tough Qs with answers

Question 1

According leader-member exchange theory, what are qualities which a leader dtermines as important in thier subordinates?

Answer 1

Dansereau, Graen, and Haga’s (1975) leader-member exchange theory is based on the assumption that leader effectiveness and subordinate outcomes are determined by the nature of the interactions between the leader and the subordinate. It proposes that subordinates are treated as in-group or out-group members based on whether or not the leader perceives them as being competent, trustworthy, and willing to assume responsibility.

Question 2

In the context of test construction, “shrinkage” is associated with:
A. inter-rater reliability.
B. factor analysis.
C. incremental validity.
D. cross-validation.

Answer 2

Shrinkage is associated with cross-validation and refers to the fact that a validity coefficient is likely to be smaller than the original coefficient when the predictor(s) and criterion are administered to another (cross-validation) sample. Shrinkage occurs because the chance factors that contributed to the relationship between the predictor(s) and criterion in the original sample are not present in the cross-validation sample.

Question 3

Alma A., a 68-year-old retired real estate agent, is brought to therapy by her daughter who says that Alma has become forgetful, has difficulty concentrating, and seems depressed. The presence of which of the following would suggest that Alma’s symptoms are more likely due to a neurocognitive disorder than to pseudodementia (major depressive disorder)?
A. Alma’s daughter says her mother’s symptoms began soon after the family dog died.
B. Alma’s daughter says her mother’s symptoms are worse in the evening.
C. Alma often answers “I don’t know” in response to assessment questions.
D. Alma exaggerates her cognitive problems.

Answer 3

Major depressive disorder and neurocognitive disorder share some symptoms, but they also differ in important ways. The behaviors described in answers A, C, and D are more characteristic of pseudodementia than of a neurocognitive disorder. In contrast, worsening of symptoms in the evening (“sundowning”) is more characteristic of a neurocognitive disorder.

Question 4

The assessment of treatment fidelity focuses on which of the following?
A. efficacy and effectiveness
B. reliability and validity
C. differentiation, adherence, and competency
D. familiarity, confidence, and preparedness

Answer 4

Treatment fidelity refers to the degree to which a treatment is delivered as intended and is affected by the degree to which the therapist delivered only the target treatment and no other treatments (differentiation), the therapist’s adherence to the treatment protocol (adherence), and the therapist’s competence in delivering the treatment (competency). Consequently, these three factors are the primary targets of an evaluation of a treatment’s fidelity.

Question 5

When designing a training program, providing “identical elements” is most important for:
A. maximizing trainee motivation.
B. ensuring transfer of training.
C. setting realistic training goals.
D. retraining older workers.

Answer 5

According to the principle of identical elements, the more similar the training and performance situations are, the greater the transfer of training.

Question 6

An organizational psychologist would most likely be hired by a company to conduct a job evaluation for the purpose of:
A. establishing comparable worth.
B. determining the training needs of newly hired employees.
C. developing performance appraisal measures.
D. writing detailed job descriptions.

Answer 6

A job evaluation is conducted to facilitate decisions related to compensation. It’s often used to establish comparable worth, which is the principle that workers who perform jobs that require the same skills and responsibilities or that are of comparable value to the employer should be paid the same.

Question 7

For a practitioner of Beck’s cognitive behavior therapy, the automatic thoughts associated with depression reflect which of the following?
A. a lack of control over one’s emotions, behavior, and environment
B. should’s and must’s
C. negative views of oneself, the world, and the future
D. catastrophic interpretations of both negative and neutral events

Answer 7

Beck’s (1979) cognitive model of depression describes it as involving a negative cognitive triad that consists of negative views of oneself, the world, and the future.

Question 8

John Jr. just turned 14 and has started demanding to be allowed to make his own decisions and to have more privileges and independence from the family. In response, John’s parents continue to treat him like a child and have become more punitive in an attempt to keep things the way they were. The parents’ response to John’s demands illustrates which of the following?
A. positive feedback
B. negative feedback
C. reframing
D. restraining

Answer 8

Negative feedback serves to maintain the status quo (i.e., to keep things the way they were), while positive feedback promotes change. Reframing and restraining are paradoxical techniques used by therapists to alter behavior.

Question 9

Dr. Miller is hired by an insurance company to develop a performance appraisal measure for salespeople. She’s most likely to recommend that the company use a relative measure (as opposed to a Likert-type rating scale) because relative measures:
A. are more acceptable to both raters and rates.
B. allow the rater to focus on typical (rather than maximum) performance.
C. are less susceptible to some rater biases.

D. provide more useful information for employee feedback.

Answer 9

An advantage of relative job performance measures is that they reduce leniency, strictness, and central tendency rater biases.

Question 10

A problem with using percent agreement as a measure of inter-rater reliability is that it may:
A. underestimate reliability because it’s susceptible to rater biases.
B. overestimate reliability because it’s susceptible to rater biases.
C. underestimate reliability because it’s affected by chance agreement.
D. overestimate reliability because it’s affected by chance agreement.

Answer 10

A certain amount of chance agreement between two or more raters is possible, especially for behavior observation scales when the behavior occurs frequently. Percent agreement is easy to calculate but, because it’s affected by chance agreement, it may overestimate a measure’s inter-rater reliability.

Question 11

When lithium has not reduced the symptoms of mania for an individual who has received a diagnosis of bipolar disorder, an alternative is:
A. disulfiram.
B. carbamazepine.
C. propranolol.

D. guanfacine.

Answer 11

Anticonvulsant drugs are often prescribed for individuals with bipolar disorder who have not responded to lithium or cannot tolerate its side effects. Carbamazepine is one of the anticonvulsant drugs that has been found useful for treating mania.

Question 12

Wolpe (1958) believed that counterconditioning was responsible for the effectiveness of his technique of systematic desensitization for eliminating an anxiety response to a particular stimulus. However, studies using the dismantling strategy found that its effects are actually due to:
A. extinction.
B. higher-order conditioning.
C. satiation.
D. stimulus discrimination.

Answer 12

Use of the dismantling strategy to identify the effects of the elements of an intervention involves comparing the elements by administering different elements to different groups of subjects. When this strategy was used to determine which elements of systematic desensitization accounted for its effectiveness, researchers found it was repeated exposure to the feared (conditioned) stimulus that eliminated the anxiety response and that pairing the feared stimulus with a stimulus that produced relaxation (counterconditioning) was unnecessary. In other words, the anxiety response was extinguished by repeatedly exposing the individual to the feared stimulus.

Question 13

As a favor to another psychology professor, Dr. Anand requires students in his Psychology 101 class to participate in the professor’s research project. In terms of the requirements of the APA Ethics Code and the Canadian Code of Ethics, Dr. Anand’s requirement is:
A. acceptable as long as Dr. Anand believes that participation in the study will benefit his students.
B. acceptable as long as students are told about this requirement during the first class meeting.
C. acceptable only if students are given the choice of participating in the study or completing an alternative assignment.
D. acceptable only if Dr. Anand is not involved in the research project.

Answer 13

This situation is addressed in Standard 8.04(b) of the APA Ethics Code and Standard I.36 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 8.04(b) states that “when research participation is a course requirement or an opportunity for extra credit, the prospective participant is given the choice of equitable alternative activities.”

Question 14

The Oregon model of parent management training developed by Gerald Patterson and his colleagues (1982) was based on their research that found a link between high levels of aggressiveness in children and:
A. early attachment insecurity.
B. rejecting/neglecting parents.
C. coercive family interactions.
D. a disorganized home environment.

Answer 14

Patterson et al. found that aggression and other antisocial behaviors in children were related to coercive family interactions that become progressively more coercive over time, with parents using increasingly harsh punishments and children becoming more disruptive and aggressive.

Question 15

When an examinee’s scores on the L, F, and K scales of the MMPI-2 assume a V-shape with a low score on the F scale and high scores on the L and K scales, this suggests which of the following?
A. The examinee attempted to make a favorable impression.
B. The examinee attempted to fake a mental illness.
C. The examinee answered half of the items “true” and the other half “false.”
D. The examinee answered all of the items “true.”

Answer 15

The L, F, and K scales are three of the MMPI-2’s validity scales and the L-F-K profile indicates an attempt to “fake good” when it is V-shaped (low F scale score and high L and K scale scores) and an attempt to “fake bad” when it has an inverted-V shape (high F scale score and low L and K scale scores).

Question 17

Neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease and neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies (NCDLB) can be difficult to distinguish, especially in their early stages, but there are differences. Which of the following does NOT accurately describe a difference between the two disorders?
A. Motor disturbances are more prominent in early Alzheimer’s disease than in early NCDLB.
B. Memory loss is usually a more prominent early symptom of early Alzheimer’s disease than of early NCDLB.
C. Nonvisual hallucinations and systematized delusions are more common in early NCDLB than in early Alzheimer’s disease.
D. Orthostatic hypotension and other autonomic disturbances are more common in early NCDLB than in early Alzheimer’s disease.

Answer 17

Key differences between Alzheimer’s and dementia with Lewy bodies
1. Memory loss tends to be a more prominent symptom in early Alzheimer’s than in early DLB. However, advanced DLB may cause memory problems in addition to its more typical effects on judgment, planning and visual perception.
2. Movement symptoms are more likely to be an important cause of disability early in DLB than in Alzheimer’s. However, Alzheimer’s can cause problems with walking, balance and getting around as it progresses to moderate and severe stages.
3. Hallucinations and misidentification of familiar people are significantly more frequent in early-stage DLB than in Alzheimer’s.
REM sleep disorder is more common in early DLB than in Alzheimer’s.
4. Disruption of the autonomic nervous system — such as causing a blood pressure drop on standing, dizziness, falls and urinary incontinence — is much more common in early DLB than in Alzheimer’s.

Question 18

Moffitt’s (1993) “maturity gap” is most useful for understanding the etiology of which of the following disorders?
A. oppositional defiant disorder
B. late-onset attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
C. intermittent explosive disorder
D. adolescent-onset conduct disorder

Answer 18

T. Moffitt distinguished between two types of antisocial behavior in youth: Her life-course persistent type ASPD corresponds to the childhood-onset type of conduct disorder, while her adolescence-limited type corresponds to the adolescent-onset type ASPD. According to Moffitt, the life-course persistent type is the more serious disorder and is due to inherited or acquired neurobiological and neuropsychological factors, while the adolescence-limited type is due to a “maturity gap,” which is the gap between an adolescent’s biological and social maturity (Adolescence-limited and life-course persistent antisocial behavior: A taxonomy, Psychological Review, 100, 674-701, 1993).

Question 20

The Kuder-Richardson Formula 20 (KR-20) can be used to estimate a test’s ____________ reliability when test items are scored dichotomously.

A. alternate forms
B. internal consistency
C. test-retest
D. inter-rater

Answer 20

KR-20 is a variation of coefficient alpha that can be used to evaluate a test’s internal consistency reliability when test items are scored dichotomously (e.g., as correct or incorrect).

Question 21

A problem with split-half reliability is that it essentially involves calculating a reliability coefficient for two forms of the test that are half as long as the original test, and shorter tests tend to be less reliable than longer ones. How can this be corrected?

Answer 21

A split-half reliability coefficient underestimates a test’s reliability and is usually corrected with the Spearman-Brown prophecy formula, which is used to determine the effects of lengthening or shortening a test on its reliability coefficient.

Question 22

A young man taking a conventional antipsychotic as a treatment for schizophrenia develops tardive dyskinesia. Of the following, which would be the best course of action in this situation?

A. increase the dose of the conventional antipsychotic

B. replace the conventional antipsychotic with an atypical antipsychotic

C. immediately discontinue the conventional antipsychotic

D. have the patient take a low dose of a dopamine antagonist

Answer 22

The atypical antipsychotics are less likely to cause tardive dyskinesia and, if a patient’s symptoms require continued treatment with an antipsychotic drug, switching to an atypical drug is an option. The actions described in the other answers would increase the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. (Withdrawing the conventional antipsychotic is also an option but gradual withdrawal is preferred because symptoms may worsen if the drug is abruptly withdrawn.)

Question 23

Damage to Broca’s area produces:
A. nonfluent speech with intact comprehension.
B. fluent but nonsensical speech with intact comprehension.
C. nonfluent speech with severely impaired comprehension.
D. fluent but nonsensical speech with impaired comprehension.

Answer 23

Damage to Broca’s area causes Broca’s aphasia, which is also known as expressive aphasia. It’s characterized by nonfluent, labored speech with intact comprehension.

Question 24

Long-term potentiation (LTP) has been linked to:
A. REM sleep.
B. visual processing.
C. seizure disorders.
D. memory storage.

Answer 24

LTP refers to an increase in synaptic efficacy as the result of repetitive stimulation and is believed to play an important role in the formation and storage of new memories.

Question 25

In their discussion of the use of culture-specific techniques in psychotherapy, Sue and Zane (1987) emphasize the importance of “gift giving” during the initial therapy sessions when working with Asian American and other non-Western clients. As described by these investigators, gift giving includes:
A. establishing credibility by demonstrating expertise.
B. ensuring confidentiality.
C. instilling hope and providing reassurance.
D. introducing the topic of race or ethnicity.

Answer 25

gift giving involves ensuring that clients feel they have received immediate benefits from therapy and includes normalizing the client’s feelings and experiences, providing reassurance, instilling hope, teaching coping skills, and helping the client set goals for therapy. Note that Sue and Zane identify credibility as an important treatment issue when working with non-Western clients, but they describe it as a separate issue and not a factor that contributes to gift giving.

Question 26

Ella took Spanish classes in her last two years of high school but decided to learn French in college instead of continuing with Spanish. She found that, even after studying French for two semesters, whenever she tried to recall the French equivalent for an English word, she’d recall the Spanish word instead. Ella’s experience illustrates which of the following?
A. retroactive interference
B. proactive interference
C. the serial position effect
D. the recency effect

Answer 26

Proactive interference occurs when prior learning (e.g., Spanish) interferes with the ability to learn or recall new information (e.g., French).

