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Medicine Extras > Eponyms > Flashcards

Eponyms Flashcards

1
Q

Hodgkin’s ______ ?

A

Lymphoma
-Lymphoma with Reed-Sternberg cells.

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2
Q

Philadelphia ______?

A

Chromosome

-Chromosome abnormality (Cr22) present in >80% of people with CML.

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3
Q

Rouleaux _____ ?

A

Formation

-RBCs stacked together: Occurs when there is a high serum plasma protein.
-E.g., in multiple myeloma due to gammopathy.

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4
Q

Mantoux _____ _____ ______ ?

A

Tuberculin Skin Test.

-Test to see whether a patient has had a previous tuberculosis infection.

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5
Q

Gilbert’s ______ ?

A

Disease.
-Unconjugated cause of Jaundice
-Fairly benign

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6
Q

Crohn’s ____?

A

Disease:
-Granulomatous
-Skip lesions
-Can affect from mouth to anus
-Full wall-thickness of inflammation
-Cobblestones + Fibrotic mucosa
-Can cause obstruction

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7
Q

Hirschsprung’s _____?

A

Disease:
-Ganglion cells don’t exist all the way round and don’t contract the bowel: Blockage.
-Grossly dilated colon

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8
Q

Budd-Chiari ____ ?

A

Syndrome:
-Vascular disease- Occlusion of hepatic veins.
-Post-Hepatic cause of portal hypertension.

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9
Q

Rawlins-Thompson _____ ?

A

System (for adverse drug reactions).
A: Augmented - Predictable/dose-related.
B: Bizzare - Unpredictable reaction
C: Chronic - Occurs after long term therapy.
D: Delayed - Occurs many years after treatment.
E: End of use - Withdrawal to long term use.

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10
Q

Wernicke’s Encephalopathy?

A

(Due to thiamine deficiency)
-Ataxia
-Opthalamoplegia
-Confusion
Commonly associated with alcohol dependence

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11
Q

Wernicke’s Area?

A

Point in the brain for understanding speech.
-Lesion = sensory aphasia

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12
Q

Duke’s ______ ?

A

Score/Criteria for infective endocarditis
-Pathological Lesions
-Microbes in vegetation
-Blood cultures positive
-Evidence of endocardial involvement
-Fever (min)
-Previous endocardial injury

**ALSO Duke’s Staging
-For colorectal cancer
-A - within submucosa
-B1 - not through bowel wall
-B2 - through bowel wall
-C1 - not through bowel wall, but lymph node metastases
-C2 - through bowel wall, lymph node metastases
-D - distant metastases

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13
Q

Chapel-Hill _____ ?

A

Classification (Artery Disorders):
-Primary (Large): Giant Cell Arteritis
-Primary (Med/Small): Wegner’s Granulomatosis
-Secondary (Large): Aortitis in rheumatoid arthritis.
-Secondary (Med/Small): Autoimmune/Drugs/Malignancy.

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14
Q

Hutchinson’s _____ ?

A

Sign
-Rash on nose with shingles: Sign of nasocillary nerve involvement (ophthalmic nerve, trigeminal): Sign that corneal sensation may be lost.

OR
-Pigmentation of the nail and proximal nail fold
-Sign of melanoma.

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15
Q

Fanconi _____ ?

A

Syndrome
-Failure of nephron to reabsorb sugar, amino acids, and bicarbonate- which present in the urine.
-Also other ions, especially calcium/phosphate.
-Main causes: Cystenosis or Myeloma
-Cystine = PCT cell damage.
-Myeloma = Light chain lining of PCT.

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16
Q

Von Hippel Lindau _____ ?

A

Disease
-Autosomal dominant disease causing a reduction in tumour suppression genes&raquo_space;> Renal Cell Carcinoma.
-Loss of VHL gene (tumour suppressor gene).

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17
Q

Goodpasture’s ____ ?

A

Syndrome
-Attack on type IV collagen in lungs and glomeruli, causing basement membrane dysfunction.
-AKA “Anti-glomerular basement membrane disease”.

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18
Q

Rotterdam _____ ?

A

Criteria for the Diagnosis of PCOS:
-Menstrual irregularity
-Clinical or biochemical evidence of -hyperandrogenism
-Polycystic ovaries on USS (>12 cysts)

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19
Q

Eisenmenger’s _____ ?

A

Syndrome
-Secondary pulmonary hypertension and shunt-reversal due to VSD
-Untreated congenital cardiac defect leading to cyanosis due to ^^

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20
Q

Bradford Hill _____?

A

Criteria
-A group of minimal conditions necessary to provide adequate evidence of a causal relationship

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21
Q

Tanner _____?

A

Scale
-Used to describe physical development based on external sex characteristics

12 for buds and 16 for menses = Upper limit in females
Testicles first then penis in men.

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22
Q

Gleason ____ ?

A

Grading
-Grading for prostate cancer

1- Small uniform
2- Space between glands
3- Infiltration from cells from gland at margin.
4- Irregular masses of neoplastic cells and fewer gland cells.
5- Lack of, or occasional, glands + sheets of cells.

23
Q

Creutzfeldt-Jakob ____?

A

Disease
-Rare and fatal condition that affects the brain
-Causes brain damage that worsens rapidly over time
-Caused by prions, e.g “Mad cow disease”.

24
Q

Murphy’s _____ ?

A

Sign,
-Inspirational arrest on palpitation of RUQ.
-Suggestive of cholecystitis.
-Only positive if not repeatable on L side

25
Q

Friedreich’s ____ ?

A

Ataxia (FA)
-Autosomal Recessive cerebellar Ataxia
-Increased risk of CV issues / Diabetes

26
Q

Becker’s ____ ?

A

Muscular Dystrophy
-X-Linked Recessive
-Issue with dystrophin, less severe than Duchenne’s
-Onset around age 10-20years.

