Engineering Casualty Control & Plant Operations Flashcards

1
Q

what is the most effective form of engineering casualty control?

A

casualty prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what NSTM contains general guidelines concerning engineering casualty control?

A

NSTM 079 volume 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

individual casualties located within the EOCC are to be handled in priority of what three actions?

A

controlling actions, immediate actions and supplementary actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what actions within the EOCC must be committed to memory?

A

controlling and immediate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

who is responsible for developing engineering training team (ETT) drills?

A

engineer officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

prior to conducting ETT drills, who must approve the drill package?

A

commanding officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

who is responsible for maintaining a master ETT drill package?

A

MPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are three phases of engineering casualty control?

A

limitation of the effects of damage, emergency restoration and completing repairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

who is the approval authority for locally generated EOCC procedures?

A

the commanding officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

the safest engineering plant alignment is what?

A

split plant operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what document along with the EOCC is used to combat a Main engineering space Class “B” fire?

A

main space fire doctrine (MSFD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

after the propulsion plant has been secured and effectively isolated who assumes firefighting efforts during an engineering space fire Class B fire?

A

DCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what NSTM contains specific firefighting techniques for main engineering Class B fires?

A

NSTM 555

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

after personnel evacuate a main engineering space, due to a Class B fire, what firefighting agent is normally activated?

A

Halon 1301

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is used as a propellant for Halon 1301?

A

nitrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

after reactivation of Halon 1301 there is a mandatory “soak” time of what duration?

A

15 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

during any casualty to the propulsion plant the EOOW is tasked with maintaining what?

A

plant control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

during a loss of lube oil pressure to the main reduction gears, how is it determined whether bearing metal damage occurred?

A

by shifting and inspecting the lube oil strainer (SICLOS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how is all major equipment that is damaged due to a casualty and placed out of commission documented?

A

equipment is logged by noun name in the engineering log with a detailed description of the casualty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

who is notified first during all underway casualties affecting propulsion or the ship’s mission?

A

the OOD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

when connecting a run of casualty power cables, it is always connected in what manner?

A

from the load to the source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what action must be taken if you hear a metallic sound within the reduction gear?

A

stop and lock shaft IAW EOCC procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the recommended firefighting agent for a Class C fire?

A

CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

during a Class C fire, what is the first step in combating the fire?

A

de-energize the power source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

who authorizes the entry into an electrical panel that is subjected to a Class C fire?

A

the supervisory at the scene IAW EOCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

who determines electrical damage during a Class C post fire investigation?

A

repair electrician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

why is PKP not recommended for use with a Class C fire?

A

due to the corrosive properties of PKP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

who authorizes the energizing of casualty power cables?

A

the DCA via the engineer officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is the principal sound powered communication circuit used during engineering casualty control?

A

2JV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what damage control repair locker is assigned to combat main propulsion space casualties?

A

repair five

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

who gives permission to the firefighting attack team to enter the main propulsion space to combat a Class B fire?

A

DCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

how many sources of firefighting agent must be used to combat a main switchboard Class C fire?

A

at least two independent CO2 sources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are three common causes of engineering casualties?

A

lack of positive control, lack of effective communications, lack of systems knowledge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

the EOCC procedure MCFED talks of the plane when opening the electrical equipment, what is meant by the team “plane”?

A

placing ones body part within the door opening of the live electrical component

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

the EOCC procedure MCFED is used for what fires?

A

Class C fires located in electrical equipment or distribution areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what publication contains detailed information on assessing damage sustained from electrical fires?

A

NSTM 300

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are two indications of an uncontrollable hot bearing on an SSTG?

A

bearing temperature of 180 degrees F or oil temperature differential between the cooler outlet and bearing temperature exceeds 50 degrees F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what action must be taken if no oil flow is observed in bearing oil flow sight glass on an operating SSTG?

A

trip and secure generator IAW EOCC procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

an operating SSTg must be secured when vacuum decreases to what?

A

15 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

at what temperature is an SSTG auxiliary condenser considered a hot condenser?

