Exam 3 Flashcards
Practitioners of Milan systemic family therapy would be least likely to use which of the following techniques?
A. circular questions
B. hypothesizing
C. fixed-role therapy
D. positive connotation
Answer C is correct. Of the techniques listed in the answers, only fixed-role therapy is not associated with Milan systemic therapy. It’s used by practitioners of Kelly’s personal construct therapy and involves having clients adopt roles that will let them “try out” personal constructs that differ from their own.
Antisocial and histrionic personality disorders share several characteristics. In contrast to antisocial personality disorder, however, histrionic personality disorder is characterized by which of the following?
A. superficiality
B. manipulativeness
C. exaggerated expression of emotions
D. feelings of deep emptiness
Answer C is correct. The DSM-5 notes that antisocial and histrionic personality disorders share several characteristics including impulsivity, superficiality, and manipulativeness; however, people with histrionic personality disorder “tend to be more exaggerated in their emotions and do not characteristically engage in antisocial behaviors” (p. 669). In addition, people with histrionic personality disorder are manipulative in order to gain nurturance, while those with antisocial personality disorder are manipulative in order to gain power or material rewards.
According to Moffitt (2003), the life-course persistent type of antisocial behavior is due to which of the following?
A. a maturity gap
B. behavioral disinhibition
C. a lack of conscience and empathy
D. neurological deficits
nswer D is correct. Moffitt distinguishes between two types of antisocial behavior. The life-course persistent type is more serious and is the result of a combination of inherited or acquired neurological deficits and environmental risks, while the adolescence-limited type is due to a maturity gap, which is a gap between an adolescent’s biological and social maturity. See, e.g., T. E. Moffitt, Life-course persistent and adolescence-limited antisocial behavior: A 10-year research review and research agenda, in B. B. Lahey, T. E. Moffitt, and A. Caspi (Eds.), Causes of conduct disorder and juvenile delinquency (pp. 49-75), New York, Guilford Press, 2003.
All other things being equal, which of the following tests is likely to have the lowest reliability coefficient?
A. a three-alternative multiple-choice test
B. a four-alternative multiple-choice test
C. a true/false test
D. a fill-in-the-blanks test
Answer C is correct. A test’s reliability is affected by a number of factors including the chance that test questions can be answered correctly by guessing: As the probability of choosing the correct answer by guessing increases, the reliability of the test decreases. For this reason, true/false tests are less reliable than three-item and four-item multiple-choice tests which, in turn are less reliable than a fill-in-the-blanks test.
Which of the following is used to determine a test’s internal consistency reliability?
A. kappa statistic
B. coefficient alpha
C. coefficient of concordance
D. eta
Answer B is correct. A test’s internal consistency reliability can be evaluated in several ways including with the use of coefficient alpha, which is also known as Cronbach’s alpha and indicates the average of the correlations between responses to all possible pairs of test items. The kappa statistic and coefficient of concordance are used to assess interrater reliability, and eta is a correlation coefficient that’s used to measure the degree of association between two continuous variables that have a nonlinear relationship.
Driver and Brousseau’s career concept model distinguishes between four career concepts. These include all of the following except:
A. linear.
B. transitory.
C. circular.
D. expert.
Answer C is correct. The four career concepts identified by Driver and Brousseau’s (Brousseau, Driver, Eneroth, & Larsson, 1996) career concept model are linear, expert, spiral, and transitory.
Implosive therapy uses which of the following to eliminate a fear response to an object or situation?
A. classical extinction
B. counterconditioning
C. stimulus control
D. higher-order conditioning
Answer A is correct. Implosive therapy is based on the assumption that the object or situation that elicits a fear response is a conditioned stimulus and presenting the object or event without the unconditioned stimulus results in extinction of the conditioned (fear) response.
A rat is reinforced with a food pellet whenever it presses Bar A or presses Bar B. If reinforcement is stopped for pressing Bar B, the rat will:
A. continue to press Bar A and Bar B with the same frequency.
B. press both Bar A and Bar B with less frequency.
C. press Bar A with the same frequency and Bar B with less frequency.
D. press Bar A with greater frequency and Bar B with less frequency.
Answer D is correct. This question is asking about behavioral contrast, which occurs when two behaviors are reinforced and reinforcement for one behavior is stopped. In this situation, the behavior that’s still being reinforced increases in frequency, while the behavior that’s no longer being reinforced decreases.