Question 27

Restitution and positive practice are components of which of the following?
A. response cost
B. Premack principle
C. overcorrection
D. differential reinforcement

Answer 27

Overcorrection is used to reduce or eliminate an undesirable behavior and is classified as a type of positive punishment. It consists of two components: Restitution requires the individual to fix any negative consequences of the behavior (e.g., having a child clean up the food he threw on the floor while the family ate dinner). Positive practice involves practicing more appropriate behaviors (e.g., having the child scrape the uneaten food off the plates of other family members into the garbage can).

Question 29

A company’s current selection procedure for computer programmers consists of seven predictors that are used to predict the job performance score that a job applicant will receive six months after being hired. The owner of the company wants to reduce the costs and time required to make selection decisions. Which of the following would be most useful for determining the fewest number of predictors needed to make accurate predictions about applicants’ job performance scores?
A. linear regression analysis
B. discriminant function analysis
C. stepwise multiple regression
D. factor analysis

Answer 29

Multiple regression is used to predict a person’s score on a single criterion (e.g., job performance measure) using two or more predictors. Stepwise multiple regression is a type of multiple regression that’s used to identify the fewest number of predictors needed to make an accurate prediction.

Question 30

The brain continues to develop into late adolescence or early to mid-adulthood, with the __________ being the last area to fully develop.

A. basal ganglia

B. amygdala

C. somatosensory cortex

D. prefrontal cortex

Answer 30

The prefrontal cortex is responsible for impulse control, planning, decision-making, and other higher-order cognitive functions. It’s the last area of the brain to become fully functional and continues to develop into the early or mid-20s. See, e.g., B. M. Newman and P. R. Newman, Development through life: A psychosocial approach (13th ed.), Boston, MA, Cengage Learning, 2017.

Question 31

You receive a letter from a colleague requesting that you send her a copy of the record of Donald D., a former client of yours. The request is accompanied by an authorization to release information signed by Donald. Donald abruptly ended his sessions with you three months ago, at which time he owed you for his past four therapy sessions. You’ve sent two letters to Donald about his unpaid bill, but he has not responded. To be consistent with ethical requirements, you:

A. must forward the record to the colleague since Donald has signed an authorization allowing you to do so.

B. may refuse to forward the record to the colleague until you and Donald reach an agreement about how he will pay his outstanding fees.

C. may refuse to forward the record to the colleague for nonpayment of fees only if they are not needed for Donald’s emergency treatment.

D. may refuse to forward the record to the colleague for nonpayment of fees only if you explained this policy to Donald as part of the informed consent process when he began therapy.

Answer 31

Ethical requirements for this situation are provided in Standard 6.03 of the APA Ethics Code. It states that “psychologists may not withhold records under their control that are requested and needed for a client’s/patient’s emergency treatment solely because payment has not been received.” This answer is also consistent with the Preamble and Standards II.1 and II.2 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Note, however, that withholding client records for nonpayment of fees in any situation may be illegal or inconsistent with institutional regulations

Question 32

____________ consists of three overlapping stages: conceptualization, skill acquisition and rehearsal, and application and follow-through.

A. Self-instructional training

B. Stress inoculation training

C. Problem-solving therapy

D. Motivational interviewing

Answer 32

Meichenbaum’s (2003) stress inoculation training is based on the assumption that acquiring effective strategies for coping with stress helps “inoculate” a person from experiencing high levels of stress in the future. It consists of the three stages listed in the question.

Question 33

The two main types of integrity tests that are used to assist with selection decisions are:

A. general and specific trait tests.

B. covert and behavior-based tests.

C. objective and subjective tests.

D. overt and personality-based tests.

Answer 33

Overt integrity tests ask directly about attitudes toward and previous history of dishonesty and theft, while personality-based integrity tests assess aspects of personality that have been linked to dishonesty, disciplinary problems, sabotage, and other counterproductive behaviors.

Question 34

According to Fiedler’s (1967) contingency theory, a low LPC leader is most effective in:

A. moderately favorable situations.

B. very unfavorable situations.

C. very favorable situations.

D. very unfavorable and very favorable situations.

Answer 34

According to Fiedler, low LPC leaders are most effective in very unfavorable and very favorable situations, while high LPC leaders are most effective in moderately favorable situations.

Question 35

An organizational psychologist is hired by the owner of Best Plumbing Supply to determine why so many of her employees seem to have low levels of job motivation and satisfaction. The owner says she recently gave employees salary increases and bonuses for outstanding performance, but this did not have a noticeable effect. Being familiar with ____________, the psychologist will most likely tell the owner that, to increase motivation and satisfaction, she should redesign the employees’ jobs so they provide opportunities for autonomy, responsibility, and advancement.

A. two-factor theory

B. equity theory

C. goal-setting theory

D. situational leadership theory

Answer 35

psychologist’s recommendation is most consistent with Herzberg’s (1966) two-factor theory which predicts (a) that hygiene factors (e.g., pay, benefits, and work conditions) cause dissatisfaction when they’re inadequate but do not contribute to satisfaction or motivation when they’re adequate and
(b) that motivator factors (e.g., opportunities for autonomy, responsibility, and advancement) do not cause dissatisfaction when they’re inadequate but contribute to satisfaction and motivation when they’re adequate.

Question 36

Herzberg developed _______________ as a method of designing jobs so they provide motivator factors.

Answer 36

job enrichment
Job enrichment can be applied to different types of jobs, but its effects depend on certain worker characteristics. For example, it tends to have the most positive outcomes for younger and well-educated workers and workers who have a high need for achievement.

Question 38

According to Prochaska and DiClemente’s (1983) transtheoretical model, people in the ____________ stage of change are aware of their problem behavior, are weighing the pros and cons of changing, and feel they’ll be ready to take the steps necessary to change the behavior within the next six months.

A. precontemplation

B. preparation

C. contemplation

D. determination

Answer 38

Prochaska and DiClemente’s transtheoretical model distinguishes between six stages of change: precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance, and termination. During the contemplation stage, people are aware of the costs and benefits of changing an undesirable behavior and may be somewhat ambivalent about doing so, but they’re seriously considering taking action to change within the next six months.

Question 39

Age-related changes in fluid intelligence have been linked to changes in processing speed and:

A. working memory.

B. sensory memory.

C. recent long-term memory.

D. prospective memory.

Answer 39

The research has consistently found moderate to high correlations between measures of processing speed, working memory, and fluid intelligence. There are several explanations for these correlations. One explanation is that age-related changes in processing speed cause changes in working memory that, in turn, cause changes in fluid intelligence. Another explanation is that age-related changes in processing speed and working memory have independent effects on fluid intelligence.

Question 40

When conducting a one-way ANOVA, an F-ratio is calculated by dividing the mean square between (MSB) by the mean square within (MSW). The mean square between provides an estimate of variability in dependent variable scores due to:

A. treatment effects only.

B. error only.

C. treatment effects plus error.

D. treatment effects minus error.

Answer 40

Correct answer
C. treatment effects plus error.

MSB is a measure of variability due to a combination of treatment effects plus error, while MSW is a measure of variability due to error only. When MSB is divided by MSW, this produces the F-ratio which provides an estimate of treatment effects.

Question 43

Mowrer’s (1960) two-factor theory of learning is most useful for understanding which of the following?

A. avoidance conditioning

B. escape conditioning

C. spontaneous recovery

D. operant extinction

Answer 43

Mowrer’s two-factor theory of learning proposes that some behaviors are the result of a combination of classical and operant conditioning. Avoidance conditioning is an example of two-factor learning because it combines classical conditioning and negative reinforcement (operant conditioning). For example, a rat may learn that it can escape (stop) an electric shock by pressing a bar, which is the negative reinforcement component. Then, if a flashing light signals that the shock is about to occur, the light becomes paired with the shock so that the light elicits anticipatory fear, which is the classical conditioning component. The rat then avoids the shock by pressing the bar as soon as the light starts flashing.

Question 44

A supervisor notices that an employee seems to be putting more time and effort into his work but this increase has not been accompanied by an increase in productivity. The employee’s behavior is most likely:

A. the result of a lack of control over the pace of her work.

B. an early sign of job burnout.

C. a consequence of chronic work-family conflict.

D. a symptom of “survivor syndrome.”

Answer 44

An early sign of burnout is an increase in the time and effort put into work without an increase in productivity. Other early signs include
1. reduced motivation,
2. increased irritability and negativity,
3. social withdrawal, and
4. somatic symptoms.

Question 45

You would use the Position Analysis Questionnaire to:

A. evaluate the effects of a training program.

B. identify the “position power” of managerial-level employees.

C. conduct a worker-oriented job analysis.

D. conduct an organizational analysis.

Answer 45

The Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) is a worker-oriented job analysis questionnaire that addresses six categories of work activity: information input, mental processes, work output, relationships with other people, job context, and other characteristics.

Question 46

An employer is concerned about the low motivation of many of her employees and decides to interview them to obtain information on how to alleviate this problem. Being familiar with Vroom’s (1964) expectancy theory, the employer will ask employees about all of the following except:

A. expectancy.

B. instrumentality.

C. commitment.

D. valence.

Answer 46

Knowing that expectancy theory is also known as VIE theory would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question: “V” refers to valence, “I” to instrumentality, and “E” to expectancy.

Question 47

Which of the following best describes ethical requirements with regard to pro bono services?

A. Because pro bono services are addressed in the General Principles, they’re encouraged by the Code.

B. Because pro bono services are addressed in the General Principles, they’re discouraged by the Code.

C. Because pro bono services are addressed in the Ethical Standards, they’re required by the Code.

D. Because pro bono services are addressed in the Ethical Standards, they’re prohibited by the Code.

Answer 47

The term “pro bono services” is not used in the APA Ethics Code or the Canadian Code of Ethics, but this answer is most consistent with the “spirit” of the Codes. Also, providing free or lost cost services is addressed in the General Principles of the APA Ethics Code, which provide aspirational (not enforceable) guidelines: General Principle B (Fidelity and Responsibility) states that “psychologists strive to contribute a portion of their professional time for little or no compensation or personal advantage.”

Question 48

Which of the following is an example of negative reinforcement?

A. A child continues to “act out” in class because of the attention he gets from the other children when he does so.

B. A teenager stops biting his nails at school because, whenever he does, his peers make fun of him.

C. A woman who knows sweets aren’t good for her continues to eat chocolate because chocolate reduces her anxiety.

D. A man stopped smoking after his therapist required him to donate $5.00 to a disliked political candidate every time he lit up a cigarette.

Answer 48

Negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior continues or increases because performing the behavior results in the termination or withdrawal of a stimulus. In the situation described in this answer, the woman eats chocolate because doing so stops her anxiety.

Question 49

The questions included in ____________ ask experienced job applicants to describe how they handled specific job-related situations in the past.

A. a situational interview

B. a behavioral interview

C. a case interview

D. an informational interview

Answer 49

Behavioral interviews are based on the assumption that past behavior is the best predictor of future behavior. When conducting a behavioral interview, the interviewer asks job applicants with previous job experience how they responded to specific job-related situations in the past.

Question 50

Following a presidential election, a person who voted for the winning candidate pays attention to news commentaries that support the new president’s actions but ignores commentaries that criticize him. This best illustrates which of the following?

A. self-serving bias

B. confirmation bias

C. illusory correlation

D. halo effect

Answer 50

The confirmation bias is the tendency to seek and pay attention to information that confirms our attitudes and beliefs and to ignore information that refutes them.

Question 51

Research using false-belief tasks has found that ToM develops when children are between_______________ of age (Wellman et al., 2001)

Answer 51

Research using false-belief tasks has found that ToM develops when children are between 3 and 5 years of age (Wellman et al., 2001)

Question 52

What is reverse developmental trend?

Answer 52

there is evidence that, in certain conditions, the testimony of young children is more accurate than the testimony of older children, adolescents, and adults and that this reverse developmental trend is due to age-related differences in knowledge: Increasing age is associated with greater knowledge, and greater knowledge increases the likelihood of generating spontaneous false memories from suggestive information (Brainerd, Reyna, & Ceci, 2008)

Question 53

A researcher wants to evaluate the effects of virtual reality exposure for treating the storm, height, and spider phobias of a 34-year-old woman. The best single-subject research design for evaluating this treatment is which of the following?

A. multiple baseline

B. reversal

C. discrete trials

D. time series

Answer 53

Of the three single-subject designs listed in the answers (multiple baseline, reversal, and discrete trials), the multiple baseline design would be the most appropriate because it would allow the researcher to determine if the treatment is effective for any of the woman’s phobias by sequentially applying the treatment to them. In addition, the multiple baseline design doesn’t require a treatment to be withdrawn once it’s been applied to a behavior. Consequently, if the treatment has a beneficial effect on any of the woman’s phobias, the researcher would not have to withdraw the treatment during the course of the study just for the sake of assessing its effects.

Question 54

The technique known as orgasmic reconditioning has been identified as an effective treatment for which of the following?

A. delayed ejaculation

B. female orgasmic disorder

C. premature ejaculation

D. paraphilic disorder

Answer 54

Orgasmic reconditioning, covert sensitization, and aversion treatment are behavioral interventions that are used to treat paraphilic disorders. Orgasmic reconditioning involves teaching the individual to become sexually aroused to more acceptable mental images and fantasies.

Question 55

Strength, accessibility, and specificity have been identified as factors that affect:

A. the extent to which a person can resist persuasion.

B. the likelihood that a person’s behaviors will alter his/her attitudes.

C. the amount of influence a person’s attitudes have on his/her behaviors.

D. the persuasiveness of an advertisement or other message.

Answer 55

Research has found that the strength of the relationship between a person’s attitudes and his/her behaviors is affected by several factors, including the strength, accessibility, and specificity of the attitudes. See e.g., C. A. Sanderson, Social psychology, Hoboken, NJ, John Wiley & Sons, 2010.

