Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

complex carbohydrates

what are the 5 diffrent monosaccharides?

A

1.) gluclose
2.fructose
3.galactose
4.deoxyribose
5.ribose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

complex carbohydrates

what are monosaccharides?

A

simple suagrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

complex carbohydrates

what are disaccharides?

A

carbs formed by binding 2 monosaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

complex carbohydrates

what are the 3 common types of disaccharides?

s, l, m

A

1.) sucrose
2.lactose
3.maltose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

complex carbohydrates

what are polysaccharides?

A

carbs formed by the binding of numerous monosaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

complex carbohydrates

what are the two types of polysaccharides?

g, s

A

1.) glycogen
2.starch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

complex lipids

what is a lipid?

A

contains primarily carbon and hydrogens linked with non polar bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

lipids

what are the characteristics of a lipid?

hydrophobicity

A
  • hydrophobic
  • will not dissolve in water like carbs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

lipids

what are the 4 types of lipids?

A
  • triglyceride
  • phospholipid
  • eicosnoids
  • steroids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

lipids

what is a triglyceride?

A

contains glycerol and forms a ester bond, 3 fatty acids with hydrogen attached. they are nonpolar molecules and dont disslove in water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

lipids

what is a phospholipid?

A

contains a glycerol and 2 fatty acids and a phosphate groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

lipids

what is a eicosanoids?

tails?

A

modified 20- carbon fatty acids. they contain a 5c ring in the middle which causes the molecules to fold. it has tails?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

lipids

what is a steriod?

A

contains a three 6 carbon rings and one 5 carbon ring. most common is cholesterol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

proteins

what are protiens?

A

are chains of amino acids, held together by peptide bonds to form long polypeptides.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

protein

what do amino acids contain?

A
  • amino group
  • carboxyl group
  • carbon hydrogen bond
  • R ( residual group)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

protein

what is the diffrence between peptides and protiens?

A

peptides consits of 2-50 amino acids whole protiens contain 50+ amino avidd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

protein

what are the 4 levels of protien structure?

A
  • primary
  • secondary
  • tertiary
  • quartentary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

protein

what is a primary protien structure?

A

linear array of amino acids= fibrous proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

protein

what is a secondary protien structure?

A

folding of the primary structure due to the attraction (hydrogen bond) of a hydrogen atom in one amino acid and the oxygen in another amino acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

protein

what is a tertiary protien structure?

A

folding due to attraction between R groups ( globular protien)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

protein

what is a quartentary protien?

A

more than one polypeptides chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

DNA

what are purines?

A

two ring structure; AG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

DNA

what is pyrimidines?

A

single ring structures; uracil, thymine, and cytosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

cell structure

what are the characteristics of the nucleus?

A
  • surrounded by a 2 layered nuclear envelope, it has pores which allow for permiability
  • DNA exists as a component of thin threads called chromatin
  • nucelolus is site of RNA synthesis inside the nucleus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

cell structure

desribe the endoplasmic recticulum (RER) and what’s is function?

artist

A
  • flattened sacs connected to the nuclear envelope, and has ribsomes on the surface.
  • Involved in modification of proteins made by the ribosomes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

cell structure

desribe the Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) and its function

synthesizes

A
  • tubules without ribsomes
  • synthesizes lipids, stores calcium ions, detoxifiy substances
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

cell structure

describe the golgi appartus and its function

mailman

A
  • flattened sacs called cisternae
  • protiens from the RER are sent here, modify and package for its next destination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

cell structure

desribe the mitochondria and its function

powerhouse

A
  • bounded by a double membrane, inner membrane (cisternae) contains electron transport chain
  • responsible for the production of ATP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

cell structure

desribe lysomes and its function

trashman

A
  • single membrane
  • contains enzymes that degrade intercellular debris (old oraganelles) and damaged cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

cell structure

peroxisomes

trash boy

A
  • single membrane
  • degrade amino acids, fatty acids, and toxic materials
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

cell structure

desribe a ribsome and its function

A
  • composed of RNA and proteins
  • produces protiens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

cell structure

what are free ribsomes?

A

generates proteins which remain in the cytoplasm or enter a mitochondria

33
Q

cell structure

what is a vault?

A
  • barrel shaped structures with two identical subunits
  • appear to help with the transport of mRNA from nucleus to cytoplasm
34
Q

cell structure

what are centrioles?

A

composed of micro tubules which formed the spindle fibers of the myotic spindle which push and pull chromsomes during cell division

35
Q

cell structure

what is a cytoskeleton?

A

A flexible lattice of fibrous proteins

36
Q

Metabolic reactions

what is the definition of metabolism?

A

The sum of all reactions in the body

37
Q

Metabolic reactions

what is catabolism?

A

The breakdown of larger molecules into smaller ones to provide energy

38
Q

Metabolic reactions

what is anabolism?

production of glycogen from glucose

A

production of larger molecules from smaller ones

39
Q

Metabolic reactions

what is hydrolysis?

A

Breaking apart of molecules due to adding H2O

40
Q

Metabolic reactions

what is condensation?

A

The formation of a molecule by removing water

41
Q

phosphorylation

what is phosphorylation?