A

140 degrees F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

an unusual drop in boiler steam pressure and a firebox with a steam is an indication of what boiler casualty?

A

ruptured boiler tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is the greatest concern for the engineering plant when a boiler high water casualty occurs?

A

boiler water carryover to the steam turbines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what engineering casualties require the main shaft and main engine reduction gear to be stopped and locked?

A

loss of the lube oil pressure, major lube oil leak on main reduction gear, metallic noise in main reduction gear, and uncontrollable hot bearing in the main reduction gear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

failure to stop and lock the shaft during a required casualty can have what effect on the main reduction gear?

A

could damage the engine to the extent of non operation

45
Q

after restoration from casualty to the main reduction gear the engine must be tested IAW what directive?

A

EOP (engineering operating procedure)

46
Q

if the main engine locking device is engaged while the turning gear motor is turning, what would happen?

A

damage the gear teeth of the turning gear would occur

47
Q

fluctuating SSTG kW meters on an electrical operating board is a possible indication of what casualty?

A

Class C fire within the SSTG

48
Q

what is the goal of engineering casualty control drills?

A

to increase watch team proficiency

49
Q

what is the best source for developing ETT drills?

A

EOCC

50
Q

when the boiler is secured in repose to a low water casualty, what must be done to the boiler after the boiler is secured?

A

lift safety valves hand easing gear, 200 to 300 psi below operating pressure

51
Q

a hot spot on the burner air register on an operating boiler is an indication of what?

A

brick work failure

52
Q

blistering paint on the boiler air casing is an indication of what?

A

fire in the boiler air casing

53
Q

how long is steam smothering admitted to the boiler air casing during a fire in the air casing?

A

until the fire is out

54
Q

after the main engines have bene tested and warmed up, while you wait to answer all bells the engine must be rotated every?

A

3-5 minutes

55
Q

what is the minimum lube oil temperature to the main engine before it is allowed to be jacked over?

A

90 degrees F

56
Q

if for any reason the main engine turbine rotor cannot be rotated within 5 minutes, what must be done?

A

secure the main engine

57
Q

what is the maximum journal bearing temperature on an operating main engine or SSTG as indicated by RTE?

A

250 degrees F

58
Q

what is the maximum thrust bearing temperature of on operating main engine or SSTG as indicated by RTE?

A

270 degrees F

59
Q

how often is the main engine lube oil sump level checked and logged on an operating main engine?

A

every hour while in operation

60
Q

what temperature indicates a hot main condenser?

A

140 degrees F

61
Q

what is the maximum temperature rise across a bearing on an operating main feed pump?

A

50 degrees F

62
Q

at what vacuum must you secure an operating main condenser?

A

15 inches

63
Q

what is the maximum amount of time a boiler can smoke white before you must secure?

A

one minute

64
Q

if a steaming boiler suffers a ruptured tube safeties must be lifted to what pressure?

A

zero psig

65
Q

a low boiler economizer outlet temperature will have what effect on the superheater outlet temperature?

A

it will cause a high superheater outlet temperature

66
Q

what is the maximum allowable RPM differential on operating steam force draft blowers?

A

300 RPMs

67
Q

what is the auxiliary exhaust pressure in the engineering plant during normal operations?

A

15 psig

68
Q

prior to testing the main engines the EOOW must have permission from whom to test the engine?

A

OOD

69
Q

when all main engines have been tested satisfactorily, the EOOW reports this to whom?

A

OOD

70
Q

during a white smoke casualty to the boiler what must never be adjusted?

A

fuel ol header pressure

71
Q

what is the maximum amount of time a boiler can smoke heavy black before you must secure the boiler?

A

2 minutes

72
Q

what is the probable cause of a racing fuel oil service pump?

A

water in the fuel

73
Q

what is the temperature at which lube oil is maintained on an operating main engine?

A

120-130 degrees F

74
Q

a ruptured feedwater control valve diaphragm will have what adverse effect on the boiler water level?

A

water level will increase, as the valve will fail open

75
Q

what is the maximum steady state superheat outlet temperature on a D type 1200 psig boiler?

