Equine GI Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

A cationic polypeptide with bactericidal activity against gram (-) bacteria.

A

Polymyxin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

To which portion of the endotoxin does Polymyxin B bind?

A

Lipid A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are 2 side effects associated with Polymyxin B?

A
  1. Nephrotoxicity

2. Neurotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Is Polymyxin B bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

A

Bactericidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A synthetic xanthine derivative, phosphodiesterase inhibitor.

A

Pentoxifylline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

True or False: Polymyxin B has decreased bio-availability after repeated dosing.

A

FALSE - PENTOXIFYLLINE has decreased availability after repeated dosing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pentoxifylline suppresses TNF-alpha, ____, and ____ production.

A
  1. IL-1

2. IL-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Dimethylsulfoxide is a what?

A

Radical scavenger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Dimethysulfoxide can cause hemolysis when?

A
  1. Given too concentrated

2. Given too quickly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

True or False: All anti-endotoxic drugs are more effective if given before exposure to an endotoxin.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What type of GI drug is Bismuth subsalicylate?

A

Intestinal protectant (Pepto-bismol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What type of GI drug is Kaolin pectin?

A

Intestinal protectant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What do Bismuth subsalicylate and Kaolin pectin have in common?

A

Absorb toxins, anti-diarrheal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Activated charcoal absorbs toxins and drugs, preventing/reducing systemic absorption. You may follow administration with a laxative when?

A

30 minutes after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Medications other than activated charcoal should not be given until how long after activated charcoal administration?

A

3 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

____ and ____ decrease absorption of activated charcoal.

A
  1. Dairy products

2. Mineral oil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What type of drug is Dimethylsulfoxide?

A

Anti-endotoxic drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Di-tri-octahedral smectite is an intestinal absorbent that absorbs what 2 toxins in vitro?

A
  1. C. difficile

2. C. perfringens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are 4 indications for the use of laxatives or cathartics?

A
  1. Relive simple impactions
  2. Decrease intestinal transit time
  3. Increase stool consistency with chronic diarrhea
  4. Lubricate passage of ascarids or sand
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is magnesium sulfate (epsom salt)?

A

Laxative - Osmotically draws water into the GI lumen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Dioctyl sodium succinate?

A

Laxative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How does Dioctyl sodium succinate work?

A

Stimulates net secretion of water, Na, Cl, and K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are 3 adverse effects of Dioctyl sodium succinate?

A
  1. Abdominal discomfort
  2. Intestinal irritation
  3. Dehydration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When would you use Dioctyl sodium succinate?

A

Severe/refractory cases of impaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is mineral oil?

A

Mild laxative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How does mineral oil work?

A

Prevents the reabsorption of water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What would you use to prevent ascarid impactions in heavily infected foals at the time of deworming?

A

Mineral oil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What could develop if mineral oil is aspirated?

A

Severe granulomatous pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is psyllium?

A

Bulk forming laxative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the main use of psyllium?

A

Treatment and prevention of sand impaction

31
Q

Water can be utilized as a laxative. What is one side effect to the use of water?

A

Hyponatremia

32
Q

Caution: do not leave an indwelling nasogastric tube in place for more than ___ days.

A

2 days

33
Q

Leaving a nasogastric tube in place for more than 2 days may cause what?

A

Pharyngeal necrosis

34
Q

What is aluminum/magnesium hydroxide?

A

Anti-ulcer medication

35
Q

True or False: Aluminum/magnesium hydroxide can be used to treat gastric ulcers.

A

FALSE - aluminum/magnesium hydroxide is a preventative, but is NOT curative for gastric ulcers.

36
Q

What is cimetidine?

A

Anti-ulcer medication

37
Q

What is the MOA of cimetidine?

A

Antagonizes H2 receptors

38
Q

What is ranitidine?

A

Anti-ulcer medication

39
Q

What is the MOA of ranitidine?

A

Antagonizes H2 receptors

40
Q

True or False: Ranitidine is effective in healing gastric ulcers.