A

removal of a phosphate group

42
Q

phosphorylation

what is dephosphorylation?

A

The removal of a phosphate group

43
Q

phosphorylation

what is oxidation?

A
  • removal of electrons or hydrogen
  • reaction of molecules with oxygen
44
Q

phosphorylation

what is a reduction reaction?

A
  • adding of electrons or hydrogen
  • losing oxygen
45
Q

overall reaction

what is covalent regulation?

A

requires formation of covalent bond with a chemical group, omission and breaking of a covalent bond requires enzymes

46
Q

overall reaction

what is substrate specificity?

A

A substrate is the molecule the enzyme works only enzymes only recognize its substrate

47
Q

overall reaction

what is a cofactor?

Mg, Cu, Zn, Fe

A

an ion or molecule required by an enzyme for it to be active

48
Q

overall reaction

what is a coenzyme?

flavin adenine dinucleotide

A

vitamin derived molecules assisting enzymes by caring chemical groups from one reaction to another

49
Q

overall reaction

what is CoA?

A

picks up acetyl-groups

50
Q

overall reaction

what is allosteric regulation?

A

A modulator molecule binds to the regulating site which change the shape of the enzyme this can increase or decrease activity

51
Q

overall reaction

what is a covalent regulation?

A

changing state requires formation of a covalent bond with a Chemical group. formation and breaking down of covalent bonds requires enzymes.

52
Q

Krebs cycle

what are the stages of glucose oxidation?

g, kc, op

A

1) glycolysis
2) krebs cycle
3) oxidative phosphorylation

53
Q

Krebs cycle

where does glycolysis occur?

A

in the cytosol

54
Q

Krebs cycle

where does the Krebs cycle occur?

A

mitochondrial matrix

55
Q

Krebs cycle

where does oxidative phosphorylation occur?

A

in the inner mitochondrial membrane or cristae

56
Q

Krebs cycle

what is glycolysis?

A

process that breaks down glucose molecules and is broken down 10 steps and two pyruvate molecules

57
Q

neurophysiology

what is the difference between leak channels, ligand gated channels, and voltage gated channels?

A
  • Leak channels are always open and allow for continual ion movement
  • ligand gated channels enclosed in response to the binding of the chemical to receptor in the membrane
  • voltage gated channels and close in response to change in the membrane potential.
58
Q

neurophysiology

what is graded potential?

A

small changes in the membrane potential which occur by opening of ligand gated channels

59
Q

Krebs cycle

what does glycolysis produce?

A
  • 2 NADH+
  • ATP
  • 2 pyruvate
60
Q

Krebs cycle

what does to pyruvate produce?

A

2 Acetyl CoA

61
Q

Krebs cycle

why is acetyl CoA important?

A

if feuls the Krebs cycle

62
Q

Krebs cycle

what cycle produces 1 Aceytl CoA?

A
  • 3 NADH+ H+
  • 1 FADH2
  • ATP
63
Q

Krebs cycle

where is pyruvate produced?

A

in the cytosol the move into the mitochondria

64
Q

Krebs cycle

how much ATP does oxidative phosphorylation produce?

A

34 ATP

65
Q

Krebs cycle

what is the electron transport chain?

A

series of compounds which reside in the inner mitochondrial membrane as they reduce coenzymes from the above process

66
Q

neurophysiology

what is an absolute refractory period?

phases 1-2

A

when Na plus gates are closed and can’t be opened again for depolarization

67
Q

neurophysiology

what is resting membrane potential?

A

-70 mV

68
Q

neurophysiology

what is threshold?

A

-55 mV

69
Q

neurophysiology

what is depolarization?

phase 1

A

when member potential rises to -55 mV. Na+ VGC open Na+ listen to the cell in large amounts and memory potential goes up to 30 mV

70
Q

neurophysiology

what is the voltage difference between resting membrane potential and action potential?

A

100 mV

71
Q

what is repolarization?

phase 2

A

membrane potential reaches 30 mV Na+ channels close and potassium voltage gated channels open in potassium flows out of the cell and the membrane potential drops

72
Q

neurophysiology

what is hyperpolarization?

phase 3

A

even after membrane potential returns back to -70 mV The potassium channels stay open for 10 ms which allows the member potential to reach -94 mV

73
Q

neurophysiology

what is the relative refractory period?

phases 2-3

A

what K+ channels close but stay open for an extra 10 ms causing hyper polarization

74
Q

neurophysiology

where is action potential first generated?

A

The axon hillock

75
Q

neurophysiology

what chemical is needed for synaptic vesicles to move in fused with the axon?

A

Ca+

76
Q

neurophysiology

excitatory postsynaptic potential

EPSP

A

neurotransmitters bind and opens a Na+ channel

Na+

77
Q

what is the inhibitory postsynaptic potential?

IPSP

A

when a neurotransmitter binds and opens a potassium or Cl- a ligand gated channel.

K+ and Cl-

78
Q

what is temporal summation?

A

two or more postsynaptic potentials are generated in rapid succession at the same synapse

79
Q

what is spital summation?

A

summation based on location