Organizational Psychology

Question 1

One of the questions included in a survey asks employees to rate the degree to which the processes used by the company to make decisions about employee raises, bonuses, and promotions are fair. This question assesses employees’ perceptions about which of the following?

A. distributive justice

B. procedural justice

C. normative justice

D. interactional justice

Answer 1

Answer B is correct. A distinction is made between three types of organizational justice: distributive, procedural, and interactional. Procedural justice refers to the fairness of the procedures and processes used to determine outcomes.

Question 2

The Position Analysis Questionnaire is:

A. a structured questionnaire that provides the information needed to compare worker activities for different jobs.

B. a structured questionnaire that provides the information needed to identify worker behaviors associated with very successful and very unsuccessful performance for a particular job.

C. an open-ended questionnaire that provides the information needed to compare worker activities for different jobs.

D. an open-ended questionnaire that provides the information needed to identify worker behaviors associated with very successful and very unsuccessful performance for a particular job.

Answer 2

Answer A is correct. The Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) is a structured worker-oriented job analysis questionnaire that addresses six categories of work activity: information input, mental processes, work output, relationships with other people, job context, and other characteristics. Because these activities are general, the PAQ can be used for a variety of jobs, and it allows an employer to compare activities across different jobs.

Question 3

According to Janis (1982) groupthink is least likely to occur when the group leader:

A. offers his/her opinion about the best solution to the problem at the beginning of the group meeting.

B. encourages each group member to express his/her opinion during group meetings.

C. fosters and supports a high degree of group cohesiveness when the group is first formed.

D. assigns the role of facilitator to the most experienced group member.

Answer 3

Answer B is correct. Janis proposes that group leaders can reduce the risk for groupthink by remaining neutral in the beginning of a discussion, encouraging members to express their opinions, appointing a member to play devil’s advocate, and bringing in outside opinions.

Question 4

An essential focus of total quality management (TQM) is on:

A. employee involvement.

B. leadership effectiveness.

C. return on investment.

D. organizational structure.

Answer 4

Answer A is correct. The primary emphases of TQM are continuous improvement, total employee involvement, customer satisfaction, and data-driven decision-making.

Question 5

The main goal of frame-of-reference training is to:

A. train raters how to develop and evaluate employee performance measures.

B. train raters how to use a new rating scale to rate employee performance.

C. help raters identify rater biases and errors that affect their employee performance ratings.

D. help raters distinguish between different levels of employee performance.

Answer 5

Answer D is correct. As its name suggests, frame-of-reference (FOR) training is used to help raters adopt a common frame of reference when rating employee performance. This involves ensuring that trainees understand the multidimensional nature of job performance and can distinguish between different levels of performance. Frame-of-reference training has been found to be more effective than training that focuses on rater biases.

Question 8

As described by Simon (1957) managers often “satisfice” rather than “optimize” or “maximize” due to:

A. skepticism about the abilities of subordinates.

B. a desire to avoid challenging the status quo.

C. time constraints and limited cognitive abilities.

D. an unwillingness to compromise.

Answer 8

Answer C is correct.

Simon’s bounded rationality model proposes that rational decision-making is limited by time restrictions, insufficient information, and the cognitive limitations of the decision maker. As a result, decision makers often satisfice – i.e., consider alternatives only until a “good enough” alternative is found rather than identify and consider all possible alternatives before choosing one.

Question 10

To determine if “test unfairness” is the reason why a selection test is having an adverse impact on older job applicants, you would:

A. compare the validity coefficients of the test for older and younger workers in the validation sample.

B. compare the selection test and job performance scores obtained by older and younger workers in the validation sample.

C. determine if the job performance scores obtained by older workers in the validation sample were affected by criterion contamination.

D. determine if the selection test scores obtained by older and younger workers in the validation sample were affected by rater biases.

Answer 10

Answer B is correct. As defined by the EEOC, “test unfairness” occurs when members of one group consistently obtain lower scores on a selection test or other employment procedure but the score difference is not reflected in differences in scores obtained by different groups on a measure of job performance.

Question 11

Marcia’s (1966) identity development model identifies four identity statuses that differ with regard to:

A. ego identity and strength.

B. crisis and maturity.

C. knowledge and ability.

D. crisis and choice.

Answer 11

Answer D is correct.

Marcia identified four identity statuses (diffusion, moratorium, foreclosure, and achievement) that describe identity development in adolescence, with a person’s status being determined by whether or not the person has experienced an identity crisis and made choices with regard to his/her identity (e.g., has chosen a career).

Question 12

Which of the following is most useful for identifying the behavioral anchors that are incorporated into behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS)?

A. needs analysis

B. organizational analysis

C. paired comparison technique

D. critical incident technique

Answer 12

Answer D is correct. Knowing that behavioral anchors are descriptions of specific job behaviors that represent good, average, and poor performance would have helped you identify the critical incident technique as being most useful for developing BARS. Note that, while the critical incident technique is ordinarily used to identify extreme behaviors (i.e., very successful and very unsuccessful behaviors), the terms “critical incident” and “critical incident technique” are sometimes used more generally to refer to descriptions of specific job-related behaviors.

