAIS-IV Indexes?

A. Working Memory

B. Verbal Comprehension

C. Processing Speed

D. Perceptual Reasoning

Answer 187

Answer B is correct. The WAIS-IV Technical and Interpretive Manual (Psychological Corporation, 2008) reports the following mean scores on the test’s Indexes for individuals with ADHD: Verbal Comprehension 100.9, Perceptual Reasoning 98.6, Working Memory 94.7, and Processing Speed 94.0.

Question 189

Damage to certain areas of the dominant parietal lobe can produce Gerstmann’s syndrome, which includes all of the following symptoms except:

A. finger agnosia.

B. agraphia.

C. left-right confusion.

D. ataxia.

Answer 189

Answer D is correct. Gerstmann’s syndrome involves four symptoms:
1. finger agnosia,
2. left-right confusion,
3. agraphia (difficulty writing), and
4. acalculia (difficulty performing simple mathematical operations).

Even if you’re not familiar with Gerstmann’s syndrome, you may have been able to identify the correct answer to this question as long as you know that ataxia (loss of muscle control) is usually caused by damage to the cerebellum.

Question 190

Krumboltz’s (1979) social learning theory of career decision-making identifies four factors that influence decision-making. Which of the following is NOT one of the four factors?

A. genetic endowment

B. environmental conditions and events

C. task approach skills

D. self-efficacy beliefs

Answer 190

Answer D is correct.
Krumboltz proposed that career decision-making is affected by the person’s
1. genetic endowment and special abilities,
2. environmental conditions and events,
3. learning experiences, and
4. task approach skills.

Question 191

Patients with damage to which of the following can be expected to make multiple random errors and perseverative errors on the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test?

A. frontal lobe

B. parietal lobe

C. basal ganglia

D. cerebellum

Answer 191

Answer A is correct. The Wisconsin Card Sorting Test is sensitive to frontal lobe damage and is used to assess abstract thinking and perseveration and to help distinguish between frontal lobe and non-frontal lobe lesions.

Question 192

Baddeley’s (2000) multi-component model of working memory identifies which of the following as responsible for integrating new verbal and visual information?

A. sensory register

B. phonological loop

C. visuospatial sketchpad

D. episodic buffer

Answer 192

Answer D is correct. A. D. Baddeley’s multi-component model describes working memory as consisting of a central executive and three subcomponents – the phonological loop, visuo-spatial sketchpad, and episodic buffer. The episodic buffer is a temporary storage system that has a limited capacity and is responsible for combining new verbal and visual information from the phonological loop and visuo-spatial sketchpad and integrating new information with information that’s already stored in long-term memory (The episodic buffer: A new component of working memory, Trends in Cognitive Science, 4, 417-423, 2000).

Question 193

“Collaborative empiricism” best describes the therapeutic relationship in:

A. Rogers’s person-centered therapy.

B. Hayes et al.’s acceptance and commitment therapy.

C. Glasser’s reality therapy.

D. Beck’s cognitive behavior therapy.

Answer 193

Answer D is correct. Aaron Beck describes the therapeutic relationship in cognitive behavior therapy as collaborative empiricism, in which the therapist and client work together to identify treatment goals, reality test the client’s beliefs, and derive a plan to resolve the client’s problems. See, e.g., A. T. Beck and M. E. Weishaar, Cognitive therapy, in R. J. Corsini and D. Wedding (Eds.), Current psychotherapies (8th ed., pp. 263-294), Belmont, CA, Thomson Higher Education, 2008.

Question 194

To help a client with exhibitionistic disorder stop exposing himself in public, a behavior therapist has the client imagine that he’s at the mall and is starting to unzip his pants. Once that image is clear, the therapist instructs the client to imagine a police officer running up to him, pushing him up against the wall, putting handcuffs on him, and taking him outside the mall to the police car. The therapist is using which of the following interventions?

A. response cost

B. covert sensitization

C. systematic desensitization

D. overcorrection

Answer 194

Answer B is correct. Covert sensitization is a type of aversion therapy that’s conducted in imagination. It involves pairing an image of the deviant behavior with an image that naturally produces an unpleasant emotional or physical reaction. In this situation, being arrested is the unconditioned stimulus and starting to pull down the zipper becomes a conditioned stimulus because, after being paired with the unconditioned stimulus, it produces an unpleasant emotional reaction (e.g., fear or embarrassment) instead of sexual arousal.

Question 195

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease ordinarily has an:
A. insidious onset that’s followed by a rapid decline in functioning.
B. insidious onset that’s followed by a gradual progression of impairment.
C. acute onset that’s followed by a rapid decline in functioning.
D. acute onset that’s followed by a gradual progression of impairment.

Answer 195

Answer A is correct. Neurocognitive disorder due to Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is categorized in DSM-5 as neurocognitive disorder due to prion disease. Like other neurocognitive disorders due to prion disease, it typically has an insidious onset that’s followed by a rapid decline in functioning.

Question 196

Which of the following are evidence-based treatments for binge-eating disorder?
A. cognitive-behavioral therapy and interpersonal psychotherapy
B. cognitive-behavioral therapy and motivational interviewing
C. family focused therapy and interpersonal psychotherapy
D. family-based treatment and acceptance and commitment therapy

Answer 196

Answer A is correct. The adaptations of cognitive-behavioral therapy and interpersonal therapy for eating disorders are evidence-based treatments for binge-eating disorder and are recommended by the American Psychological Association’s Society of Clinical Psychology (https://div12.org/treatments).

Question 197

The parents of 10-year-old Adam constantly argue and are contemplating divorce. However, when Adam starts getting in trouble at school, they stop arguing and decide to focus instead on helping Adam deal with his problems. A structural family therapist would most likely view this situation as which of the following?

A. detouring

B. stable coalition

C. splitting

D. triangulation

Answer 197

Answer A is correct. Structural family therapists distinguish between three rigid triangles: detouring, stable coalition, and triangulation. Detouring occurs when two family members avoid their conflicts by focusing on a third family member. Often, it’s the parents who avoid conflict by focusing on a child by supporting or scapegoating the child.