Question 56

Before using a selection test to estimate how well job applicants will do on a measure of job performance on their first few days of work, you would want to make sure the selection test has adequate:

A. concurrent validity.

B. predictive validity.

C. differential validity.

D. construct validity.

Answer 56

Evaluating a predictor’s criterion-related validity is important when scores on the predictor will be used to estimate scores on a criterion. There are two types of criterion-related validity: Concurrent validity is most important when predictor scores will be used to estimate current scores on the criterion. Predictive validity is most important when predictor scores will be used to estimate future scores on the criterion, which is the situation described in this question.

Question 57

Studies investigating ____________ often place infants in uncertain situations that include a stranger, a novel toy or other object, or the visual cliff.

A. basic temperament

B. problem-solving

C. social referencing

D. self-awareness

Answer 57

Social referencing refers to the use of the emotional reactions of a parent or other person to determine how to respond in ambiguous situations. Most studies on social referencing in infancy have created an ambiguous situation by presenting the infants with a stranger, a novel object, or the visual cliff while a parent or other caregiver is nearby.

Question 58

Following a stroke, a man shaves only the right side of his face, eats food only on the right side of his plate, and frequently bumps into door frames with the left side of his body. Which of the following areas of the brain was affected by the stroke?

A. frontal lobe

B. temporal lobe

C. occipital lobe

D. parietal lobe

Answer 58

This man’s symptoms are characteristic of contralateral neglect, which is also known as hemispatial neglect and is caused by damage to the parietal lobe (most often the right parietal lobe). A person with this disorder is unaware of areas and objects on the side of his/her body opposite to the location of the damage.

Question 59

Dr. Haar is concerned that the statistics tests she uses for her introductory statistics class are too difficult since so few students pass them. To make her tests a little easier, she will want to remove some items that have an item difficulty index (p) of ________ and add some items that have an item difficulty index of ________.

A. +1.0 and higher; -1.0 and lower

B. +.50 and higher; -.50 and lower

C. .85 and higher; .15 and lower

D. .15 and lower; .85 and higher

Answer 59

The item difficulty index (p) ranges from 0 to 1.0, with 0 indicating a very difficult item (none of the examinees answered it correctly) and 1.0 indicating a very easy item (all examinees answered it correctly). Therefore, to make the statistics tests easier, Dr. Haar will want to remove some of the very difficult items (e.g., those with a p value of .15 and lower) and add some easy items (e.g., those with a p value of .85 and higher).

Question 61

At the beginning of the school year, a researcher tells a first-grade teacher that a test had been administered to all students in kindergarten and the results indicated that five of her 22 students – Bob G., Liang C., Ellen A., Isadore R., and Lucia V. – will show significant gains in academic achievement this year. Even though the five children were actually randomly selected, all showed significant gains in academic skills by the end of the school year. Which of the following best explains these results?

A. the Hawthorne effect

B. the Rosenthal effect

C. the positive halo effect

D. the confirmation bias

Answer 61

This question describes a study that’s similar to the study conducted by Rosenthal and Jacobson (1968) who found that teachers’ expectations for students identified as academic “spurters” (but who were actually randomly chosen) had a positive effect on the students’ IQ scores and grades. This effect is known by several names including the Rosenthal effect, the Pygmalion effect, and the **self-fulfilling prophecy **effect.

Question 62

The development of depth perception in infancy involves becoming sensitive to three types of information in a predictable order, with __________ information being the first type that infants are sensitive to.

A. interposition

B. kinetic

C. binocular

D. pictorial

Answer 62

In their study on the development of depth perception, A. Yonas and C. E. Granrud found that infants respond to
1. kinetic cues at one to three months of age,
2. binocular cues at three to five months, and
3. pictorial cues at five to seven months
(The development of sensitivity to kinetic, binocular, and pictorial depth information in human infants, in D. Ingle, D. Lee, and R. M. Jeannerod

Question 63

As defined by Wrenn (1985), culturally encapsulated therapists:

A. assume that the problems of clients from cultural minority groups are related to their minority status.

B. make judgments on the basis of their own cultural assumptions which they view as applicable to all clients regardless of their cultural background.

C. recognize the impact of culture on behavior but strive to modify the behavior of clients from cultural minority groups to better fit the demands of the dominant culture.

D. attempt to be culturally competent but are unaware of the cultural biases that affect their work with clients from culturally diverse backgrounds.

Answer 63

Correct answer

B. make judgments on the basis of their own cultural assumptions which they view as applicable to all clients regardless of their cultural background.

Explanation
This answer is most consistent with Wrenn’s definition of cultural encapsulation. According to Wrenn, culturally encapsulated counselors define reality in terms of their own cultural assumptions and assume their assumption are correct and are insensitive to cultural variations.

Question 64

Which of the following is most useful for explaining the results of Schachter’s (1959) “misery loves miserable company” study?

A. gain-loss theory

B. self-verification theory

C. equity theory

D. social comparison theory

Answer 64

Social comparison theory (Festinger, 1954) has been used to explain the results of Schachter’s research. It predicts that, in uncertain situations, people often compare themselves to others to obtain information about themselves.

Question 65

At the beginning of her third therapy session, your new client says she’s “already feeling much better.” According to Howard et al.’s (1996) phase model, the client’s improvement is most likely due to which of the following?

A. the formation of a therapeutic alliance

B. an initial decrease in symptoms

C. the experience of catharsis

D. an increased sense of hope

Answer 65

According to Howard et al.’s phase model, the effects of therapy change over time and occur in three phases – remoralization, remediation, and rehabilitation. Remoralization occurs during the first few sessions and involves an increased sense of hope that a positive outcome is possible.

Question 66

Which of the following has been found to modify the nature of the relationship between message discrepancy and attitude change?

A. the recipient’s sense of self-efficacy

B. the processing channel used by the recipient of the message

C. the credibility of the source of the message

D. the level of fear aroused by the message

Answer 66

In general, the relationship between amount of attitude change and message discrepancy has an inverted-U shape, with the greatest amount of change being produced by a moderate level of discrepancy between the recipient’s attitude and the attitude expressed in the persuasive message. However, when communicator credibility is considered, the relationship for high-credible communicators is linear, with the amount of attitude change increasing as the level of discrepancy increases (Aronson, Turner, & Carlsmith. 1963).

Question 68

Sherif (1935) used the autokinetic phenomenon to study:
A. psychological reactance.
B. conformity to group norms.
C. compliance with direct requests.
D. counterfactual thinking.

Answer 68

Sherif used the autokinetic phenomenon (an optical illusion in which a stationary point of light appears to move in a dark room) to study conformity to group norms.

Question 69

An advertising agency has been hired by a dog food company to re-design the labels for its products. The agency prepares seven different labels for canned dog food and, to determine which label customers prefer, has a sample of 300 dog owners choose the label they like the most. Which of the following is the appropriate statistical test to use to determine if there’s a significant difference in the number of dog owners who chose each label?

A. single-sample chi-square test

B. multiple-sample chi-square test

C. one-way ANOVA

D. factorial ANOVA

Answer 69

The first and second steps in identifying the appropriate statistical test are identifying the study’s independent and dependent variables and the scale of measurement of the dependent variable. However, this study has only one variable and, in this situation, it’s just necessary to identify that variable’s scale of measurement: The variable is type of label and it’s measured on a nominal scale. The chi-square test is used to analyze nominal data and, when there’s only one variable, the single-sample chi-square test is the appropriate test. Note that the single-sample chi-square test is also known as the one-sample chi-square test and the chi-square goodness-of-fit test.

Question 70

A picture of a knife is projected onto a screen so that it’s briefly presented only to the right visual field of a split-brain patient, and a picture of a fork is then briefly presented only to the patient’s left visual field. When asked to verbally identify what he has seen, the patient:

A. will be able to say “knife” and, although he can’t say “fork,” will be able to pick out a fork with his left hand.

B. will be able to say “fork” and, although he can’t say “knife,” will be able to pick out a knife with his right hand.

C. will be able to say “knife” but won’t be able to say “fork” or pick out a fork with his right or left hand.

D. will be able to say “fork” but won’t be able to say “knife” or pick out a knife with his right or left hand.

Answer 70

Ordinarily information received by the left hemisphere is shared with the right hemisphere and vice versa, but split-brain patients have had their corpus callosums severed to control severe epilepsy which limits communication between the two hemispheres. Most language processing occurs in the left hemisphere, so split-brain patients can verbally identify images that are projected to the right visual field because information about those images is sent via the optic nerve to the left hemisphere. In contrast, split-brain patients cannot verbally identify images that are presented to the left visual field because that information is sent to the right hemisphere and isn’t shared with the left hemisphere. However, they can pick out the objects depicted in the images with their left hands because the right hemisphere controls the left hand.

Question 71

Tolman and Honzik (1930) concluded that the rats in their studies formed cognitive maps of a maze as the result of which of the following?

A. trial-and-error

B. sudden insight

C. reinforcement

D. latent learning

Answer 71

Tolman and Honzik found that rats allowed to explore a maze without being given a reward found their way to the goal box once a reward was provided more quickly than did rats that did not explore the maze before being given a reward. Based on these results, they concluded that rats allowed to explore the maze formed cognitive maps of the maze and that this confirmed that latent learning occurs without reinforcement.

Question 72

The analysis of covariance (ANCOVA) is used to:

A. statistically remove the effects of an extraneous variable on the dependent variable.

B. measure the effects of an extraneous variable on the dependent variable by treating it as an independent variable.

C. simultaneously assess the effects of the independent variable on two or more dependent variables.

D. simultaneously assess the effects of two or more independent variables on a single dependent variable.

Answer 72

The ANCOVA is used to statistically remove the effects of an extraneous variable from scores on the dependent variable so that it’s easier to detect the effects of the independent variable on the dependent variable. When using the ANCOVA, the extraneous variable is the “covariate.”

Question 74

The analysis of covariance (ANCOVA) is used to:

A. statistically remove the effects of an extraneous variable on the dependent variable.

B. measure the effects of an extraneous variable on the dependent variable by treating it as an independent variable.

C. simultaneously assess the effects of the independent variable on two or more dependent variables.

D. simultaneously assess the effects of two or more independent variables on a single dependent variable.

Answer 74

The ANCOVA is used to statistically remove the effects of an extraneous variable from scores on the dependent variable so that it’s easier to detect the effects of the independent variable on the dependent variable. When using the ANCOVA, the extraneous variable is the “covariate.”

Question 76

Therapy based on Boyd-Franklin’s (1989) multisystems model:

A. combines components of the treatment process with levels at which the therapist can provide treatment.

B. includes interventions that target the microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, macrosystem, and chronosystem.

C. combines individual interventions for each family member with group therapy and family therapy.

D. involves progressively intervening at the individual, family, and community levels.

Answer 76

Boyd-Franklin developed the multisystems model specifically for African American families. The model consists of two main axes:
Axis I consists of the components of the treatment process (e.g., joining, assessing, restructuring), while
Axis II consists of the various levels at which treatment can be applied (e.g., individual, family, nonblood kin, friends, community).

Question 77

Samantha, age 16, says that it’s not necessary to use protection when having sex with her boyfriend because “there’s no way I’m going to get pregnant.” According to Elkind (1976), this is an example of which of the following?

A. identity moratorium

B. magical thinking

C. the personal fable

D. the self-serving bias

Answer 77

Elkind proposed that early formal operational thought is characterized by adolescent egocentrism, and he identified the personal fable as one of its manifestations. As defined by Elkind, the personal fable is the belief that one is unique and not subject to the rules or consequences that apply to other people. An adolescent’s belief that there’s “no way” that having unprotected sex with her boyfriend could lead to pregnancy is an example of the personal fable.

Question 78

The most likely DSM-5 diagnosis for a 15-year-old boy who has three motor tics and one vocal tic that started 14 months ago is:

A. provisional tic disorder.

B. persistent tic disorder.

C. Gerstmann’s syndrome.

D. Tourette’s disorder.

Answer 78

The DSM-5 diagnosis of Tourette’s disorder requires the presence of two or more motor tics and one or more vocal tics that had an onset prior to 18 years of age and have lasted more than one year.

Question 80

Simon’s (1957) bounded rationality model of decision-making proposes that the assumptions underlying the rational model are often violated because:

A. organizational decisions tend to be incremental.

B. decision-makers tend to satisfice rather than optimize.

C. the decision-making process is susceptible to groupthink.

D. decision-makers rarely get feedback on the outcomes of their decisions

Answer 80

Correct answer

B. decision-makers tend to satisfice rather than optimize.

According to the bounded rationality model, rational decision-making is limited by individual and organizational factors and, as a result, decision makers often satisfice – i.e., they consider alternatives only until a minimally acceptable alternative is found.

Question 81

Studies have consistently found that, when adults 70 years of age and older are asked to recall events from their past, they exhibit a “reminiscence bump” which is a spike in the number of memories for events that occurred between the ages of:

A. 5 to 15.

B. 15 to 25.

C. 25 to 35.

D. 30 to 40.

Answer 81

When older adults are asked to recall events from their past, the largest number of recalled events are from the recent past. However, there’s also a “reminiscence bump” which is a spike in memory for events that occurred in mid-adolescence to early adulthood (from about ages 15 to 25). See, e.g., D. C. Rubin, T. A. Rahhal, and L. W. Poon, Things learned in early adulthood are remembered best, Memory & Cognition, 26, 3-19, 1998.