Question 13

According to Kirkpatrick’s (1998) evaluation model, ___________ criteria provide the least valuable information about the effects of a training program.

A. results

B. behavior

C. reaction

D. learning

Answer 13

Answer C is correct.
Kirkpatrick’s evaluation model distinguishes between four levels of training program evaluation that can be arranged in order from least to most informative: reaction criteria, learning criteria, behavior criteria, and results criteria.

Question 14

Overlearning is most useful for:

A. skills and knowledge that will be used frequently on-the-job.

B. skills and knowledge that will be used infrequently on-the-job.

C. teaching tasks that can be divided into subtasks.

D. teaching tasks that must be completed in a particular sequence.

Answer 14

Answer B is correct. Overlearning refers to learning or practicing beyond the point of mastery and results in automaticity, which occurs when information is recalled or a behavior is performed with little conscious effort or awareness. Automaticity is especially important for tasks that are performed relatively infrequently and when correct performance is essential because errors can have serious negative consequences.

Question 15

The predictions made by McGregor (1960) about Theory X and Theory Y managers is most consistent with which of the following?

A. self-fulfilling prophecy effect

B. Hawthorne effect

C. self-serving bias

D. ultimate attribution error

Answer 15

Answer A is correct.

According to McGregor, a supervisor’s beliefs about subordinates’ work-related attitudes and behaviors determine how the supervisor acts toward subordinates which, in turn, affects how subordinates behave. In other words, the supervisor’s beliefs about subordinates have a self-fulfilling prophecy effect on their job performance.

Question 18

An advocate of __________ is most likely to agree that time-and-motion studies are an effective way to identify the best way to perform a job.

A. Katz and Kahn’s open-system theory

B. Taylor’s scientific management

C. McGregor’s Theory X

D. Herzberg’s two-factor theory

Answer 18

Answer B is correct. Taylor (1911), the founder of scientific management, identified several management practices that he believed would maximize organizational efficiency and productivity. One of these is using scientific methods (e.g., time-and-motion studies) to determine the best way to do a job.

Question 19

A primary focus of process consultation is determining:

A. the best way to redesign jobs so they provide employees with more responsibility, challenge, and opportunities for advancement.

B. the best way to select and train employees so they can perform their jobs in the most efficient ways.

C. how groups of employees discuss problems, make decisions, and achieve work-related goals.

D. how employee attitudes and perceptions affect individual and organizational effectiveness.

Answer 19

Answer C is correct. As its name suggests, process consultation focuses on clarifying and, when appropriate, modifying group processes – e.g., how group members communicate, diagnose and resolve problems, and make decisions.

Question 20

As described by Trochim (2020), a summative evaluation includes all of the following except:

A. secondary analysis.

B. implementation evaluation.

C. impact evaluation.

D. cost-effectiveness and cost-benefit analysis.

Answer 20

Answer B is correct. Trochim distinguishes between formative and summative evaluations and identifies the components of each type: The components of formative evaluation are needs assessment, evaluability assessment, structured conceptualization, implementation evaluation, and process evaluation. The components of summative evaluation are outcome evaluation, impact evaluation, cost-effectiveness and cost-benefit analysis, secondary analysis, and meta-analysis.

Question 21

Data collected by Schmidt, Oh, and Shaffer (2016) indicate that the greatest increase in predictive validity for job performance occurs when a test of general mental ability is combined with which of the following?

A. work sample

B. integrity test

C. biodata

D. job knowledge test

Answer 21

Answer B is correct. Schmidt, Oh, and Shaffer’s meta-analysis of research on the predictive validity of selection methods found that general mental ability tests have the highest predictive validity for job performance and that the greatest increase in predictive validity (i.e., the greatest incremental validity) is obtained when a general mental ability test is combined with an integrity test. They note that this is not only because integrity tests have relatively high validity coefficients but also because they have a nearly zero correlation with general mental ability tests, which means the two types of tests assess different contributors to job performance.

Question 22

Behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS) combine which of the following?

A. graphic rating scale and critical incidents

B. paired comparison and critical incidents

C. behavioral anchors and forced choice

D. behavioral anchors and forced distribution

Answer 22

Answer A is correct. When using BARS, a supervisor rates each employee on several dimensions of job performance using a graphic rating scale, with points on the scale being “anchored” by specific behaviors (critical incidents) that each describe a different level of performance.

Question 25

The incremental validity of a new selection test (predictor) is calculated by subtracting: A. the positive hit rate from the base rate. B. the base rate from the positive hit rate. C. the negative hit rate from the positive hit rate. D. the positive hit rate from the negative hit rate.