A

1000 degrees F

76
Q

what is the maximum allowable superheater outlet temperature during transition periods of 15 minutes to 1 hour on a 1200 psig D-type boiler?

A

1020 degrees F

77
Q

what is the required amount of time necessary to bring a cold boiler online?

A

2 1/2 to 3 hours

78
Q

what is the required amount of time necessary to bring a boiler under a steam blanket online?

A

1 1/2 to 2 hours

79
Q

after boiler light off you must never exceed what boiler firing rate?

A

5 percent

80
Q

boiler air casing is tested at what percentage of boiler full power rating?

A

50 to 75 percent boiler load

81
Q

when a line shaft bearing emits smoke, what actions must be taken?

A

stop and lock the shaft

82
Q

a low condensate inlet pressure to the DFT will have what detrimental effect on the propulsion plant?

A

low DFT level, possible low water and improper deaeration of the feedwater

83
Q

what establishes and helps to maintain a vacuum on the main condenser when the ship is not equipped with air ejectors?

A

vacuum pumps

84
Q

during a loss of vacuum casualty on the main condenser, what action must be taken when vacuum decreases to 15 inches?

A

main engine must be stopped and casualty procedures IAW EOCC are followed

85
Q

a cracked gauge glass on the main condenser could lead to what casualty?

A

loss of vacuum on the main condenser

86
Q

what effect will a low boiler economizer outlet temperature have on the boiler superheater outlet temperature?

A

will increase superheater outlet temperature

87
Q

in accordance with EOCC procedures, what three casualties require the lifting of boiling safety valves?

A

ruptured boiler tube, low water in the boiler and major uncontrolled flooded (prior to the water reaching the brick pan)

88
Q

what equipment is used to lift the boiler safety valves during a casualty?

A

boiler safety valve hand easing gear

89
Q

what EOSS document is used to align the propulsion plant prior to light off?

A

master light off check list (MLOC)

90
Q

boiler panting is caused by what?

A

insufficient air

91
Q

how long is steam admitted to the boiler firebox when raw fuel is discovered on the firebox floor?

A

30 minutes

92
Q

what boiler casualty requires the boiler to be purged after securing the boiler?

A

ruptured boiler tube

93
Q

after a boiler high water casualty, what precaution is taken to check the HP turbine for boiler water carryover?

A

by cracking the turbine casing drains and checking for carryover

94
Q

a reduction gear journal bearing shows a dramatic increase in temperature and then decreases to ambient temperature, this in an indication of what casualty?

A

a wiped bearing

95
Q

how is turbine speed maintained during a jammed throttle casualty?

A

by using the affected turbine guardian valve

96
Q

what is the first action taken, when you are experiencing difficulty in maintaining boiler water level on an automated ship?

A

shift the boiler feedwater control to remote manual

97
Q

the formation of condensation (fogging) of the boiler periscope is an indication of what casualty?

A

ruptured boiler tube

98
Q

the boiler high water alarm is normally set at what parameter?

A

plus 7 inches

99
Q

what protects the main feed pump from internal damage due to a loss of suction pressure?

A

low suction trip

100
Q

what provides a positive suction head to the main feed booster pump?

A

the DFT

101
Q

a loss of the operating main feed pump will cause what boiler casualty?

A

low water

102
Q

under normal conditions, the lube oil purifier aligned to the main engine is operated daily for how many hours underway?

A

12 hours

103
Q

it is required to change the lube oil in the main sump, when the lube oil neutralization number exceeds what?

A

.050

104
Q

what is the smallest percentage of gas (vapor) that will make an ignitable mixture called?

A

lower explosive limit

105
Q

what is the highest percentage of gas (vapor) that will make an ignitable mixture called?

A

upper explosive limit

106
Q

what propellant is used in the portable PKP fire extinguisher?

A

CO2 cartridge

107
Q

what is the capacity of the AFFF variable-nozzle located on a machinery space hose reel?

A

95 GPM

108
Q

what class of fire involves combustible metals?

A

delta

109
Q

what is the water to AFFF concentration on a proportioning system?

A

94 % water, 6% AFFF