27
Q

Uhthoff’s ____ ?

A

Phenomenon
-Paraesthesia
-Intolerance to heat

28
Q

L’hermitte’s ____ ?

A

Sign
-Sudden sensation electric-like shock pasing down back of neck and into spine
-May then radiate out into arms and legs
-Usually triggered by bending head forward towards chest
-In MS

29
Q

Rovsing’s _____ ?

A

Sign
-Sign of appendicitis
-Palpation of the left lower quadrant of a person’s abdomen –> increases pain felt in the right lower quadrant –> patient is said to have a positive Rovsing’s sign –> may have appendicitis.

30
Q

Trendelenburg’s _____ ?

A

Sign
-Of dysfunction of hip when assessing gait
-Positive indicated weakness of hip abductor muscles

31
Q

Salter-Harris ____ ____ ?

A

Fracture Classification: SALTR
-1: S LIPPED- Transverse Fracture through the growth plate.
-2: A BOVE- Fracture through growth plate and metaphysis (Away from joint)
-3: L OWER- Fracture through growth plate and epiphysis.
-4: T HROUGH- Fracture through the growth plate, epiphysis, and metaphysis.
-5: R AMMED- Fracture leading to erasure of growth plate

32
Q

Pemberton’s ____ ?

A

Sign
-Evaluate venous obstruction in patients with goitres
-Positive when bilateral arm elevation causes facial plethora

33
Q

Ann-Arbor ____ ?

A

Staging
-Staging for lymphoma
-I: Involvement of one lymph node
-II: More than one
-III: Both sides of diaphragm
-IV: Other organ involvement

B = Weight loss, fever, night-sweats.

34
Q

Beck’s ____ ?

A

Triad
Associated with cardiac tamponade:
-Hypotension
-Muffled heart sounds
-Raised JVP

35
Q

Gell and Coombs ____ ?

A

Classification (of hypersensitivity)
-1: IgE (Allergic/Anaphylaxis)
-2: Antibody-Mediated (Organ rejection etc- Cells DIE)
-3: Immune Complex (Farmer’s lungs etc)
-4: T-Cell mediated / Delayed (TB)
-5: Antibody-Mediated (MG etc. Cells DONT DIE but receptors are BLOCKED)

36
Q

Kernig’s ____

A

Sign
-Severe stiffness of hamstrings -> inability to straighten leg when hip is flexed to 90 degrees
-Positive indicates meningitis or SAH

37
Q

Kussmaul’s ____

A

Sign
-Cardiological sign
-Can be seen in constrictive pericarditis or cardiac tamponade
-Describes paradoxical rise in JVP on inspiration

Breathing
-Type of hyperventilation in response to metabolic acidosis, as seen in DKA
-Involves deep breathing -> attempt to expel carbon dioxide -> compensate for the metabolic acidosis

38
Q

Schober’s ____

A

Test
-Determine if there is a decrease in spinal motion
-Ankylosing spondylitis

39
Q

Auer ____ ?

A

Rods
-Histological sign
-Present in acute myeloid leukaemia
-Clumps of granular material forming elongated needles

40
Q

Bence Jones ____

A

Protein
-In urine
-In myeloma (50-80%)

41
Q

Centor _____ ?

A

Criteria for assessing chance it is group A strep.

-Fever (1)
-Exudate (1)
-Absent Cough (1)
-Anterior Cervical Lymphadenopathy (1)

-Age 3-14 (1)
-Age 15-44 (0)
-Age >44 (-1)

42
Q

Zollinger-Ellison _____

A

Syndrome
-Results from overproduction of gastrin
-Due to neuroendocrine tumour - gastrinoma
-Ulcer formation

43
Q

Cheyne-Stokes _____

A

Respiration
-abnormal breathing pattern characterized by oscillation between apnea and hyperpnea
-Crescendo-diminuendo ventilation pattern
-Occurs due to CO2 retention and then CO2 release and decreased sensitivity to oxygen.

44
Q

Light’s _____

A

Criteria
-When assessing pleural fluid
-Exudative or transudative

> 0.5, >0.6 Ratio of
Protein, LDH of ascites to serum.

45
Q

Meniscus _____

A

Sign
-Pleural effusion
-CXR: Costophrenic angle obliterated, obscured diaphragmatic contour & heart

46
Q

Coombs _____

A

Test
-For autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

47
Q

Howell-jolly _____

A

Bodies
-Seen in sickle cell anaemia

48
Q

Psammoma ____

A

Bodies
-Round microscopic calcification collections
-Found in neoplasms like:
Papillary thyroid carcinoma

49
Q

Cullen’s _____

A

Sign
-Peri-umbilical bruising in pancreatitis

50
Q

Grey-Turner’s _____

A

Sign
-Flank bruising (caused by blood vessel auto-digestion and retroperitoneal haemorrhage)
-Seen in pancreatitis

51
Q

Kartagener _____

A

Syndrome
-AKA primary ciliary dyskinesia

52
Q

Kocher’s _____ ?

A

Criteria (for septic joint)

T>38.5
CRP>20
ESR>40
WCC>12
Cannot weight bear

3/4 = Septic Joint very likely.

53
Q

Epworth

A

Slepiness scale
Good for OSA.

54
Q

Bishop’s

A

Score for progression of labour /13

Cervical:
-Consistency - Soft good (2)
-Effacement - 80%+ Good (3)
-Dilation - 5cm+ = good (3)
-Position (Posterior…etc) anterior = good (2)

Presenting Part:
Foetal Station: +1/+2 = good (3)

Membrane sweep first always (Not real induction)
8+ = Membrane sweep or spontenous
<5 = Probably needs real induction
<3 = Induction may not be successful

Medicine Extras (24 decks)

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