Answer 25

Answer B is correct. Incremental validity refers to the increase in the accuracy of predictions about criterion performance that occurs by adding a new predictor to the current method used to make predictions. It can be calculated by subtracting the base rate from the positive hit rate using data collected in a criterion-related validity study: The base rate is the proportion of employees who were hired without the new selection test (predictor) and who obtained high scores on the measure of job performance (criterion). The positive hit rate is the proportion of employees who would have been hired using their scores on the new selection test and who obtained high scores on the measure of job performance.

Question 26

When the court determines that an employer’s selection test has an adverse impact on members of a legally protected group, the employer: A. will not be permitted to use the test to hire employees under any circumstances. B. will be permitted to use the test if the attributes it measures are job related and the test will be used in conjunction with other measures that do not have an adverse impact. C. may be permitted to use the test if the attributes it measures are job related and the employer will broaden recruitment methods so that more job applicants are from the legally protected group. D. may be permitted to use the test if the attributes it measures are job related and there are no alternative valid measures available that would not have an adverse impact.

Answer 26

Answer D is correct. When the court determines that a selection test is having an adverse impact, the employer has several options: The employer can substitute another measure for the test that does not have an adverse impact, can modify the test so that it no longer has an adverse impact, or can show that the attributes measured by the test are job related and there are no other valid measures available that would not have an adverse impact. The applicable rules for this situation are described in the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission’s Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures.

Question 27

A large manufacturing company uses the salary history of job applicants to determine the wages they offer to them, even though this practice results in applicants belonging to racial/ethnic minority groups regularly being offered lower wages than the wages offered to White applicants for the same job. This is an example of: A. intrapersonal racism. B. interpersonal racism. C. institutional racism. D. structural racism.

Answer 27

Answer C is correct. Institutional racism refers to covert and overt policies, procedures, and operations of public or private institutions, organizations, and companies that disadvantage members of racial/ethnic minority groups. Structural racism (answer D) is embedded in systems and structures (e.g., laws, rules, ideologies, societal norms) that create and perpetuate inequities for members of racial/ethnic minority groups.

Question 28

Studies confirming the predictions of the overjustification effect also provide evidence for which of the following? A. cognitive dissonance theory B. theory of planned behavior C. balance theory D. self-perception theory

Answer 28

Answer D is correct. According to Bem’s (1972) self-perception theory, people learn about themselves in the same way they learn about other people – i.e., by observing their behaviors and the circumstances in which those behaviors occur. Evidence for self-perception theory is provided by studies confirming the overjustification effect. It predicts that, when people are externally reinforced for engaging in an intrinsically rewarding behavior, they’ll think they are performing the behavior because of the external rewards, which will cause their intrinsic motivation to decline. In other words, as predicted by self-perception theory, they will look at the external circumstances to understand their own behaviors.

Question 29

Which of the following is the least accurate description of mentoring in organizations? A. Mentors focus on the career and professional development (versus the performance) of mentees. B. The mentor-mentee relationship is often long-term, and the outcomes of the relationship may change over time. C. Mentors identify the agenda for the nature and goals of their relationships with mentees. D. Mentor-mentee meetings are usually informal and take place when the mentee needs support or guidance.

Answer 29

Answer C is correct. Answers A, B, and D accurately describe mentoring, while answer C is more characteristic of coaching: A coach and employee co-determine the agenda for their relationship, while a mentee sets the mentoring agenda and the mentor supports that agenda.

Question 30

A disadvantage of empirically derived biodata forms is that they: A. are susceptible to rater biases. B. are difficult to score. C. may contain items that lack face validity. D. have low validity for skilled and unskilled jobs.

Answer 30

Answer C is correct. A disadvantage of empirically derived biodata forms is that, while they contain items that have been found to predict job performance, some items may lack face validity – i.e., they may not “look like” they are related to job performance. Consequently, job applicants may feel that biodata forms request irrelevant information and are an invasion of privacy. Empirically derived biodata forms are not susceptible to rater biases (answer A), they are not difficult to score (answer B) because items are presented in a multiple-choice format or other format that is easy to score, and they have been found to be valid predictors of performance for a variety of jobs, ranging from unskilled jobs to managerial- and executive-level jobs (answer D)

Question 32

When obtaining a high score on one or more predictors cannot compensate for a low score on another predictor, the best technique for making a hiring decision on the basis of multiple predictors is which of the following? A. multiple cutoff B. multiple regression C. multiple baseline D. multiple correlation

Answer 32

Answer A is correct. Multiple cutoff is a noncompensatory technique that requires a job applicant to obtain a score that’s above the cutoff on each predictor to be considered for the job.

Question 34

Components of a program logic model ordinarily include all of the following except: A. resources. B. solutions. C. activities. D. outputs.

Answer 34

Answer B is correct. A program logic model is a visual representation of a program’s components and is used to assist with the development, implementation, and evaluation of the program. Although the components may vary, resources, activities, and outputs are common components. Solutions is not identified in the literature as a component of logic models.