Question 82

A test developer would use the multitrait-multimethod matrix to evaluate a test’s:

A. incremental validity.

B. criterion-related validity.

C. construct validity.

D. differential validity.

Answer 82

The multitrait-multimethod matrix is one method for evaluating a test’s construct validity and is important for tests that are designed to assess a hypothetical trait (construct). When using the multitrait-multimethod matrix, the test being validated is administered to a sample of examinees along with tests known to measure the same or a related trait and tests known to measure unrelated traits. When scores on the test being validated have high correlations with scores on tests that measure the same or a related trait, this provides evidence of the test’s convergent validity. And, when scores on the test have low correlations with scores on tests that measure unrelated traits, this provides evidence of the test’s divergent validity. Adequate convergent and divergent validity provide evidence of the test’s construct validity.

Question 83

Of the Big Five personality traits, _______________ have been found to be most predictive of leader effectiveness.

A. openness and conscientiousness

B. extraversion and conscientiousness

C. agreeableness and emotional stability

D. openness and dependability

Answer 83

In their meta-analysis of the research, Judge, Bono, Ilies, and Gerehardt (2002) found that, of the Big Five personality traits, extraversion and conscientiousness had the largest correlation coefficients with measures of leader effectiveness (.31 and .28, respectively).

Question 84

Sherif (1935) used the autokinetic phenomenon to study:

A. psychological reactance.

B. conformity to group norms.

C. compliance with direct requests.

D. counterfactual thinking.

Answer 84

Sherif used the autokinetic phenomenon (an optical illusion in which a stationary point of light appears to move in a dark room) to study conformity to group norms.

Question 85

Privilege refers to:

A. the ethical requirement to protect a client’s confidentiality.

B. the legal requirement to protect a client’s right to privacy.

C. the legal and ethical requirement to disclose confidential client information only with appropriate authorization to do so.

D. the legal requirement to protect client confidentiality in court testimony, depositions, and other legal proceedings.

Answer 85

Correct answer

D. the legal requirement to protect client confidentiality in court testimony, depositions, and other legal proceedings.

Explanation

EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-091 Answer D is correct. Privilege is a legal concept that protects a client’s confidential information from being disclosed in legal proceedings.

Question 86

Functional neuroimaging techniques include all of the following except:

A. CT.

B. fMRI.

C. PET.

D. SPECT.

Answer 86

Computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) are structural neuroimaging techniques that provide information on the brain’s physical structure, while functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI), positron-emission tomography (PET), and single proton emission computed tomography (SPECT) are functional techniques that provide information on brain activity.

Question 87

Dr. Cho has been seeing Mr. and Mrs. Giovanni in therapy for four months. Mr. Giovanni is an insurance salesman and Mrs. Giovanni works part-time for a residential cleaning service company. Mr. Giovanni is suddenly laid off from his job and they ask if Mrs. Giovanni can exchange home cleaning services for therapy until Mr. Giovanni finds another job. Agreeing to this arrangement would be:

A. unethical.

B. ethical since it’s a temporary arrangement.

C. ethical since it involves an exchange of services (rather than goods).

D. ethical as long as Dr. Cho discusses the possible conflicts with the couple.

Answer 87

Standard 6.05 of the APA Ethics Code permits barter in certain circumstances, but this arrangement would not be acceptable because it creates a potentially harmful multiple relationship – i.e., Dr. Cho will be acting as both therapist and employer and, if he’s dissatisfied with Mrs. Giovanni’s work, this could affect his objectivity in therapy. This answer is also consistent with Standards II.1, II.2, and III.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.

Question 88

Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder is characterized by recurrent temper outbursts with:

A. a persistently irritable or angry mood between outbursts.

B. a persistently manic or hypomanic mood between outbursts.

C. extreme mood lability between outbursts.

D. moderate or severe depression between outbursts.

Answer 88

As described in DSM-5, disruptive mood dysregulation disorder involves severe and recurrent temper outbursts that are out of proportion to the situation with a persistently irritable or angry mood most of the day and nearly every day between outbursts.

Question 89

The test manual for an academic achievement test indicates that it has an alternate forms reliability coefficient of .80. This means that _____ of variability in test scores is true score variability.

A. 80%

B. 64%

C. 36%

D. 20%

Answer 89

Reliability coefficients are interpreted directly as the percent of variability in test scores that is due to true score variability. When the reliability coefficient is .80, this means that 80% of variability in scores is due to true score variability and 20% is due to measurement error.

Question 90

Which of the following is most responsible for depth perception of objects that are at a close distance?

A. motion parallax

B. interposition of objects

C. retinal disparity

D. linear perspective

Answer 90

C. retinal disparity
Retinal disparity refers to differences in retinal images in the left and right eyes and is responsible for depth perception of objects that are at a close distance. In contrast, motion parallax (the quicker movement of closer objects across the visual field), interposition (overlap) of objects, and linear perspective are responsible for depth perception of objects that are at a greater distance.

Question 91

The organizational development technique known as survey feedback involves obtaining information on which of the following?

A. employee attitudes and opinions about important aspects of work

B. “critical incidents” associated with safety and productivity problems

C. employee skill deficiencies that would benefit from training

D. the impact of work-family conflicts on employee productivity and satisfaction

Answer 91

Answer A is correct.
Data collection is the initial step in survey feedback and involves having employees at all levels of the organization complete surveys that are used to obtain information on their attitudes, opinions, and perceptions related to work conditions, supervision, company policies, and other important issues.

Question 92

Research investigating the effects of age on susceptibility to persuasion suggests that ___________ are most resistant to persuasion.

A. young and older adults

B. young adults

C. middle-aged adults

D. older adults

Answer 92

Answer C is correct. Studies investigating the impact of age on susceptibility to persuasion have not produced entirely consistent results, but there’s some support for a U-shaped relationship between age and attitude change for adolescents and adults, with adolescents/young adults and older adults being most easily persuaded. See, e.g., P. S. Visser and J. A. Krosnick, Development of attitude strength over the life cycle: Surge and decline, Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 75(6), 1389-1410, 1998.

Question 93

Which of the following describes the relationship between a test’s reliability coefficient and its criterion-related validity coefficient?

A. A test’s criterion-related validity coefficient can be no greater than its reliability coefficient.

B. A test’s criterion-related validity coefficient can be no greater than the square root of its reliability coefficient.

C. A test’s criterion-related validity coefficient can be no greater than the square root of one minus its reliability coefficient.

D. A test’s criterion-related validity coefficient can be no greater than the square of its reliability coefficient.

Answer 93

Answer B is correct. A test’s criterion-related validity coefficient can be no greater than the square root of its reliability coefficient. For example, if a test has a reliability coefficient of .81, its criterion-related validity coefficient can be no greater than the square root of .81, which is .90.

Question 94

In a normal distribution of scores, a T-score of _____ is equivalent to a z-score of _____ and a percentile rank of 84.

A. 50; 0

B. 50; 1.0

C. 60; 1.0

D. 70; 2.0

Answer 94

C. 60; 1.0
In a normal distribution, a percentile rank of 84 is one standard deviation above the mean. The T-score distribution has a mean of 50 and standard deviation of 10, so a T-score of 60 is one standard deviation above the mean. And the z-score distribution has a mean of 0 and standard deviation of 1.0, so a z-score of 1.0 is one standard deviation above the mean.

Question 96

Bem’s (1981) gender schema theory incorporates elements of which of the following to explain how children learn about gender roles and acquire a gender identity?

A. cognitive developmental theory and social learning theory

B. cognitive developmental theory and psychodynamic theory

C. behavioral learning theory and biological theory

D. behavioral learning theory and psychodynamic theory

Answer 96

Bem’s gender schema theory combines elements of cognitive developmental theory and social learning theory to explain how children learn about gender roles and acquire a gender identity. According to this theory, children acquire information about gender from the social environment, which they encode and process to derive cognitive schemas that they use to understand and evaluate themselves and others.

Categories in Gender Schema Theory
According to Bern’s theory, people fall into one of four different gender categories:
1. Sex-typed individuals identify with their gender and process information through the lens of that gender schema.
2. Cross-typed individuals process information through the lens of the opposite gender.
3. Androgynous individuals exhibit both masculine and feminine thinking.
4. Undifferentiated individuals do not show consistent use of sex-typed processing.

Question 97

Does the components of egan and Perry’s model of Gender identity have significant correlation with adjustment?

Yes
No

Answer 97

Egan and Perry’s (2001) multidimensional model of gender identity is a framework that explores how different aspects of gender identity impact psychosocial adjustment. Their study identified five key components of gender identity:2

Membership Knowledge: Awareness of being male or female.

Gender Typicality: Self-perceived similarity to other members of the same gender.

Gender Contentment: Satisfaction with one’s gender.

Felt Pressure for Gender Conformity: Pressure from parents, peers, and oneself to conform to gender stereotypes.

Intergroup Bias: Belief that one’s own gender is superior to the other gender.

The study found that gender typicality and gender contentment were positively related to adjustment, while felt pressure and intergroup bias were negatively associated with adjustment.

Question 99

A newly licensed psychologist finds that some of her clients are dealing with a high level of stress, and she encourages them to get a therapeutic massage between therapy sessions to alleviate physical tension. If they ask her for a referral, she gives them the business card of her husband, who’s a licensed massage therapist. This is:

A. acceptable since the psychologist gives her husband’s business card only to clients who ask for a referral.

B. acceptable only if the psychologist and her husband do not talk about referred clients without their authorization to do so.

C. unacceptable because doing so violates ethical prohibitions against engaging in multiple relationships.

D. unacceptable because doing so violates ethical prohibitions against engaging in situations that create a conflict of interest.

Answer 99

Correct answer

D. unacceptable because doing so violates ethical prohibitions against engaging in situations that create a conflict of interest.

Explanation

EPPP-P1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-065 Answer D is correct. Standard 3.06 of the APA Code of Ethics requires psychologists to avoid conflicts of interest that might impair their objectivity, competence, or effectiveness. The psychologist is violating this prohibition because the financial benefits of having her husband provide services to her clients may bias her judgment about a client’s need for those services. This situation does not constitute a multiple relationship (answer C), which occurs when a psychologist has two professional relationships with the same person or with the person and someone closely associated with that person. This answer is also consistent with the requirements of Standard III.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.

Question 100

To estimate the effect of shortening or lengthening a test on the test’s reliability coefficient, you would use which of the following?

A. coefficient of determination

B. coefficient alpha

C. Spearman-Brown formula

D. Kuder-Richardson formula 20

Answer 100

The Spearman-Brown formula is also known as the Spearman-Brown prophecy formula and is used to estimate the effect of adding or subtracting items to a test on the test’s reliability coefficient.

Question 103

What is most likely to happen when Behavior A and Behavior B are being reinforced on the same reinforcement schedule and the reinforcement for Behavior A is suddenly stopped?

A. Behaviors A and B will both increase.

B. Behaviors A and B will both decrease.

C. Behavior A will decrease and Behavior B will stay the same.

D. Behavior A will decrease and Behavior B will increase.

Answer 103

Correct answer

D. Behavior A will decrease and Behavior B will increase.

Explanation
This question is asking about positive behavioral contrast, which occurs when two behaviors are being reinforced and the reinforcement for one behavior is stopped while reinforcement for the other behavior stays the same. In this situation the behavior that is no longer reinforced will decrease, while the behavior that is still receiving the same amount of reinforcement will increase. Note that behavioral contrast can also be negative: Negative behavioral contrast occurs when two behaviors are being reinforced and the reinforcement for one behavior is increased. In this situation, the behavior that receives more reinforcement will increase, while the behavior that receives the same amount of reinforcement will decrease.

Question 104

The research has found that, in adulthood, __________ memory is most negatively affected by increasing age.

A. primary

B. secondary

C. implicit

D. sensory

Answer 104

Correct answer

B. secondary

Explanation
Secondary memory is another name for recent long-term memory. It’s associated with the greatest age-related decline and is more pronounced for recall tasks than recognition tasks.

Question 105

To evaluate the inter-rater reliability of a test when scores or ratings on the test represent a nominal scale of measurement, you would use which of the following?

A. coefficient alpha

B. kappa coefficient

C. KR-20

D. Spearman-Brown

Answer 105

The kappa coefficient is also known as Cohen’s kappa statistic and is used to measure inter-rater reliability when scores or ratings represent a nominal scale of measurement. An advantage of the kappa coefficient as a measure of inter-rater reliability is that, unlike percent agreement, the kappa coefficient corrects for chance agreement between the raters.

Question 106

You would use which of the following to construct a confidence interval around an examinee’s predicted criterion score?

A. regression equation

B. multiple regression equation

C. standard error of measurement

D. standard error of estimate

Answer 106

Answer D is correct.
The standard error of estimate indicates the amount of error that can be expected when an examinee’s predictor score is used to predict his or her score on a criterion, and it is used to construct a confidence interval around the predicted criterion score. The standard error of measurement (answer C) indicates the amount of error that can be expected in an examinee’s obtained (rather than predicted) score and is used to construct a confidence interval around the obtained score.

Question 107

Infants first exhibit some degree of auditory (sound) localization:

A. soon after birth.

B. at about three to four months of age.

C. not until six months of age.

D. not until ten months of age.

Answer 107

Answer A is correct.

Infants exhibit some degree of auditory localization (turning their heads in the direction of a sound) soon after birth. However, this ability disappears between two and four months of age and then reappears and improves to nearly adult levels by about 12 months of age.

Question 108

Baddeley’s (2000) multi-component model of working memory identifies which of the following as responsible for integrating new verbal and visual information?

A. sensory register

B. phonological loop

C. visuospatial sketchpad

D. episodic buffer

Answer 108

Answer D is correct. A. D. Baddeley’s multi-component model describes working memory as consisting of a central executive and three subcomponents – the phonological loop, visuo-spatial sketchpad, and episodic buffer. The episodic buffer is a temporary storage system that has a limited capacity and is responsible for combining new verbal and visual information from the phonological loop and visuo-spatial sketchpad and integrating new information with information that’s already stored in long-term memory (The episodic buffer: A new component of working memory, Trends in Cognitive Science, 4, 417-423, 2000).

