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Endocrinology, breast, urology, renal Flashcards

1
Q

How does Type 2 Diabetes (T2D) differ from Type 1 Diabetes?

A

T2D involves decreased insulin secretion and increased insulin resistance, while T1D is characterized by autoimmune destruction of β cells.

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2
Q

What is the underlying cause of Type 1 Diabetes (T1D)?

A

Insulin deficiency due to autoimmune destruction of pancreatic β cells

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3
Q

What causes Type 2 DM in the young

A

Maturity-onset diabetes of the young

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4
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for diabetes based on fasting glucose levels?

A

≥7 mmol/L.

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5
Q

How is diabetes diagnosed using OGTT (Oral Glucose Tolerance Test)?

A

A diagnosis is made if glucose levels are ≥11.1 mmol/L.

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6
Q

What level of HbA1c indicates diabetes?

A

≥48 (6.5%).

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7
Q

Define Prediabetes based on HbA1c.

A

42-47

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8
Q

What are the symptoms of hypoglycemia?

A

Sweating, shaking, anxiety, palpitations, hunger, nausea.

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9
Q

What are the symptoms of neuroglycopenia during hypoglycemia?

A

Confusion, slurred speech, visual disturbances, drowsiness, aggression.

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10
Q

Describe the characteristics of Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA).

A

Common in T1D, with symptoms including gradual drowsiness, vomiting, dehydration, Kussmaul’s respiration, confusion, and tachycardia.

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11
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for DKA?

A

Hyperglycemia (>11.0 mmol/L), ketosis (blood ketone >3mmol/L or urine ketone ++), and acidosis (pH <7.3).

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12
Q

Outline the treatment steps for DKA.

A

Administer 0.9% sodium chloride 500mL boluses, then 1L over specific intervals. Use insulin, monitor glucose and ketone levels.

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13
Q

What is the significance of HbA1c in diabetes diagnosis?

A

HbA1c provides a 3-month picture of glycemic control

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14
Q

Describe the mode of action of Metformin.

A

Metformin improves insulin sensitivity in the liver/muscle and suppresses hepatic gluconeogenesis.

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15
Q

What are the side effects of Metformin?

A

Nausea, diarrhea, and the risk of Metformin-Associated Lactic Acidosis

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16
Q

How does DDP4i (Sitagliptin) work in diabetes treatment?

A

It increases GLP-1, leading to the ‘incretin effect.’

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17
Q

What side effect is associated with DDP4i (gliptin)?

A

Pancreatitis and nasopharyngitis.

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18
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Sulfonylurea (Gliclazide)?

A

It enhances insulin secretion.

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19
Q

What is the primary side effect of Sulfonylureas?

A

Hypoglycaemia

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20
Q

Explain the action of GLP-1 mimetic (Exenatide injection).

A

Acts via the ‘incretin effect’ and is given if BMI >35 or >33 (Asian).

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21
Q

What is the preferred long-acting basal insulin in T1D?

A

Twice-daily insulin detemir.

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22
Q

What is the first intensification step in T2D treatment for HbA1c >58 (7.5%)?

A

Dual therapy.

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23
Q

What is the primary risk factor for gestational diabetes?

A

Obesity

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24
Q

What is the role of glucagon in glucose homeostasis?

A

Glucagon raises blood glucose levels by promoting glycogen breakdown in the liver.

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25
Q

How does chronic kidney disease affect insulin metabolism?

A

CKD can lead to insulin resistance and altered insulin metabolism

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26
Q

Explain the concept of diabetic nephropathy.

A

Diabetic nephropathy is kidney damage resulting from diabetes, marked by proteinuria, hypertension, and decreased kidney function.

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27
Q

How is diabetic retinopathy managed?

A

Management includes regular eye exams, blood sugar control, blood pressure management, and, if necessary, laser therapy or injections

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28
Q

How does smoking affect diabetes?

A

Smoking increases the risk of diabetes complications, including cardiovascular disease and peripheral vascular disease.

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29
Q

How is diabetic foot ulcers managed?

A

Management includes wound care, infection control, offloading pressure on the affected area, and, in some cases, surgical intervention.

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30
Q

What is the role of metformin in polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)?

A

Metformin is used in PCOS to improve insulin sensitivity and regulate menstrual cycles

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31
Q

What is the impact of diabetes on the microvasculature?

A

Diabetes can lead to microvascular complications, including retinopathy, neuropathy, and nephropathy, affecting small blood vessels.

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32
Q

What is the most common type of breast cancer?

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma is the most common type of breast cancer.

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33
Q

What are the risk factors for breast cancer?

A

BRCA1 or BRCA2 mutations, family history, previous benign breast disease, smoking, alcohol consumption, and exposure to unopposed estrogen.

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34
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of breast cancer.

A

Symptoms include a unilateral breast lump (irregular, non-mobile, hard, painless), nipple changes (inversion, Paget’s disease), and skin changes (Peau d’orange).

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35
Q

What is the diagnostic approach for breast cancer?

A

The triple assessment includes clinical examination, imaging (mammogram), and tissue diagnosis (biopsy).

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36
Q

What are the treatment options for breast cancer involving axillary lymph nodes?

A

Axillary node clearance is considered. Pre-op ultrasound is done, and if no lymphadenopathy, a negative sentinel node biopsy is performed; if lymphadenopathy is present, axillary node clearance is done.