Question 36

Of the types of organizational commitment, which is the best predictor of a variety of job outcomes? A. normative B. affective C. continuance D. structural

Answer 36

Answer B is correct. Of the three main types of organizational commitment (normative, affective, and continuance), affective commitment most highly and consistently correlates with various job outcomes.

Question 37

A supervisor tells you that the low job motivation of one of her newly hired supervisees is affecting his job performance, and she asks your advice about the best management style when working with him. As an advocate of ______________, you question the supervisor about some of the characteristics of the supervisee and his job tasks and, based on her answers, recommend that she adopt a supportive style with this supervisee. A. Fiedler’s contingency theory B. Dansereau, Graen, and Haga’s (1975) leader-member exchange theory C. House’s path-goal theory D. Vroom-Yetton-Jago’s leadership model

Answer 37

Answer C is correct. According to House’s (1971) path-goal theory, an effective leader adopts the style 1. Directive, 2. Achievement-oriented, 3. Supportive, or 4. Participative that best fits certain characteristics of the employee and the employee’s tasks.

Question 38

When conducting a(n) ___________, an organizational psychologist would assign points to a job’s compensable factors. A. job evaluation B. job analysis C. organizational analysis D. needs analysis

Answer 38

Answer A is correct. The point system is a commonly used method of job evaluation. It involves determining the monetary value of a job by assigning points to the job’s compensable factors (e.g., effort, skill, responsibility, work conditions); summing the points to derive a total score; and using the total score to determine the appropriate compensation for the job.

Question 39

A problem with the forced distribution method of performance assessment is that: A. the scoring and interpretation of the performance categories are complicated and time-consuming. B. the prespecified performance categories may not match the actual performance of employees. C. it provides information on extreme (rather than typical) job-related behaviors. D. it’s very susceptible to central tendency, leniency, and strictness rater biases.

Answer 39

Answer B is correct. The forced distribution method requires the rater to assign a certain percent of employees to prespecified performance categories for each performance dimension. It helps alleviate rater biases, but it provides inaccurate information when the performance of the employees does not match those categories.

Question 40

Of the Big Five personality traits, _______________ have been found to be most predictive of leader effectiveness. A. openness and conscientiousness B. extraversion and conscientiousness C. agreeableness and emotional stability D. openness and dependability

Answer 40

Answer B is correct. In their meta-analysis of the research, Judge, Bono, Ilies, and Gerehardt (2002) found that, of the Big Five personality traits, extraversion and conscientiousness had the largest correlation coefficients with measures of leader effectiveness (.31 and .28, respectively).

Question 47

An organizational psychologist is hired by the owner of Best Plumbing Supply to determine why so many of her employees seem to have low levels of job motivation and satisfaction. The owner says she recently gave employees salary increases and bonuses for outstanding performance, but this did not have a noticeable effect. Being familiar with ____________, the psychologist will most likely tell the owner that, to increase motivation and satisfaction, she should redesign the employees’ jobs so they provide opportunities for autonomy, responsibility, and advancement. A. two-factor theory B. equity theory C. goal-setting theory D. situational leadership theory

Answer 47

Answer A is correct. The psychologist’s recommendation is most consistent with Herzberg’s (1966) two-factor theory which predicts (a) that hygiene factors (e.g., pay, benefits, and work conditions) cause dissatisfaction when they’re inadequate but do not contribute to satisfaction or motivation when they’re adequate and (b) that motivator factors (e.g., opportunities for autonomy, responsibility, and advancement) do not cause dissatisfaction when they’re inadequate but contribute to satisfaction and motivation when they’re adequate.

Question 48

The organizational development technique known as survey feedback involves obtaining information on which of the following? A. employee attitudes and opinions about important aspects of work B. “critical incidents” associated with safety and productivity problems C. employee skill deficiencies that would benefit from training D. the impact of work-family conflicts on employee productivity and satisfaction

Answer 48

Answer A is correct. Data collection is the initial step in survey feedback and involves having employees at all levels of the organization complete surveys that are used to obtain information on their attitudes, opinions, and perceptions related to work conditions, supervision, company policies, and other important issues.

Question 49

To use the Taylor-Russell tables to estimate a predictor’s incremental validity, you need to know the predictor’s criterion-related validity coefficient and which of the following? A. selection ratio and base rate B. selection ratio and number of job openings C. base rate and positive hit rate D. number of job openings and positive hit rate

Answer 49

Answer A is correct. The Taylor-Russell tables are used to obtain an estimate of the percent of future employees who will be successful on the job when an employer adds the new predictor to the current selection procedure. To use the Taylor-Russell tables, you need to know the predictor’s criterion-related validity coefficient, the selection ratio, and the base rate.