Question 109

The Introduction and Applicability section of the APA Ethics Code states that APA may take action against a member not only when a complaint has been filed against him or her but also when a member:

A. has been expelled or suspended from an affiliated state psychological association.

B. has been expelled or suspended from an affiliated state psychological association or convicted of a felony.

C. has been expelled or suspended from an affiliated state psychological association or convicted of a felony or misdemeanor.

D. has been expelled or suspended from an affiliated state psychological association or convicted of a felony or misdemeanor that’s related to the practice or profession of psychology.

Answer 109

Answer B is correct.
The Introduction and Applicability section of the APA Ethics Code states that “APA may take action against a member after his or her conviction of a felony, expulsion or suspension from an affiliated state psychological association, or suspension or loss of licensure.” As noted by C. B. Fisher, the felony conviction does not have to be related to activities the member performed in his or her role as a psychologist

Question 110

Tourette’s disorder, ADHD, and obsessive-compulsive disorder have been linked to abnormalities in which of the following?

A. basal ganglia

B. hypothalamus

C. amygdala

D. medulla

Answer 110

Answer A is correct.
The basal ganglia are involved in the regulation of voluntary movement and consist of the caudate nucleus, putamen, and globus pallidus. A number of disorders have been linked to abnormalities in these structures including Tourette’s disorder, ADHD, and obsessive-compulsive disorder.

Question 111

Assuming that a woman’s symptoms meet the diagnostic criteria for a diagnosis of delusional disorder, the appropriate type of delusion is erotomanic if she’s convinced that:

A. her husband is having sexual relations with several of the neighbors.

B. a local celebrity she met at a fundraiser six months ago is in love with her.

C. every man she meets wants to have sex with her.

D. no “decent man” could ever be in love with her.

Answer 111

Answer B is correct.
The DSM-5 states that the erotomanic type “applies when the central theme [of the delusion] is that another person is in love with the individual” (p. 90).

Question 112

A T-score distribution has a mean of _____ and standard deviation of _____.

A. 100; 10

B. 100; 15

C. 50; 10

D. 50; 15

Answer 112

Answer C is correct. A T-score is a type of transformed score that expresses an examinee’s score in terms of its relation to the mean and standard deviation of the scores obtained by examinees in the normative (standardization) sample. The T-score distribution has a mean of 50 and standard deviation of 10. Therefore, a T-score of 50 means that an examinee’s score is equal to the mean score achieved by the normative sample, a T-score of 60 means that the examinee’s score is one standard deviation above the mean score achieved by the normative sample, a T-score of 40 means that the examinee’s score is one standard deviation below the mean score achieved by the normative sample, etc.

Question 113

Compared to animals that have more cones than rods, those that have more rods than cones:

A. have better peripheral vision and better night vision.

B. have worse peripheral vision but better night vision.

C. have better peripheral vision but worse night vision.

D. have worse peripheral vision and worse night vision.

Answer 113

Answer A is correct.

The cones work best in bright light and are responsible for visual acuity (sharpness and precise detail) and the perception of color. In contrast, the rods do not perceive color but are most important for peripheral vision and, because they’re more sensitive to light, are responsible for vision in dim light.

Question 114

You are considering a diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD) for your new client, Carla C. The presence of which of the following would be least useful for confirming this diagnosis?

A. Carla’s tendency toward perfectionism interferes with her completion of important tasks.

B. Carla is hypersensitive to criticism and rejection by others.

C. Carla believes that money is something to hang onto for future catastrophes.

D. Carla stubbornly refuses to delegate tasks to co-workers or family members.

Answer 114

Answer B is correct.

The behaviors described in answers A, C, and D are symptoms of OCPD. In contrast, hypersensitivity to criticism and rejection (answer B) is characteristic of avoidant personality disorder.

Question 115

The job characteristics model (Hackman & Oldham, 1980) identifies five core job dimensions that affect worker motivation, satisfaction, and performance. Which of the following is NOT one of these dimensions?

A. feedback

B. task identity

C. autonomy

D. work engagement

Answer 115

Answer D is correct. The five core job dimensions identified by the job characteristics model are skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy, and feedback.

Question 116

Practitioners of __________ view depression as being the result of unresolved grief, interpersonal deficits, role disputes, or role transitions.

A. reality therapy

B. personal construct therapy

C. interpersonal therapy

D. solution-focused therapy

Answer 116

Answer C is correct.
As its name suggests, interpersonal therapy (Klerman, Weissman, Rounsaville, & Chevron, 1984) is based on the assumptions that symptoms occur in an interpersonal context and that psychotherapy is most effective when it targets those contexts. As a treatment for depression, it focuses on one or more of four interpersonal problems – unresolved grief, interpersonal deficits, role disputes, and/or role transitions.

Question 119

A stroke involving the middle cerebral artery that affects a patient’s dominant hemisphere is most likely to produce which of the following symptoms?

A. contralateral hemiparesis, mutism, apathy, confusion, and impaired judgment

B. contralateral homonymous hemianopia, unilateral cortical blindness, visual agnosia, and memory loss

C. contralateral hemiparesis, contralateral homonymous hemianopia, dysarthria, and aphasia

D. contralateral hemiparesis, contralateral homonymous hemianopia, apraxia, and sensory neglect

Answer 119

Answer C is correct.
The symptoms listed in this answer are caused by a stroke that involves the middle cerebral artery and the dominant hemisphere. You may have been able to identify this as the correct answer as long as you know that aphasia is caused by damage to certain areas of the dominant hemisphere.
The symptoms listed in answer D are caused by a stroke that involves the middle cerebral artery and the non-dominant hemisphere;
the symptoms listed in answer A are caused by a stroke involving the anterior cerebral artery;
and the symptoms listed in answer B are caused by a stroke involving the posterior cerebral artery.

Question 120

Kluver and Bucy (1938) found that bilateral lesioning of which of the following areas of the brain in rhesus monkeys caused visual agnosia, reduced fear, increased docility, dietary changes, and abnormal sexual behavior.

A. medulla, hippocampus, and frontal lobes

B. medulla, hypothalamus, and frontal lobes

C. amygdala, hippocampus, and temporal lobes

D. amygdala, hypothalamus, and temporal lobes

Answer 120

Answer C is correct. H. Kluver and P. C. Bucy (1939) state that Kluver-Bucy syndrome was caused by lesioning the **temporal lobe, hippocampus, and amygdala **of rhesus monkeys. They also note that the hippocampus is part of the Papez circuit which is responsible for emotions and includes the hypothalamus and other structures, and they suggest that lesioning the hippocampus interrupted this circuit, which means that it also interrupted the normal functioning of those structures. However, answer D is not the best answer because Kluver and Bucy did not lesion the hypothalamus, and this question is asking about the areas of the brain that they lesioned

Question 121

A researcher would use which of the following to compare two interventions when costs and outcomes are both expressed in monetary terms?

A. cost-utility analysis

B. cost-benefit analysis

C. cost-effectiveness analysis

D. cost-consequences analysis

Answer 121

Answer B is correct.
Of the types of economic evaluation listed in the answers, only **cost-benefit analysis **is used when the costs and benefits of the interventions being evaluated are expressed in monetary terms. Cost-utility analysis (answer A) is used to compare the outcomes of two or more interventions when outcomes are expressed as quality-adjusted life-years (QALY) or disability-adjusted life-years (DALY).
Cost-effectiveness analysis (answer C) is used to compare two or more interventions that have outcomes that are measured in nonmonetary terms other than QALYs or DALYs (e.g., as reduction in symptom severity or probability of relapse).
Cost-consequences analysis (answer D) is used to compare the outcomes of two or more interventions when there are multiple outcomes that are simply listed and not aggregated into QALY, DALY, a cost-effectiveness ratio, or other single metric.

Question 123

The core components of transformational leadership include all of the following except:

A. individualized consideration.

B. idealized influence.

C. intellectual stimulation.

D. group consensus.

Answer 123

Answer D is correct.

As defined by Bass and Steidlmeier (1999), the four core components of transformational leadership are

1. idealized influence,
2. inspirational motivation,
3. intellectual stimulation, and
4. individualized consideration.

Question 124

Bandura’s (1986) social cognitive theory attributes the acquisition of many complex behaviors to which of the following?

A. reinforcement and punishment by significant others

B. collaborative assimilation and accommodation

C. observing the behavior of others

D. trial-and-error learning

Answer 124

Answer C is correct.

Bandura’s social cognitive theory is also known as observational learning theory and proposes that people can learn new behaviors by observing others perform them.

Question 125

During his first session with a family, a structural family therapist notices that, whenever the father tries to shed some light on the family’s problems, the mother and teenage son interrupt him and contradict what he’s saying. The therapist will describe this interaction as a:

A. detouring coalition.

B. stable coalition.

C. symmetrical interaction.

D. complementary interaction.

Answer 125

B. Stable Coalition
Practitioners of Minuchin’s structural family therapy distinguish between three rigid family triads – stable coalition, detouring coalition, and triangulation. A **stable coalition **occurs when two family members (often a parent and child) consistently “gang up” against a third family member (the other parent).
(b) An unstable coalition is also known as triangulation and occurs when each parent demands that the child side with him or her.
(c) A detouring-attack coalition occurs when parents avoid the conflict between them by blaming the child for their problems. (d) A detouring-support coalition occurs when parents avoid their own conflict by overprotecting the child.

Question 126

Francis Galton was surprised when he found that a group of contestants at a country fair produced a more accurate estimate of an oxen’s weight when their individual estimates were averaged than the estimate made by any one cattle expert. Averaging the estimates provided by a group of contestants is an example of which of the following tasks?

A. disjunctive

B. conjunctive

C. discretionary

D. compensatory

Answer 126

Answer D is correct.
Steiner (1972) distinguished between five types of group tasks:
1. additive,
2. compensatory,
3. disjunctive,
4. conjunctive, and
5. discretionary.

When working on a compensatory task, the group’s output is the average of each member’s estimate, judgment, or other input.

Question 127

When taking a walk after dark with her grandmother, a child says the moon is following them because it wants to help them see where they’re going. This is an example of:

A. horizontal decalage.

B. egocentrism.

C. magical thinking.

D. animistic thinking.

Answer 127

Answer D is correct.
Children are engaging in animistic thinking when they believe inanimate objects have thoughts, feelings, and other lifelike qualities. In contrast, magical thinking (answer C) occurs when children erroneously believe they have control over objects or events.

Question 128

A graduate program in clinical psychology requires first-year students to participate in individual therapy. With regard to the requirements of the APA Ethics Code and the Canadian Code of Ethics, this is:

A. acceptable as long as special steps are taken to protect students’ confidentiality.

B. acceptable as long as there are no multiple relationships between the students and the therapists.

C. acceptable only if students are given the choice of participating in an alternative activity.

D. unacceptable under any circumstances.

Answer 128

Answer B is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 7.05 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard III.30 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 7.05(a) states that “when individual or group therapy is a program or course requirement, psychologists responsible for that program allow students in undergraduate and graduate programs the option of selecting such therapy from practitioners unaffiliated with the program.” And Standard 7.05(b) states that “faculty who are or are likely to be responsible for evaluating students’ academic performance do not themselves provide that therapy.” In other words, when therapy is a program or course requirement, a student’s therapist should not have another relationship with the student.

Question 130

Amato (1993) reviewed empirical research on five factors that have been found to negatively impact the adjustment of children after the divorce of their parents, and he concluded that the research most consistently supports the link between __________ and negative outcomes for children.

A. economic hardship

B. inter parental conflict

C. absence of the noncustodial parent

D. adjustment of the custodial parent

Answer 130

Answer B is correct. P. R. Amato reviewed the research on the effects of interparental conflict, economic hardship, absence of the noncustodial parent, adjustment of the custodial parent, and stressful life changes on the adjustment of children following the divorce of their parents. Based on his review, he concluded that all five factors contribute to children’s maladjustment but that the negative impact of interparental conflict has received the most consistent and convincing support [Children’s adjustment to divorce: Theories, hypotheses, and empirical support, Journal of Marriage and Family, 55(1), 23-38, 1993].

Question 131

Some investigators interested in peer relationships have compared the outcomes for children who are either rejected or neglected by their peers. Their studies have found that:

A. rejected children have worse outcomes than neglected children and are less likely to experience a change in status when they change peer groups.

B. rejected children have better outcomes than neglected children and are more likely to experience a change in status when they change peer groups.

C. rejected and neglected children have similar outcomes, but neglected children are more likely to experience a change in status when they change peer groups.

D. rejected and neglected children have similar outcomes, but rejected children are more likely to experience a change in status when they change peer groups.

Answer 131

Answer A is correct.
The studies have found that rejected and neglected children both experience negative outcomes because of their peer status but that neglected children tend to be less lonely, less aggressive, more prosocial, and more likely to experience a change in status when they change classes, schools, or play groups. See, e.g., J. D. Coie and K. A. Dodge, Continuities and changes in children’s social status: A five-year longitudinal study, Merrill-Palmer Quarterly, 19, 261-282, 1983.

Question 133

When two variables are measured on an interval or ratio scale and their relationship is nonlinear, you would use which of the following correlation coefficients to assess their degree of association?

A. Spearman rho

B. contingency

C. eta

D. biserial

Answer 133

Answer C is correct. An assumption that must be met for most bivariate correlation coefficients is that there’s a linear relationship between the two variables that will be correlated. An exception is eta, which is used when both variables are measured on a continuous (interval or ratio) scale and the relationship between the variables is nonlinear.

Question 134

According to Sherif and Hovland’s (1961) social judgment theory, which of the following affects the size of a person’s latitudes of acceptance, rejection, and non-commitment?