A

TRUE

41
Q

What is sucralfate?

A

Anti-ulcer medication (sulfated polysaccharide)

42
Q

Sucralfate stimulates mucus secretion and increases what?

A

PGE synthesis

43
Q

What is the MOA of omeprazole?

A

Irreversibly inhibits proton pumps (H/K ATPase pumps)

44
Q

True or False: Omeprazole can be used both curatively and as a prevention of gastric ulcers.

A

TRUE

45
Q

What is pantoprazole?

A

Anti-ulcer medication (second generation proton pump inhibitor)

46
Q

What is misoprostol?

A

Anti-ulcer medication (prostaglandin E1 analog)

47
Q

Misoprostol stimulates the production of ____ and ____.

A
  1. Mucus

2. Bicarbonate

48
Q

Misoprostol inhibits the secretion of what?

A

Gastric acid

49
Q

What are 2 adverse effects of misoprostol?

A
  1. Abdominal pain

2. Diarrhea

50
Q

What are 4 indications for prokinetics?

A
  1. Delayed gastric emptying
  2. Post-operative ileus
  3. Cecal impaction
  4. Proximal enteritis
51
Q

Lidocaine has prokinetic effects on the small intestine and ____.

A

Large colon

52
Q

What 3 effects does lidocaine have?

A
  1. Anti-inflammatory
  2. Anti-arrhythmic
  3. Analgesic
53
Q

With what 2 drugs does lidocaine interact?

A
  1. Cimetidine

2. Metronidazole

54
Q

Lidocaine is beneficial in the treatment of proximal enteritis and what?

A

Post-operative ileus

55
Q

What are 4 toxic effects of lidocaine?

A
  1. Muscle fasciculations
  2. Ataxia
  3. Collapse
  4. Seizures
56
Q

What is erythromycin lactobionate?

A

Prokinetic (motilin receptor agonist)

57
Q

Which parts of the bowel will erythromycin lactobionate work on?

A
  1. Stomach
  2. Ileum
  3. Cecum
  4. Pelvic flexure
58
Q

What are 2 side effects of erythromycin lactobionate?

A
  1. Abdominal pain

2. Diarrhea

59
Q

What is the name of the chemical that makes up cisapride?

A

Benzamide

60
Q

What is the MOA of cisapride?

A

Increases acetylcholine release at myenteric plexus, promoting generalized increase in motility

61
Q

What type of prokinetic is bethanechol chloride?

A

Synthetic muscarinic cholinergic agonist

62
Q

What would an overdose of betansechol chloride case?

A
  1. Salivation
  2. Lacrimation
  3. Urination
  4. Defecation

(SLUD)

63
Q

What type of prokinetic is neostigmine methylsulfate?

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

64
Q

What is butylscopolammonium bromide?

A

Antispasmodic

65
Q

What is one side effect of butylscopolammonium bromide?

A

Tachycardia

66
Q

What type of antispasmodic is butylscopolammonium bromide?

A

Anticholinergic

67
Q

Metronidazole is used to treat ____ in neonatal foals.

A

Clostridium perfringens

68
Q

Metronidazole is used to treat ____ in foals and adults.

A

Clostridium difficile

69
Q

What are 2 indications for the use of macrolide antibiotics in the horse?

A
  1. Proliferative enteropathy (Lawsonia intracellularis)

2. Pyogranulomatous enterocolitis (Rhodococcus equi)

70
Q

Name 3 macrolide antibiotics.

A
  1. Clarithromycin
  2. Azithromycin
  3. Erythromycin
71
Q

What would you use for the treatment of Lawsonia intracellularis in animals that develop diarrhea on macrolides?

A

Chloramphenicol

72
Q

What is indicated for the treatment of Potomac Horse Fever (Neorickettsia risticii)?

A

Oxytetracycline

73
Q

What is the one adverse effect associated with oxytetracycline?

A

Nephrotoxicity