Question 50

An advocate of leader-member exchange theory is most likely to agree that: A. leaders have qualitatively different relationships with in-group and out-group subordinates. B. leaders have qualitatively different relationships with introverted and extraverted coworkers. C. leaders are most effective when they combine a high degree of consideration with a high degree of initiating structure. D. leaders are most effective when they tailor rewards and other outcomes to each worker’s needs.

Answer 50

Answer A is correct. Dansereau, Graen, and Haga’s (1975) leader-member exchange theory is based on the assumption that leader effectiveness and subordinate outcomes are determined by the nature of the interactions between the leader and the subordinate. It proposes that subordinates are treated as in-group or out-group members based on whether or not the leader perceives them as being 1. competent, 2. trustworthy, and 3. willing to assume responsibility.

Question 51

An employer is concerned about the low motivation of many of her employees and decides to interview them to obtain information on how to alleviate this problem. Being familiar with Vroom’s (1964) expectancy theory, the employer will ask employees about all of the following except: A. expectancy. B. instrumentality. C. commitment. D. valence.

Answer 51

Answer C is correct. Knowing that expectancy theory is also known as **VIE theory** would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question: “V” refers to valence, “I” to instrumentality, and “E” to expectancy.

Question 52

____________ was used to develop the Occupational Scales of the Strong Interest Inventory, which means that items included in the scale distinguished between people in the different occupational groups and “people-in-general.” A. Rational keying B. Theoretical keying C. Empirical criterion keying D. Homogeneous keying

Answer 52

Answer C is correct. As its name suggests, empirical criterion keying involves including items in a scale or test that distinguish between criterion groups. For the Occupational Scales of the Strong Interest Inventory, the criterion groups were people in the different occupational groups and a group consisting of “people-in-general.”

Question 53

You would use the Position Analysis Questionnaire to: A. evaluate the effects of a training program. B. identify the “position power” of managerial-level employees. C. conduct a worker-oriented job analysis. D. conduct an organizational analysis.

Answer 53

Answer C is correct. The Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) is a worker-oriented job analysis questionnaire that addresses six categories of work activity: information input, mental processes, work output, relationships with other people, job context, and other characteristics.

Question 54

Dr. Miller is hired by an insurance company to develop a performance appraisal measure for salespeople. She’s most likely to recommend that the company use a relative measure (as opposed to a Likert-type rating scale) because relative measures: A. are more acceptable to both raters and rates. B. allow the rater to focus on typical (rather than maximum) performance. C. are less susceptible to some rater biases. D. provide more useful information for employee feedback.

Answer 54

Answer C is correct. An advantage of relative job performance measures is that they reduce leniency, strictness, and central tendency rater biases.

Question 55

The questions included in ____________ ask experienced job applicants to describe how they handled specific job-related situations in the past. A. a situational interview B. a behavioral interview C. a case interview D. an informational interview

Answer 55

Answer B is correct. Behavioral interviews are based on the assumption that past behavior is the best predictor of future behavior. When conducting a behavioral interview, the interviewer asks job applicants with previous job experience how they responded to specific job-related situations in the past.

Question 56

Dr. Dennis, an organizational psychologist, is hired by a company to develop and validate a new selection test for customer service representatives. When she conducts a concurrent validity study on the test she develops, Dr. Dennis finds that it has a validity coefficient of .65 for men and a validity coefficient of .20 for women. This suggests that the test has: A. differential validity for men and women. B. divergent validity for men and women. C. differential selection for men and women. D. inadequate validity for both men and women.

Answer 56

Answer A is correct. A selection test or other employment procedure has differential validity when it has **significantly different validity coefficients for members of different groups**. Differential validity is a** potential cause of adverse impact.**

Question 57

Tiedeman’s career decision-making model links vocational identity development to: A. cognitive maturation. B. ego identity development. C. career maturity. D. life roles.

Answer 57

Answer B is correct. Tiedeman’s (Miller-Tiedeman & Tiedeman, 1990; Tiedeman & O’Hara, 1963) career decision-making model views vocational identity development as an ongoing decision-making process that’s linked to Erikson’s stages of ego identity development.

Question 58

Before using a selection test to estimate how well job applicants will do on a measure of job performance on their first few days of work, you would want to make sure the selection test has adequate: A. concurrent validity. B. predictive validity. C. differential validity. D. construct validity.

Answer 58

Answer B is correct. Evaluating a predictor’s criterion-related validity is important when scores on the predictor will be used to estimate scores on a criterion. There are two types of criterion-related validity: **Concurrent validity** is most important when predictor scores will be used to estimate **current scores** on the criterion. **Predictive validity** is most important when predictor scores will be used to estimate** future scores** on the criterion, which is the situation described in this question.

Question 59

According to Fiedler’s (1967) contingency theory, a low LPC leader is most effective in: A. moderately favorable situations. B. very unfavorable situations. C. very favorable situations. D. very unfavorable and very favorable situations.