A. the person’s use of the peripheral or central route to process the information contained in the persuasive message

B. the person’s belief about his/her ability to perform the behavior advocated by the persuasive message

C. the person’s prior exposure to the arguments presented in the persuasive message

D. the person’s ego-involvement with the issue addressed by the persuasive message

Answer 134

Answer D is correct.

Social judgment theory predicts that the more ego-involved a person is with one side of the issue addressed by a persuasive message, the smaller his/her latitudes of acceptance and non-commitment and the larger his/her latitude of rejection. In other words, the greater the person’s ego-involvement in his/her position, the less likely the person is to be persuaded by a message advocating an opposing position.

Question 135

Individuals with Wernicke’s aphasia have:

A. impaired comprehension of spoken and written language and fluent speech that’s devoid of meaning.

B. impaired comprehension of spoken and written language and nonfluent, labored speech.

C. relatively intact comprehension and fluent speech that’s devoid of meaning.

D. relatively intact comprehension and nonfluent, labored speech.

Answer 135

Answer A is correct.
Wernicke’s aphasia is also known as receptive aphasia, which is misleading because it involves both impaired comprehension and production of language. With regard to the production of language, people with Wernicke’s aphasia speak fluently and effortlessly but their speech is not understandable because it contains multiple word substitutions and other errors.

Question 136

Which of the following is true about the four stages of non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep?

A. They are characterized by a low-voltage, fast-wave EEG activity.

B. They are characterized by low-voltage, slow-wave EEG activity.

C. They are characterized by high-voltage, fast-wave EEG activity.

D. They are characterized by high-voltage, slow-wave EEG activity.

Answer 136

Answer D is correct.
The first four stages of sleep are characterized by high-voltage, slow-wave synchronized EEG activity and are collectively referred to as non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep because they are not accompanied by rapid eye movements.

Question 137

Tricyclic antidepressants are categorized as secondary and tertiary amines. With regard to neurotransmitters, which of the following is true about secondary and tertiary amines?

A. Secondary and tertiary amines both have a greater effect on norepinephrine than on serotonin.

B. Secondary and tertiary amines both have a greater effect on serotonin than on norepinephrine.

C. The secondary amines have a greater effect on serotonin than norepinephrine, while the tertiary amines have a similar effect on both neurotransmitters or a greater effect on norepinephrine than serotonin.

D. The secondary amines have a greater effect on norepinephrine than serotonin, while the tertiary amines have a similar effect on both neurotransmitters or greater effect on serotonin than norepinephrine.

Answer 137

Answer D is correct.
The tertiary amines (e.g., amitriptyline, imipramine, clomipramine) exert their effects by inhibiting the reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine, with some having a greater effect on serotonin. In contrast, secondary amines (e.g., nortriptyline, desipramine) are more potent at inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine than serotonin.

Question 138

To compare an obtained sample mean to a known population mean, you would use which of the following?

A. ANCOVA

B. one-way ANOVA

C. t-test for a single sample

D. single sample chi-square test

Answer 138

Answer C is correct. The t-test is always used to compare two means and the appropriate t-test depends on how the means were obtained. When an obtained sample mean will be compared to a known population mean, the t-test for a single sample is the appropriate t-test. In this situation, the sample is the treatment group and the population is being used as the control (no treatment) group.

Question 139

The item discrimination index (D) provides information on how well a test item discriminates between examinees who obtain a high or low score on the entire test. It ranges in value from:

A. 0 to +1.0

B. -1.0 to +1.0.

C. 0 to 100

D. -.50 to +.50

Answer 139

Answer B is correct. The item discrimination index (D) is calculated by subtracting the percent of examinees in the low scoring group (those who obtained a low score on the entire test) who answered the item correctly from the percent of examinees in the high scoring group (those who obtained a high score on the entire test) who answered the item correctly. D ranges from -1.0 to +1.0 and, the closer D is to 0, the weaker its ability to discriminate

Question 142

Researchers using the mirror task have found that most infants begin to recognize themselves in a mirror by about ____ months of age.

A. nine

B. twelve

C. fifteen

D. eighteen

Answer 142

Answer D is correct. The mirror task involves putting a mark on an infant’s head before placing the infant in front of a mirror. Infants demonstrate self-recognition when they see the mark in the mirror and touch their own foreheads rather than the forehead of the image in the mirror. For most infants, this occurs when they reach 18 months of age. See, e.g., J. Brooks-Gunn and M. Lewis, The development of early self-recognition, Developmental Review, 4, 215-239, 1984.

Question 143

According to self-verification theory (Swann, Pelham, & Krull, 1989), people who are insecure about their physical appearance and have other negative self-views are most likely to be drawn to potential romantic partners who:

A. verify their negative self-views.

B. challenge their negative self-views.

C. avoid making any positive or negative comments about them.

D. talk mostly about themselves.

Answer 143

Answer A is correct.

Self-verification theory predicts that, regardless of whether a person’s self-concept is positive or negative, the person will seek feedback from and prefer to spend time with people who confirm his/her self-concept.

Question 145

As described by Piaget, the ability to conserve emerges during the concrete operational stage and depends on which of the following?

A. transductive reasoning

B. hypothetico-deductive reasoning

C. transformational thinking

D. symbolic thinking

Answer 145

Answer C is correct.

Piaget proposed that the ability to solve conservation problems develops during the concrete operational stage as the result of the emergence of reversibility of thought, decentration, and transformational thinking.

Question 146

A newly promoted manager tells you that most of the employees he manages have high levels of motivation but limited skills, and he asks your advice about the best management style in this situation. As an advocate of ______________, you recommend that he adopt a selling leadership style.

A. Fiedler’s contingency theory

B. Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership theory

C. House’s path-goal theory

D. Vroom-Yetton-Jago’s leadership model

Answer 146

Answer B is correct. Hersey and Blanchard’s (1988) situational leadership theory distinguishes between four leadership styles (telling, selling, participating, delegating) and proposes that the best style depends on a worker’s motivation and ability.

Question 147

When people are exposed to arguments that address both sides of a controversial issue, a primacy effect is most likely to occur when:

A. one side is presented immediately after the other side and attitudes are measured immediately after the second presentation.

B. one side is presented immediately after the other side and attitudes are measured one week later.

C. one side is presented one week after the other side and attitudes are measured immediately after the second presentation.

D. one side is presented one week after the other side and attitudes are measured one week later.

Answer 147

Answer B is correct. The primacy effect is the tendency to remember or be persuaded most by information that’s presented first. Miller and Campbell (1959) found that the primacy effect is most likely to occur when the two sides of an argument are presented back-to-back and there’s an interval of time between presentation of the second side and attitude assessment.

Question 148

Which of the following has NOT been identified as an explanation for bystander apathy?

A. social loafing

B. pluralistic ignorance

C. evaluation apprehension

D. diffusion of responsibility

Answer 148

Answer A is correct. Social loafing occurs when members of a group exert less effort when working on a task than they would have exerted when working alone. Unlike pluralistic ignorance, evaluation apprehension, and diffusion of responsibility, social loafing has not been used to explain bystander apathy.

Question 149

Heritability estimates for bipolar disorder vary somewhat from study to study. However, according to the DSM-5-TR and several other sources, a number of twin studies have produced heritability estimates of around:

A. 35%.

B. 55%.

C. 70%.

D. 90%.

Answer 149

Answer D is correct.

According to the DSM-5-TR, “genetic processes strongly affect predispositions to bipolar disorder, with heritability estimates around 90% in some twin studies” (p. 147). Note that sources reporting ranges of heritability for bipolar disorder most often report a range of 70 to 90% or 80 to 90%.

Question 150

The concordance rate for schizophrenia for non-twin siblings is:

A. 41%.

B. 23%.

C. 18%.

D. 9%.

Answer 150

Answer D is correct. In his frequently cited review of the research, I. Gottesman reported a concordance rate for schizophrenia of 9% for non-twin siblings (Schizophrenia genesis, New York, W. H. Freeman & Co., 1991).

Question 151

Which of the following is considered the most effective way to control extraneous variables?

A. random selection of subjects from the population

B. random assignment of subjects to the different treatment groups

C. statistically removing their effects from the independent variable

D. statistically removing their effects from the dependent variable

Answer 151

An extraneous variable is a variable that has not been designated as an independent or dependent variable in a research study but affects the study’s results. A researcher always wants to control extraneous variables so that the effects of an independent variable on the dependent variable can be detected. Methods used to control extraneous variables include random assignment of subjects to treatment groups, treating the extraneous variable as an independent variable, and statistically removing the effects of the extraneous variable. Of these, random assignment of subjects is considered the most effective method because it helps ensure that groups are initially equivalent in terms of all extraneous variables, even those that are unknown.

Question 152

In the context of operant conditioning, ________ refers to the systematic and gradual removal of prompts.

A. desensitization

B. habituation

C. fading

D. thinning

Answer 152

Answer C is correct.
Fading refers to the gradual removal of prompts so that, eventually, the desired behavior occurs without prompts. Be careful not to confuse fading with thinning, which refers to the reduction of reinforcement.

Question 153

Krumboltz’s (1979) social learning theory of career decision-making identifies four factors that influence decision-making. Which of the following is NOT one of the four factors?

A. genetic endowment

B. environmental conditions and events

C. task approach skills

D. self-efficacy beliefs

Answer 153

Answer D is correct. Krumboltz proposed that career decision-making is affected by the person’s genetic endowment and special abilities, environmental conditions and events, learning experiences, and task approach skills.

Question 155

On the MMPI-2, which of the following is suggested by a combination of elevated scores on scales 1 (Hs) and 3 (Hy) and a low score on scale 2 (D)?

A. passive-aggressive tendencies

B. immaturity and self-centeredness

C. somatization of psychological problems

D. exaggeration or faking of psychological problems

Answer 155

Answer C is correct. Elevated scores on scales 1 (Hs) and 3 (Hy) with a significantly lower score on scale 2 (D) on the MMPI-2 is referred to as the “conversion V” pattern. It’s associated with somatization of psychological problems, poor insight into feelings and motivation, and a desire to appear rational and normal.

Question 156

To help a client with exhibitionistic disorder stop exposing himself in public, a behavior therapist has the client imagine that he’s at the mall and is starting to unzip his pants. Once that image is clear, the therapist instructs the client to imagine a police officer running up to him, pushing him up against the wall, putting handcuffs on him, and taking him outside the mall to the police car. The therapist is using which of the following interventions?

A. response cost

B. covert sensitization

C. systematic desensitization

D. overcorrection

Answer 156

Answer B is correct.
Covert sensitization is a type of aversion therapy that’s conducted in imagination. It involves pairing an image of the deviant behavior with an image that naturally produces an unpleasant emotional or physical reaction. In this situation, being arrested is the unconditioned stimulus and starting to pull down the zipper becomes a conditioned stimulus because, after being paired with the unconditioned stimulus, it produces an unpleasant emotional reaction (e.g., fear or embarrassment) instead of sexual arousal.

Question 158

The WISC-V is appropriate for individuals ages:

A. 2.6 to 7.7.

B. 6.0 to 16.11.

C. 7.6 to 18.11.

D. 12.0 to 20.11.

Answer 158

Answer B is correct. The Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children, Fifth Edition (WISC-V) is a downward extension of the WAIS-IV for individuals ages 6.0 to 16.11.

Question 159

Organizational analysis, task analysis, person analysis, and demographic analysis are components of which of the following?

A. work-oriented job analysis

B. worker-oriented job analysis

C. job evaluation

D. needs analysis

Answer 159

Answer D is correct. A needs analysis is conducted to identify training needs and often includes an organizational analysis, task analysis, person analysis, and demographic analysis.

Question 160

You would use which of the following to assess the cognitive abilities of a non-English speaking 21-year-old?

A. WJ-IV

B. Leiter-3

C. SIT-R3-1

D. KABC-II

Answer 160

Answer B is correct. The Leiter International Performance Scale, Third Edition (Leiter-3) is a measure of cognitive abilities for individuals ages 3 to 75+. Because of its nonverbal format, it’s useful for non-English speakers and individuals with language impairments.

Question 161

Research comparing the effectiveness of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) and repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation (rTMS) as treatments for major depressive disorder has found that ECT is associated with:

A. higher response and remission rates than rTMS is.

B. lower response and remission rates than rTMS is.

C. higher response rates but lower remission rates than rTMS is.

D. lower response rates but higher remission rates than rTMS is.

Answer 161

Answer A is correct. ECT and rTMS are both evidence-based treatments for major depressive disorder, but ECT has been found to have higher response and remission rates, with the superiority of ECT being greatest for patients with psychotic depression (Ren et al., 2014).

Question 162

When a woman _____________ during pregnancy, her baby may be premature and have a low birth weight; may be irritable, restless, and difficult to comfort; and may have feeding and sleep problems, an exaggerated startle response, and a high-pitched cry.

A. smokes marijuana

B. smokes cigarettes

C. uses cocaine

D. consumes alcohol

Answer 162

Answer C is correct. Babies whose mothers used cocaine during pregnancy may have the symptoms listed in this question as well as later cognitive and behavioral problems. Note, however, that some research suggests that these outcomes may not be entirely due to cocaine use but to other factors such the mother’s poor diet and use of other substances during pregnancy. See, e.g., B. L. Lambert and C. R. Bauer, Developmental and behavioral consequences of prenatal cocaine exposure: A review, Journal of Perinatology, 32, 819-828, 2012.

Question 163

As described by Janis (1982), groupthink is most likely to occur in:

A. highly cohesive groups that have a strong directive leader.

B. heterogeneous groups that have a transformational leader.

C. highly cohesive groups that have a laissez faire leader.

D. autonomous groups that don’t have a designated leader.

Answer 163

Answer A is correct. Janis identified a high degree of group cohesiveness and a strong directive leader as two of the conditions that increase the risk for groupthink.