When designing a research study, you would use the double-blind technique to reduce which of the following?
A. experimenter expectancy
B. carryover effects
C. pretest sensitization
D. false consensus effect
Answer A is correct. When using the single-blind technique, subjects do not know which groups they are in (e.g., drug or placebo); when using the double-blind technique, subjects and experimenters do not know what groups subjects are in. An advantage of the double-blind technique is that it reduces experimenter expectancy, which is also known as experimenter bias and refers to the effects of the experimenter’s knowledge about the purpose of the study on the study’s outcomes. Neither the single-blind nor the double-blind technique are useful for controlling carryover effects or pretest sensitization which are threats to a study’s external and internal validity, respectively. The false consensus effect is not relevant to internal or external validity and is the tendency to overestimate the extent to which other people share our opinions, values, and beliefs
Most babies exhibit a “vocabulary spurt” at about ___ months of age when they use about 50 words and thereafter acquire additional words very quickly.
A. 7
B. 12
C. 18
D. 26
Answer C is correct. The vocabulary spurt is also known as the vocabulary explosion and, for most babies, begins when they’ve mastered about 50 words which is usually around 18 months of age. See, e.g., D. W. Carroll, Psychology of language (5th ed.), Belmont, CA, Wadsworth, 2008.
Which of the following produces the most rapidly progressing neurocognitive disorder?
A. Alzheimer’s disease
B. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
C. Lewy body disease
D. frontotemporal lobar degeneration
Answer B is correct. Neurocognitive disorder due to Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is categorized in DSM-5 as neurocognitive disorder due to prion disease and, like other prion diseases, typically progresses very rapidly. Most other types of neurocognitive disorders (including the three listed in the wrong answers to this question) have a gradual worsening of symptoms.
The human brain is about 25% of its adult size and weight at birth, but it grows quickly and is at least 75% of its adult size and weight by _____ of age.
A. six months
B. 12 months
C. 24 months
D. 36 months
Answer C is correct. The brain increases in size quickly following birth due primarily to an increase in nerve fibers (dendrites and axons) and glial cells, which are responsible for the myelination of nerve fibers. It reaches at least 75% its adult size and weight by about 24 months of age.
A person experiencing tobacco withdrawal is likely to have all of the following symptoms except:
A. increased appetite.
B. anger or anxiety.
C. hypersomnia.
D. impaired concentration.
Answer C is correct. Symptoms associated with tobacco withdrawal include irritability, anger or anxiety, impaired concentration, increased appetite, restlessness, depressed mood, and insomnia.
Crick and Dodge’s (1994) social information-processing model attributes high levels of aggression in children to which of the following?
A. observational learning
B. peer pressure
C. a self-control failure
D. a hostile attribution bias
Answer D is correct. Crick and Dodge’s social information-processing model proposes that highly aggressive children are more likely than their nonaggressive peers to interpret the behaviors of others (including vague and benign behaviors) as intentionally hostile, and they refer to this tendency as a “hostile attribution bias.”
Search
Search
Home
Video Library
Strategies
Study & Quiz
Exams
Custom Exams
Coaching
Schedule
Account
History
Lectures
Practice Exam 3
Study mode
Question 103 of 225
Which of the following individuals is at greatest risk for developing tardive dyskinesia?
A. a younger adult taking a conventional antipsychotic
B. a younger adult taking an atypical antipsychotic
C. an older adult taking a conventional antipsychotic
D. an older adult taking an atypical antipsychotic
Answer C is correct. Tardive dyskinesia is caused by long-term use of an antipsychotic drug and involves repetitive involuntary movements of the tongue, face, neck, trunk, and extremities. The risk for tardive dyskinesia increases with increasing age; and, while conventional and atypical antipsychotics can both cause tardive dyskinesia, the risk is greater for conventional drugs.