Answer 59

Answer D is correct. According to Fiedler, low LPC leaders are most effective in very unfavorable and very favorable situations, while high LPC leaders are most effective in moderately favorable situations.

Question 60

Organizational analysis, task analysis, person analysis, and demographic analysis are components of which of the following? A. work-oriented job analysis B. worker-oriented job analysis C. job evaluation D. needs analysis

Answer 60

Answer D is correct. A needs analysis is conducted to identify training needs and often includes an organizational analysis, task analysis, person analysis, and demographic analysis.

Question 61

Dr. Frank, an organizational psychologist, is hired by a company to develop new performance appraisal measures for maintenance technicians. Dr. Frank’s initial step in developing these measures will be to conduct a: A. person analysis. B. needs analysis. C. job analysis. D. job evaluation.

Answer 61

Answer C is correct. The first step in developing a new performance appraisal measure is to conduct a job analysis to identify the knowledge and skills that are required to perform the job successfully.

Question 62

A psychologist is developing a selection test for a large manufacturing company that will be used to predict the job performance ratings of maintenance technicians six months after they’re hired. The test developer will be most interested in ensuring that the test has adequate: A. convergent validity. B. content validity. C. construct validity. D. criterion-related validity.

Answer 62

Answer D is correct. Criterion-related validity refers to the degree to which scores on the predictor (selection test) correlate with scores on a criterion (measure of job performance). Before using a predictor to estimate scores on a criterion, it’s important to determine if the predictor has adequate criterion-related validity.

Question 63

Members of quality circles (QCs): A. use statistical analysis, project management, and problem-solving methods to reduce the defect rate of products. B. provide management with recommendations for resolving the work-related problems they’ve identified. C. have total control over their own work, including task assignments and methods, work schedules, employee selection and training, and performance appraisal. D. identify the unique and best aspects of the organization and generate ideas about how to build on them.

Answer 63

Answer B is correct. Quality circles are small groups of employees who volunteer to meet regularly to identify problems and methods for resolving them. The employees then provide management with recommendations for alleviating the identified problems.

Question 64

As described by Janis (1982), groupthink is most likely to occur in: A. highly cohesive groups that have a strong directive leader. B. heterogeneous groups that have a transformational leader. C. highly cohesive groups that have a laissez faire leader. D. autonomous groups that don’t have a designated leader.

Answer 64

Answer A is correct. Janis identified a high degree of group cohesiveness and a strong directive leader as two of the conditions that increase the risk for groupthink.

Question 65

Violation of the psychological contract between employees and their employers has been identified as a contributor to: A. work-family conflict. B. job burnout. C. low organization-based self-esteem. D. downsizing survivor syndrome.

Answer 65

Answer D is correct. Downsizing survivor syndrome has been attributed to a sense of unfairness and reduction in trust caused by the organization’s violation of the psychological contract – i.e., of the unwritten expectations that employees and employers have about their responsibilities and obligations to each other.

Question 66

The job characteristics model (Hackman & Oldham, 1980) identifies five core job dimensions that affect worker motivation, satisfaction, and performance. Which of the following is NOT one of these dimensions? A. feedback B. task identity C. autonomy D. work engagement

Answer 66

Answer D is correct. The five core job dimensions identified by the job characteristics model are Acronym - STTAF 1. skill variety, 2. task identity, 3. task significance, 4. autonomy, and 5. feedback.

Question 67

Research investigating the outcomes of the compressed workweek has found that it: A. has a strong positive effect on job productivity, satisfaction, and absenteeism. B. has a strong positive effect on job productivity and absenteeism but a weaker effect on job satisfaction. C. has a strong positive effect on job satisfaction, a weaker positive effect on job productivity, and an unclear effect on absenteeism. D. has a strong positive effect on job productivity, a weaker positive effect on job satisfaction, and an unclear effect on absenteeism.

Answer 67

Answer C is correct. The research results are not entirely consistent, but the best conclusion is that the compressed workweek has a strong positive effect on job satisfaction, a positive but weaker effect on job productivity, and unclear effects on absenteeism.

Question 68

A group leader familiar with Janis’s groupthink is most likely to describe a “mindguard” as: A. a critical evaluator. B. the group placater. C. an information filter. D. an authentic dissenter.

Answer 68

Answer C is correct. As described by Janis (1982), self-appointed mindguards shield group members from disconfirming or problematic information that might have an adverse effect on the group’s cohesiveness. In other words, they act as an information filter.

Question 69

You have developed a new selection test for your client, the Acme Company, to help the company make better hiring decisions. After administering the test to samples of job applicants and current employees, you decide to raise the test’s cutoff score. Doing so will have which of the following effects? A. It will increase the number of false negatives and true positives. B. It will decrease the number of false negatives and false positives. C. It will increase the number of true positives and decrease the number of false negatives. D. It will decrease the number of false positives and increase the number of true negatives.