Question 164

Research investigating the effectiveness of text-messaging as a smoking cessation intervention has generally found that:

A. text messaging is not effective as a stand-alone treatment, and text messaging plus other smoking interventions is no more effective than other smoking interventions alone.

B. text messaging is not effective as a stand-alone treatment, but text messaging plus other smoking interventions is more effective than other smoking interventions alone.

C. text messaging is effective as a stand-alone treatment, but text messaging plus other smoking interventions is no more effective than other smoking interventions alone.

D. text messaging is effective as a stand-alone treatment, and text messaging plus other smoking interventions is more effective than other smoking interventions alone.

Answer 164

nswer D is correct. A number of studies have confirmed that text messaging alone is an effective treatment for smoking cessation and is comparable in terms of effectiveness to other smoking interventions alone. The research has also found that combining text messaging with other smoking interventions is more effective than other smoking interventions alone (Whittaker et al., 2019).

Question 165

Parametric statistical tests are more “powerful” than nonparametric tests which means that, when using a parametric test, you’re more likely to:

A. retain a true null hypothesis.

B. reject a true null hypothesis.

C. retain a false null hypothesis.

D. reject a false null hypothesis.

Answer 165

Answer D is correct.
In the context of inferential statistics, power is also known as statistical power and refers to the ability to detect (and reject) a false null hypothesis. Several factors affect power including the type of statistical test that’s used: Parametric tests (e.g., t-test and analysis of variance) are more powerful than nonparametric tests (e.g., chi-square test) because of the type of data that are analyzed by parametric tests and because of the assumptions that must be met to use them.

Question 166

The Wonderlic Personnel Test-Revised is a measure of:

A. general mental ability.

B. work-related motivation.

C. occupational interests.

D. work-related integrity.

Answer 166

Answer A is correct.

The Wonderlic Personnel Test – Revised (WPT-R) is a 12-minute test of general mental ability that’s used to predict job success.

Question 167

The results of a factor analysis indicate that a test has a correlation coefficient of .20 with Factor I, .35 with Factor II, and .60 with Factor III. The correlation of .60 indicates that ____% of variability in test scores is explained by Factor III.

A. 60

B. 40

C. 36

D. 64

Answer 167

Answer C is correct. Factor loadings are interpreted like other correlation coefficients for two different measures and are squared to obtain a measure of shared variability. When the correlation between a test and a factor is .60, this means that 36% (.60 squared) of variability in test scores is explained by variability in the factor.

Question 168

In the first phase of one of Pavlov’s experiments with dogs, a tone was repeatedly paired with food so that, eventually, a dog salivated when the tone was presented alone. In the second phase of the experiment, a light was repeatedly paired with the tone so that the dog also salivated when the light was presented alone. The procedure used in this experiment is known as:

A. stimulus generalization.

B. stimulus discrimination.

C. delay conditioning.

D. higher-order conditioning.

Answer 168

Answer D is correct. Higher-order conditioning involves using the initial conditioned stimulus (the tone in the situation described in this question) as an unconditioned stimulus by pairing it with a neutral stimulus (the light) so that the neutral stimulus also becomes a conditioned stimulus and elicits a conditioned response (salivation) when it’s presented alone. Note that, when higher-order conditioning involves a second conditioned stimulus, it’s also referred to as second-order conditioning; and, when it involves a third conditioned stimulus, it’s also referred to as third-order conditioning.

Question 169

The earliest time in fetal development when the fetus has a good chance of survival outside the womb is referred to as the age of viability. This age is generally considered to be between ________ weeks after conception.

A. 18 and 22

B. 22 and 26

C. 26 and 30

D. 30 and 34

Answer 169

Answer B is correct.
The age of viability is also known as fetal viability. Although the age of viability reported by different authors varies somewhat, most agree that it’s between 22 and 26 weeks after conception. See, e.g., L. E. Berk, Child Development (9th ed.), Boston, Pearson, 2013.

Question 170

Charles Ridley (2005) described a Black therapy client who is willing to self-disclose to a Black therapist but unwilling to self-disclose to a White therapist as a:

A. healthy cultural paranoiac.

B. functional paranoiac.

C. confluent paranoiac.

D. intercultural nonparanoiac.

Answer 170

Answer A is correct. Ridley developed a typology for Black therapy clients to help explain why they may or may not be willing to self-disclose to Black or White therapists. It distinguishes between four types of “paranoiacs” based on level of functional paranoia and cultural paranoia: Functional paranoia is an unhealthy psychological condition that involves suspicion and distrust as the result of a psychological condition, while cultural paranoia involves suspicion and distrust as the result of experiences with racism. A Black client who is low in functional paranoia and high in cultural paranoia is classified as a healthy cultural paranoiac (answer A) and is willing to self-disclose to Black therapists but not to White therapists. In contrast, a Black client who is high in functional paranoia and low in cultural paranoia is classified as a functional paranoiac and is unwilling to self-disclose to Black or White therapists (answer B). A Black client who is high in both functional and cultural paranoia is classified as a confluent paranoiac and is also unwilling to self-disclose to Black or White therapists (answer C). A Black client who is low in both functional and cultural paranoia is classified as an intercultural nonparanoiac and is willing to self-disclose to Black and White therapists (answer D).

Question 171

Following a traumatic brain injury, a young woman is unable to form new long-term declarative memories. Most likely, the injury affected which of the following areas of her brain?

A. amygdala

B. hippocampus

C. hypothalamus

D. substantia nigra

Answer 171

Answer B is correct.
The hippocampus is part of the limbic system but is involved more in memory than emotion. One of its functions is to consolidate long-term declarative memories – i.e., to transfer memories related to facts and events from short-term to long-term memory.

Question 172

When using the A-B-A-B single-subject design:

A. there are two no-treatment phases and two treatment phases with the same treatment being applied in both treatment phases.

B. there are two no-treatment phases and two treatment phases with a different treatment being applied in each treatment phase.

C. there are four treatment phases with two different treatments each being applied twice.

D. there are four treatment phases with four different treatments each being applied once.

Answer 172

Answer A is correct. In the context of single-subject designs, the letter “A” always designates a no-treatment (baseline) phase and the other letters designate a treatment phase. When the other letter is the same – as in the A-B-A-B design – this indicates that the same treatment (B) is applied twice. In contrast, when the other letters are different – as in the A-B-A-C design – this indicates that two different treatments (B and C) are each applied once.

Question 173

For most infants, separation anxiety begins when the infant is between __________ months of age.

A. 2 and 4

B. 4 and 6

C. 6 and 8

D. 8 and 10

Answer 173

Answer C is correct. The age at which separation anxiety begins varies somewhat but, for most infants, it’s first evident between the ages of 6 and 8 months, peaks in intensity between 14 and 18 months, and then gradually decreases. See, e.g., D. R. Shaffer and K. Kipp, Developmental psychology: Childhood and adolescence (9th ed.), Belmont, CA, Wadsworth, 2014.

Question 175

Family-based treatment for bulimia (FB-BN) and anorexia (FB-AN) are similar, but one important difference is that FB-BN:

A. focuses less on the affected adolescent’s psychiatric comorbidity.

B. involves greater collaboration between parents and the affected adolescent.

C. focuses more on challenging the cognitive distortions that are contributing to the affected adolescent’s symptoms.

D. involves greater emphasis on the acquisition of radical acceptance and other distress tolerance skills by the affected adolescent.

Answer 175

Answer B is correct.
FB-BN and FB-AN differ somewhat in terms of procedures. For example, FB-BN involves greater collaboration between parents and the affected adolescent in the initial stages of therapy because, in contrast to adolescents with anorexia, those with bulimia often experience their symptoms as distressing and ego-dystonic and, as a result, are more motivated to change. Answer A is incorrect because psychiatric comorbidity rates are higher for bulimia than anorexia and must be addressed to ensure that comorbid symptoms do not interfere with the treatment of bulimia. Answer C is incorrect because challenging cognitive distortions is not a focus of either FB-BN or FB-AN. Answer D is incorrect because skills are addressed in FB-BN and FB-AN, but the focus is on communication, problem-solving, and relapse prevention skills. Although tolerating distress may be addressed, it is not emphasized more in FB-BN than in FB-AN.
In addition, helping clients acquire radical acceptance and other distress tolerance skills is a primary focus of dialectical behavior therapy.

Question 177

The item difficulty index ranges from __________, with 0 indicating a __________.

A. 0 to +1.0; very difficult item

B. 0 to +1.0; very easy item.

C. -10 to +10; moderately difficult item

D. -1.0 to +1.0; moderately difficult item

Answer 177

Answer A is correct.

The item difficulty index (p) ranges in value from 0 to +1.0, with 0 indicating that none of the examinees answered the item correctly (i.e., that the item is very difficult) and +1.0 indicating that all of the examinees answered the item correctly (i.e., that the item is very easy).

Question 178

A number of studies have investigated the effects of parental ethnic/racial socialization on various outcomes for African American children and adolescents. With regard to ethnic identity, these studies suggest that:

A. cultural socialization and preparation for bias have both been consistently linked to the development of a positive ethnic identity.

B. cultural socialization has been more consistently linked to the development of a positive ethnic identity than preparation for bias has.

C. preparation for bias has been more consistently linked to the development of a positive ethnic identity than cultural socialization has.

D. cultural socialization and preparation for bias have not been consistently linked to the development of a positive ethnic identity.

Answer 178

Correct answer

B. cultural socialization has been more consistently linked to the development of a positive ethnic identity than preparation for bias has.

Answer B is correct. Racial-ethnic socialization refers to the implicit and explicit practices of parents that communicate information about race and ethnicity to their children and takes the form of cultural socialization, preparation for bias, promotion of mistrust, and/or egalitarianism. Of these, cultural socialization (which focuses on teaching children about their cultural history and traditions and promoting cultural pride) and preparation for bias (which emphasizes making children aware of discrimination and teaching them ways to cope with it) have been studied the most. The results of these studies indicate that cultural socialization is most consistently linked to positive outcomes for children and adolescents (including the development of a positive ethnic identity), while preparation for bias is associated with both positive and negative outcomes [D. Hughes, J. Rodriguez, E. Smith, D. Johnson, H. Stevenson, and P. Spicer, Parents’ ethnic–racial socialization practices: A review of research and directions for future study, Developmental Psychology, 42(5), 747-770, 2006].

Question 180

Balancing on one foot for three seconds, catching a ball with stiff arms, and pedaling a tricycle are skills that are usually first evident when toddlers are between ________ months of age.

A. 18 and 23

B. 24 and 30

C. 31 and 36

D. 37 and 42

Answer 180

Answer C is correct. Reported ages at which gross motor milestones are first evident vary somewhat from author to author, but most identify the skills listed in this question as being acquired when a child is between 31 and 36 months of age.

Question 182

Practitioners of motivational interviewing who are familiar with Miller and Rollnick’s (2013) current view of decisional balance (DB) are most likely to say that DB is most useful for:

A. reducing a client’s risk for relapse.

B. reducing a client’s ambivalence about change.

C. assessing a client’s readiness to change.

D. supporting a client’s preparation for change.

Answer 182

Answer C is correct. DB involves having a client identify the pros and cons of changing an undesirable behavior. Miller and Rollnick’s (2013) current view of DB is that it is useful when a clinician’s goal is to maintain a neutral position while assessing a client’s readiness for change. However, they consider it to be contraindicated when the clinician’s goal is to promote the client’s motivation to change because, by identifying the negative consequences of change, the client may actually become less willing to change.

Question 183

Based on a review of psychotherapy outcome studies, Hans Eysenck (1952) concluded that:

A. 72% of patients with neuroses can be expected to experience spontaneous recovery without treatment.

B. 66% of patients with neuroses can be expected to experience spontaneous recovery without treatment.

C. 72% of patients with neuroses who received psychoanalytic psychotherapy can be expected to show little or no improvement in symptoms.

D. 66% of patients with neuroses who received eclectic psychotherapy can be expected to show little or no improvement in symptoms.

Answer 183

Answer A is correct.
Based on his review of 24 psychotherapy outcome studies, Eysenck concluded that
72% of untreated patients,
66% of patients receiving eclectic psychotherapy, and
44% of patients receiving psychoanalytic psychotherapy experienced a substantial decrease in symptoms.
In other words, many untreated patients were better off than the treated patients, and he attributed the improvement of untreated patients to spontaneous recovery.

Question 184

Dyslexia is the most common reading disorder and, of the types of dyslexia, _______ is most common.

A. surface dyslexia

B. deep dyslexia

C. phonological dyslexia

D. pure alexia

Answer 184

Answer C is correct. There are several types of dyslexia, and different experts use different names for them. The three types listed in answers A, B, and C are developmental forms of dyslexia. Phonological dyslexia is the most common type and is also known as dysphonic, dysphonetic, and auditory dyslexia. People with phonological dyslexia cannot sound out words very well and, as a result, have trouble pronouncing new words and pseudowords. Individuals with surface dyslexia have trouble reading words that have irregular pronunciations (e.g., chalk, steak); and individuals with deep dyslexia have trouble with function words (e.g., read “at” for “in”), and they often substitute words that have similar meanings or are related in some other way to the printed word (e.g., read “man” for “boy” and “comb” for “brush”). Alexia is an acquired type of reading disorder that’s caused by brain pathology. It’s also known as acquired dyslexia and is characterized by an inability to read normally (e.g., to read very slowly) and to understand written language.

Question 185

As described by Kahneman and Tversky (1974), the representativeness heuristic is most similar to which of the following?