Answer 69

Answer D is correct. This is a difficult question and, to identify the correct answer, you need to know that raising the predictor (selection test) cutoff score will result in fewer applicants being hired. This decreases the number of true and false positives (which eliminates answers A and C) and increases the number of true and false negatives (which eliminates answer B).

Question 70

Fiedler’s contingency model proposes that the optimal leadership style depends on which of the following? A. the employee’s work-related level of motivation and ability to perform the job B. the levels of skill variety, autonomy, and feedback provided by the job C. the leader’s expertise, the employees’ expertise, and the importance of the employees’ commitment to the chosen course of action D. the leader’s position power, the nature of the relationships between the leader and the employees, and the task structure

Answer 70

Answer D is correct. As described by Fiedler, the optimal leadership style depends on the favorableness of the situation, which refers to the degree of influence a leader has over subordinates. Favorableness is affected by three factors – leader member relations (good or poor), task structure (structured or unstructured), and the leader’s position power (strong or weak). here are two kinds of leaders in Fiedler’s Contingency Model: Task-oriented leaders and relationship-oriented leaders. To determine your leadership style, the Fiedler model measures leadership on the Least-Preferred Co-Worker (LPC) scale. On this scale, you rate your feelings about the co-worker you least preferred to work with. If you get a high score on the LPC, you’re a relationship-oriented leader; if you get a low score on the LPC, you’re a task-oriented leader; and if you’re somewhere in between you’re a mix of both styles.

Question 71

A newly promoted manager tells you that most of the employees he manages have high levels of motivation but limited skills, and he asks your advice about the best management style in this situation. As an advocate of ______________, you recommend that he adopt a selling leadership style. A. Fiedler’s contingency theory B. Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership theory C. House’s path-goal theory D. Vroom-Yetton-Jago’s leadership model

Answer 71

Answer B is correct. Hersey and Blanchard’s (1988) situational leadership theory distinguishes between four leadership styles (telling, selling, participating, delegating) and proposes that the best style depends on a worker’s motivation and ability.

Question 72

A problem with the paired comparison method of performance assessment is that it: A. focuses on what employees are likely to do rather than what they’ve actually done. B. focuses on extreme (rather than typical) job-related behaviors. C. is susceptible to the social desirability bias. D. is time-consuming to use when there are many employees to rate.

Answer 72

Answer D is correct. The paired comparison technique requires the rater to compare each employee to all other employees in pairs on each dimension of job performance. A disadvantage of this technique is that it can be very time-consuming to use when there are many employees to rate.

Question 73

One of the questions included in a survey asks employees to rate the fairness of the outcomes of a recent organizational decision regarding raises and bonuses. This question assesses employees’ perceptions of which of the following? A. distributive justice B. procedural justice C. normative justice D. interactional justice

Answer 73

Answer A is correct. Distributive justice refers to the fairness of the distribution of resources and other outcomes.

Question 74

At a “big box” home improvement store, use of a newly developed selection procedure results in a hiring rate for male salespeople of 50%. In this situation, to be consistent with the 80% (four-fifths) rule, the minimum hiring rate for female salespeople when using this procedure should be _____%. A. 20 B. 40 C. 60 D. 80

Answer 74

Answer B is correct. When using the 80% rule, adverse impact is occurring when the hiring rate for a legally protected group is less than 80% of the hiring rate for the majority group. When the hiring rate for male applicants is 50%, the minimum hiring rate for female applicants is 40% (.50 times .80 = .40).

Question 75

When considering the optimal method of training, you would most likely choose vestibule training because: A. it's less costly than off-the-job training. B. it's useful for teaching higher-order cognitive skills. C. it's less dangerous than on-the-job training. D. it allows training to be self-administered.

Answer 75

Answer C is correct. Vestibule training is a type of off-the-job training that allows trainees to acquire skills using the actual machinery or equipment they’ll use on-the-job. It’s useful when on-the-job training would be too dangerous.

Question 77

The Position Analysis Questionnaire is: A. a structured questionnaire that provides the information needed to compare worker activities for different jobs. B. a structured questionnaire that provides the information needed to identify worker behaviors associated with very successful and very unsuccessful performance for a particular job. C. an open-ended questionnaire that provides the information needed to compare worker activities for different jobs. D. an open-ended questionnaire that provides the information needed to identify worker behaviors associated with very successful and very unsuccessful performance for a particular job.

Answer 77

Answer A is correct. The Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) is a structured worker-oriented job analysis questionnaire that addresses six categories of work activity: 1. information input, 2. mental processes, 3. work output, 4. relationships with other people, 5. job context, and 6. other characteristics. Because these **activities are general**, the PAQ **can be used for a variety of jobs**, and it allows an employer to compare activities across different jobs.

Question 78

Comparable worth procedures are useful for: A. establishing pay equivalencies for the same jobs performed by men and women. B. establishing pay equivalencies for different jobs performed primarily by men or women. C. reducing gender-related discrimination in hiring and promotion decisions. D. identifying the causes of gender-related discrimination within an organization.