A. illusory correlation

B. counterfactual thinking

C. confirmation bias

D. base rate fallacy

Answer 185

Answer D is correct. The base rate fallacy (also known as base rate neglect) is the tendency to ignore or underuse base rate information and to rely, instead, on irrelevant information. Of the cognitive errors and biases listed in the answers, it’s most similar to the representativeness heuristic. When relying on this heuristic to make judgments about the likelihood of an event, a person ignores base rates and other important information and focuses, instead, on the extent to which the event resembles a typical case. Some experts believe the base rate fallacy is the result of relying on the representativeness heuristic.

Question 186

A personnel director says she didn’t hire a recent African American job applicant because the applicant didn’t have sufficient work experience. However, she never hires African American applicants regardless of their experience even though she believes that she’s “colorblind” and treats everyone equally, regardless of their race or ethnicity. This is an example of:

A. neo-racism.

B. ethnocentrism.

C. overt racism.

D. covert racism.

Answer 186

Answer D is correct.
Covert racism is often difficult to recognize because it’s more subtle than overt racism and is often disguised.
1. Symbolic,
2. Aversive, and
3. Ambivalent racism
are types of covert racism. The personnel director described in this question is exhibiting unintentional covert racism because she believes she’s “colorblind” and doesn’t seem to be aware of the reasons for her actions and their harmful consequences. Neo-racism (answer A) is also known as cultural racism and is justified on the basis of cultural differences rather than racial or ethnic differences. Ethnocentrism (answer B) is the tendency to evaluate other cultures based on the norms and standards of one’s own culture.

Question 187

Which of the following best describes ethical requirements regarding the use of automated and other professional test scoring and interpretation services?

A. Psychologists should ordinarily avoid using these services.

B. Psychologists should use only services that have been approved by the APA or other professional organization.

C. Psychologists may use these services only for tests that are objectively scored.

D. Psychologists may use these services but the psychologists are responsible for the appropriate application, interpretation, and use of tests.

Answer 187

Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 9.09(c) of the APA’s Ethics Code. It states that “psychologists retain responsibility for the appropriate application, interpretation, and use of assessment instruments, whether they score and interpret such tests themselves or use automated or other services.” It is also consistent with the requirements of Standards II.3 and II.18 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.

Question 188

A research study involves comparing the short- and long-term effects of three brief behavioral treatments for social anxiety disorder by randomly assigning clinic patients who have just received the diagnosis to one of the three treatments and assessing their symptoms before treatment and then one week, four weeks, 12 weeks, and 24 weeks following treatment. Which of the following research designs is being used in this study?

A. counterbalanced

B. mixed

C. between groups

D. within subjects

Answer 188

Answer B is correct.

A mixed design is being used when a study has at least two independent variables and one variable is a between groups variable and the other is a within subjects variable. The study described in this question has two independent variables – treatment and time: Treatment is a between subjects variable because each subject will receive only one of the three treatments, while time is a within subjects variable because all subjects will be assessed at five different times.

Question 189

An employee of the Acme Company always orders inventory as soon as the level of inventory falls below a specified point. This is an example of:

A. a programmed decision.

B. a nonprogrammed decision.

C. an allocentric decision.

D. an idiocentric decision.

Answer 189

Answer A is correct. Organizational decisions can be categorized as programmed or nonprogrammed: Programmed decisions are repetitive and routine and are governed by rules, policies, and procedures, while nonprogrammed decisions are non-repetitive and complex and rely on the decision-maker’s judgment and problem-solving skills. Automatically ordering inventory when the level of inventory falls below a certain point is an example of a programmed decision. The terms allocentric and idiocentric (answers C and D) are not relevant to decision-making but are applied to several phenomena including personality: A person with an allocentric personality is group centered, while a person with an idiocentric personality is self-centered.

Question 190

ou would use Raven’s Coloured Progressive Matrices to assess:

A. the nonverbal intelligence of a 7-year-old child with limited English skills.

B. the nonverbal intelligence of a 26-year-old gifted adult.

C. the general reasoning ability of a 19-year-old college student.

D. the school readiness of a 4-year-old child.

Answer 190

Answer A is correct. The Coloured Progressive Matrices is a version of Raven’s Progressive Matrices for children ages 5 to 11, older adults, and individuals with mental or physical impairments. Like the other versions, it assesses nonverbal intelligence and, because instructions are simple and can be pantomimed if necessary, it’s useful for individuals who are hearing-impaired or non-English speakers.

Question 191

Which of the following decreases the risk for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?

A. breastfeeding the baby and having the baby sleep on his/her back

B. having the baby sleep on his/her stomach and keeping the crib as bare as possible

C. breast feeding the baby and having the baby co-sleep with his/her parents

D. using crib bumpers in the baby’s crib and having the baby sleep on his/her back

Answer 191

Answer A is correct.

Breast feeding the baby,
having the baby sleep on his back, and keeping the crib as bare as possible

are associated with a decreased risk for SIDS. In contrast, having the baby sleep on his/her stomach, having the baby co-sleep with his/her parents, and using crib bumpers have been linked to an increased risk.

Question 192

Research on the serial position effect suggests that the primacy effect is due to:

A. latent learning.

B. retroactive interference.

C. continued rehearsal of information in working memory.

D. transfer of information from short- to long-term memory.

Answer 192

Answer D is correct. The serial position effect occurs when a person is asked to memorize a list of unrelated words and then asked to recall as many words as possible in any order either immediately or after a brief delay. Research on the serial position effect suggests that the ability to recall items from the beginning of the list of words (primacy effect) is due to the transfer of the words from short- to long-term memory, while the ability to recall items from the end of the list (recency effect) is due to the fact that the words are still present in short-term memory.

Question 193

Which of the following is not included in the DSM-5 as a symptom of a panic attack?

A. a sense of that one’s feelings and thoughts do not belong to oneself

B. increased sensitivity to environmental stimuli

C. concern about losing control of one’s mental functions

D. tingling or other abnormal dermal sensation

Answer 193

Answer B is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to notice that it’s asking which symptom is not included in the DSM-5 as a symptom of a panic attack. The symptoms listed in answers A, C, and D are all included in DSM-5, albeit with slightly different language – i.e., the symptoms listed in DSM-5 include depersonalization (being detached from oneself), fear of losing control or “going crazy,” and paresthesias (numbness or tingling sensations). Increased sensitivity to environmental stimuli is not listed as a characteristic symptom of a panic attack.

Question 194

Emiko E. was a client of Dr. Beck for seven months. She ended therapy with Dr. Beck four months ago but calls to request an appointment because she’s feeling very anxious and depressed and has started thinking about killing herself. For the past three months, Dr. Beck has been reducing his practice by referring current clients to other therapists and not accepting new clients because he and his wife are planning to move to another state to be closer to their adult son and his family. The best course of action for Dr. Beck is to:

A. explain to Emiko that he’s no longer accepting clients and provide her with a referral to a colleague.

B. explain to Emiko that he’s no longer accepting clients and provide her with a referral to a colleague and tell her he’s willing to consult with the new therapist.

C. agree to see Emiko in therapy until her crisis has passed and then provide her with a referral to a colleague if she needs additional therapy sessions.

D. tell Emiko to have a friend or family member take her to the hospital if she starts feeling that she can’t control the impulse to kill herself.

Answer 194

Answer C is correct. This situation is not directly addressed in ethical guidelines. However, this answer is most consistent with the “spirit” of the guidelines because it’s the response that best addresses Emiko’s welfare (see, e.g., Standard 10.09 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle II.35 of the Canadian Code of Ethics). Answers A and B are not the best answers because Emiko seems to need immediate assistance due to her suicidal ideation, and starting therapy with a new therapist (who may not be able to see her right away) would not be adequate. And answer D is not the best answer because Emiko may or may not be capable of or motivated to follow through on the suggestion to have someone take her to the hospital if she starts feeling like she can’t control the impulse to attempt suicide.

Question 195

Damage to the frontal lobe is least likely to have an adverse effect on which of the following?

A. motivation

B. judgment

C. memory

D. IQ

Answer 195

Answer D is correct. Frontal lobe damage often has an adverse effect on motivation, judgment, and memory but not on IQ test scores. One explanation for this is that frontal lobe damage seems to have a negative impact on divergent thinking but not on convergent thinking which is what is measured by standard IQ tests [B. Kolb and I. Q. Whishaw, Fundamentals of human neuropsychology (6th ed.), New York, Worth Publishers, 2009].

Question 196

A woman with panic disorder believes she can avoid having a panic attack by having a trusted friend with her whenever she is in situations that, in the past, have elicited an attack. In terms of classical conditioning, the trusted friend is a(n):

A. unconditioned distractor.

B. secondary reinforcer.

C. discriminative stimulus.

D. conditioned inhibitor.

Answer 196

Answer D is correct. For individuals with anxiety disorders, conditioned inhibition can lead to the development of safety behaviors that act as conditioned inhibitors and signal that anxiety or fear will not occur in anxiety-arousing situations. In the situation described in this question, the trusted friend is a conditioned inhibitor (“safety signal”) that keeps the woman from having panic attacks in situations that previously elicited an attack.

Question 197

A hypertensive crisis may occur when foods containing tyramine are consumed while taking which of the following drugs?

A. imipramine

B. phenelzine

C. sertraline

D. fluoxetine

Answer 197

Answer B is correct. A hypertensive crisis may result when an MAOI is taken in conjunction with foods containing tyramine or with certain drugs (e.g., antihistamines, amphetamines). Of the antidepressants listed in the answers, only phenelzine is an MAOI.

Question 198

Which of the following is not one of the factors identified by the Health Belief Model as contributing to the likelihood that a person will engage in behaviors that reduce the risk that he/she will develop a disorder?

A. self-efficacy

B. perceived barriers

C. behavioral norms

D. cues to action

Answer 198

Answer C is correct.
The Health Belief Model identifies the following factors as contributors to the likelihood that a person will engage in behaviors that reduce the risk for developing a disorder: perceived susceptibility to the disorder, perceived severity of the consequences of having the disorder, perceived benefits of taking action, perceived barriers to taking action, self-efficacy, and cues to action.

Question 199

Nisbett (1993) uses the “culture of honor” to help explain:

A. why homicide rates for White males are higher in America’s Southern states than in its Northern states.

B. why it’s acceptable in some patriarchal societies for females who bring shame to the family to be murdered by a relative.

C. why members of collectivist cultures place more value on “saving face” than members of individualist cultures do.

D. why, in certain circumstances, individuals are likely to exhibit altruism toward members of an ingroup but hostility toward members of an outgroup.

Answer 199

Answer A is correct. R. E. Nisbett notes that the homicide rates for White southern males are substantially higher than those for White northern males (especially in rural areas), and he attributes the difference to a culture of honor in the South. According to Nisbett, “the South has a culture of honor with historical roots that underlies its preferences for violence … [with violence being viewed] as an appropriate response to insults, as a means of self-protection, and as a socialization tool in training children” [Violence and U.S. regional culture, American Psychologist, 48(4), 441-449, 1993].

Question 200

A two-point code of 4-9 on the MMPI-2 is most associated with which of the following?

A. impulsivity, antisocial tendencies, and low frustration tolerance

B. passive-aggressive behavior, anger, and poor insight

C. emotional turmoil, psychosis, and pessimism

D. excessive worry, depression, and physical complaints

Answer 200

Answer A is correct. A two-point code of 4-9 or 9-4 indicates that the examinee’s highest scores are on scales 4 and 9, which are Psychopathic Deviate and Hypomania. These codes are associated with narcissistic and antisocial tendencies, impulsivity, low frustration tolerance, and substance abuse. A two-point code of 3-4 or 4-3 is associated with passive-aggressive behavior, anger, and poor insight (answer B). A two-point code of 7-8 or 8-7 is associated with emotional turmoil, psychosis, and pessimism (answer C). And a two-point code of 2-7 or 7-2 is associated with excessive worry, depression, and physical complaints (answer D).

Question 201

McGuire’s (1973) attitude inoculation hypothesis addresses the usefulness of __________ for increasing resistance to persuasion.

A. forewarning

B. reactance

C. a supportive defense

D. a refutational defense

Answer 201

Answer D is correct. McGuire’s attitude inoculation hypothesis is based on the medical model of immunization and proposes that an effective way to increase resistance to persuasion is to “immunize” people against attempts to change their attitudes. This involves providing them with weak arguments against their current attitudes along with counterarguments that refute those arguments (i.e., a refutational defense) before they’re exposed to a persuasive message.

Question 202

The principle of ________ predicts that different systems that have the same starting point may reach different endpoints.

A. equilibrium

B. disequilibrium

C. equifinality

D. multifinality

Answer 202

Answer D is correct. The concepts of equifinality and multifinality are derived from general systems theory and are included in Katz and Kahn’s (1978) open-system theory which applies systems theory to organizational behavior. According to the principle of equifinality, different systems can achieve the same outcomes when they have different starting points; according to the principle of multifinality, systems can achieve dissimilar outcomes when they have the same starting point.

Question 203

In the context of research, between-methods triangulation involves:

A. including two or more qualitative methods to collect data.

B. including both qualitative and quantitative methods to collect data.

C. using multiple theories to interpret research results.

D. collecting data at different times, in different places, or from different people.

Answer 203

Answer B is correct. Triangulation “refers to the use of more than one approach to the investigation of a research question in order to enhance confidence in the ensuing findings” [A. Bryman, Triangulation, in M. S. Lewis-Beck, A. Bryman, and T. F. Liao (Eds.), The SAGE encyclopedia of social science research methods (pp. 1142-1143), Thousand Oaks, SAGE Publications, 2004]. Methodological, investigator, data, and theory are types of triangulation: Methodological triangulation involves using more than one method to collect data. When the methods are the same (qualitative or quantitative), this is referred to within-method triangulation (answer A); when the methods differ (qualitative and quantitative), this is referred to as between-methods triangulation (answer B). Answer C describes theoretical triangulation, and answer D describes data triangulation.

Terms of Service | Privacy Policy