Answer 78

Answer B is correct. Comparable worth is the principle that workers performing different jobs that require the same skills and responsibilities or that are of comparable value to the employer should be paid the same and has been applied primarily to the gender gap in wages. Comparable worth procedures are often used to establish pay equity across different jobs that require similar abilities but have traditionally been performed by men or by women.

Question 79

In the context of Dawis and Lofquist’s (1984) theory of work adjustment, a worker’s job satisfaction is determined by the correspondence between the worker’s: A. interests and the characteristics of the job. B. vocational identity and ego identity. C. needs and the reinforcers provided by the job. D. skills and the skill requirements of the job.

Answer 79

Answer C is correct. Dawis and Lofquist distinguish between satisfaction and satisfactoriness. Satisfaction refers to the employee’s satisfaction with the job and is affected by the match between the employee’s needs and the reinforcers provided by the job. Satisfactoriness refers to the employer’s satisfaction with the employee and is affected by how well the employee’s skills match the skill requirements of the job.

Question 80

Studies conducted at Ohio State University in the 1950s found that leader behaviors can be described in terms of two independent dimensions which the researchers named: A. transformational and transactional. B. directive and delegative. C. high LPC and low LPC. D. initiating structure and consideration.

Answer 80

Answer D is correct. Ohio State University researchers found that leader behaviors represent two independent dimensions: Leaders high in initiating structure are task-oriented and focus on achieving performance goals, while leaders high in consideration are person-oriented and focus on fostering the trust and respect of subordinates.

Question 81

A primary focus of process consultation is determining: A. the best way to redesign jobs so they provide employees with more responsibility, challenge, and opportunities for advancement. B. the best way to select and train employees so they can perform their jobs in the most efficient ways. C. how groups of employees discuss problems, make decisions, and achieve work-related goals. D. how employee attitudes and perceptions affect individual and organizational effectiveness.

Answer 81

Answer C is correct. As its name suggests, process consultation focuses on clarifying and, when appropriate, modifying group processes – e.g., how group members communicate, diagnose and resolve problems, and make decisions.

Question 82

An advocate of __________ is most likely to agree that time-and-motion studies are an effective way to identify the best way to perform a job. A. Katz and Kahn’s open-system theory B. Taylor’s scientific management C. McGregor’s Theory X D. Herzberg’s two-factor theory

Answer 82

Answer B is correct. Taylor (1911), the founder of scientific management, identified several management practices that he believed would maximize organizational efficiency and productivity. One of these is using scientific methods (e.g., time-and-motion studies) to determine the best way to do a job.

Question 83

One of the questions included in a survey asks employees to rate the degree to which the processes used by the company to make decisions about employee raises, bonuses, and promotions are fair. This question assesses employees’ perceptions about which of the following? A. distributive justice B. procedural justice C. normative justice D. interactional justice

Answer 83

Answer B is correct. A distinction is made between three types of organizational justice: distributive, procedural, and interactional. Procedural justice refers to the fairness of the procedures and processes used to determine outcomes.

Question 84

An essential focus of total quality management (TQM) is on: A. employee involvement. B. leadership effectiveness. C. return on investment. D. organizational structure.

Answer 84

Answer A is correct. The primary emphases of TQM are continuous improvement, total employee involvement, customer satisfaction, and data-driven decision-making.

Question 85

According to Kirkpatrick’s (1998) evaluation model, ___________ criteria provide the least valuable information about the effects of a training program. A. results B. behavior C. reaction D. learning

Answer 85

Answer C is correct. Kirkpatrick’s evaluation model distinguishes between four levels of training program evaluation that can be arranged in order from least to most informative: 1. reaction criteria, 2. learning criteria, 3. behavior criteria, and 4. results criteria.

Question 86

Which of the following is NOT an example of a technostructural intervention? A. business process reengineering B. process consultation C. job enrichment D. alternative work schedules

Answer 86

Answer B is correct. Technostructural interventions focus on an organization’s technology or structure and include business process reengineering, downsizing, job enrichment, and alternative work schedules.

Question 87

Linking the requirements for successful job performance to organizational values, goals, and strategies is characteristic of which of the following? A. job evaluation B. job analysis C. competency modeling D. performance feedback

Answer 87

Answer C is correct. Competency modeling is similar to job analysis but focuses on the core competencies that are required to successfully perform all jobs or a subset of jobs within an organization and are linked to the organization’s values, goals, and strategies.

Question 88

Longitudinal research has found that the job satisfaction of individuals is: A. stable over time only for those who stay in the same job. B. stable over time only for those who stay in the same job or career. C. stable over time and across jobs and careers. D. unstable over time regardless of job or career stability.

Answer 88

Answer C is correct. The research has found that a person’s level of job satisfaction tends to be the same over time even when he/she changes jobs and careers (e.g., Staw, Bell, & Clausen, 1986).