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37
Q

What hormonal therapy is used for ER-positive pre/peri-menopausal breast cancer?

A

Tamoxifen

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37
Q

How is breast cancer managed surgically?

A

Surgery options include wide local excision + radiotherapy for smaller lesions and mastectomy + radiotherapy for larger or more advanced cases.

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37
Q

What hormonal therapy is used for ER-positive post-menopausal breast cancer?

A

Anastrozole, an aromatase inhibitor,

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38
Q

What is the recommended screening for breast cancer?

A

Mammograms every 3 years for women aged 47-73 years are recommended.

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39
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism?

A

Symptoms include weight gain, cold intolerance, bradycardia, constipation, menorrhagia, and dry skin

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40
Q

Outline the symptoms associated with hyperthyroidism.

A

Hyperthyroidism symptoms encompass weight loss, heat intolerance, tachycardia, palpitations, diarrhea, and sweating

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41
Q

Compare Graves’ disease and toxic nodular goitre

A

Graves’ disease is characterized by a diffuse goitre with bruit, exophthalmos, ophthalmoplegia, and thyroid acropachy. Toxic nodular goitre presents as a solitary nodule or multinodular goitre.

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42
Q

What is Subclinical Hyperthyroidism, and when is treatment indicated?

A

Subclinical hyperthyroidism is usually asymptomatic but carries risks. Treatment is considered if symptomatic, >65y, post-menopausal, or having specific risk factors.

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43
Q

What is the cause of Subacute Thyroiditis/De Quervain’s and how is it managed?

A

Subacute thyroiditis is often post-viral. Management includes diclofenac for pain relief.

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44
Q

What antibodies are associated with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis?

A

Anti-TPO

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45
Q

Explain Sick Euthyroid Syndrome.

A

during systemic illness, leading to low T3/T4 levels despite normal/low TSH.

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46
Q

What is the most common type of thyroid cancer, and who does it commonly affect?

A

Papillary thyroid cancer is the most common and often affects young females. It has a favorable prognosis

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46
Q

List common drugs used in thyroid disorders and their indications.

A

Drugs include Carbimazole (hyperthyroidism), Levothyroxine (hypothyroidism), Propranolol (symptomatic control), Prednisolone (anti-inflammatory), Radioiodine (hyperthyroidism or cancer), Thyrotoxic drugs (ATDs, lithium, amiodarone).

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47
Q

Describe Follicular thyroid cancer and its distinguishing features.

A

Follicular thyroid cancer commonly affects middle-aged individuals

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48
Q

What is Medullary thyroid cancer, and what hormone does it produce?

A

Medullary thyroid cancer arises from parafollicular cells, produces calcitonin, and can be part of MEN-2a or MEN-2b.

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49
Q

How is thyroid cancer diagnosed, and what is the treatment?

A

Diagnosis involves blood tests, ultrasound, and fine-needle biopsy. Treatment includes total thyroidectomy, radioiodine, and levothyroxine. Monitoring involves thyroglobulin (Tg) and, if medullary, calcitonin.

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50
Q

What are common causes of midline neck lumps?

A

Midline neck lumps include goitre and thyroglossal cyst

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51
Q

Common causes of lateral neck lumps

A

Lymph nodes, branchial cysts, and cystic hygroma.

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52
Q

What movements help differentiate a thyroglossal cyst from other neck lumps?

A

typically don’t move on swallowing but do move on tongue protrusion.

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53
Q

Explain the term “block-and-replace” in the context of hyperthyroidism treatment.

A

Block-and-replace” involves simultaneously giving antithyroid drugs (block) and thyroid hormone replacement (replace) to maintain thyroid hormone levels within a normal range.

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54
Q

How does PTH influence calcium and phosphate homeostasis?

A

PTH increases osteoclast activity, activates vitamin D for GI calcium absorption, and enhances renal calcium reabsorption. It inhibits phosphate reabsorption in the kidneys.

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55
Q

Describe the primary treatment for primary hyperparathyroidism

A

Parathyroidectomy

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56
Q

What is the primary cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism, and how is it managed?

A

Chronic kidney disease is a leading cause. Management involves cinacalcet, cholecalciferol, and phosphate binders.

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56
Q

Explain how tertiary hyperparathyroidism differs from secondary hyperparathyroidism.

A

Tertiary hyperparathyroidism is a long-term form of secondary hyperparathyroidism. Parathyroidectomy is performed after prolonged secondary hyperparathyroidism.

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57
Q

How is hypercalcaemia managed?

A

Management involves fluids, loop diuretics, bisphosphonates, calcitonin.

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58
Q

What are the characteristics of SIADH?

A

SIADH is characterized by high ADH and hyponatraemia.

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58
Q

Hypercalcaemia causes

A

Primary and tertiary hyperparathyroidism, cancer, thiazide diuretics, sarcoidosis, myeloma, and Paget’s disease

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59
Q

What is the treatment approach for SiADH?

A

fluid restriction and, if necessary, ADH antagonists like demeclocycline.

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60
Q

Differentiate between central diabetes insipidus (CDI) and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (NDI).

A

CDI involves reduced ADH secretion, while NDI involves impaired kidney response to ADH.

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61
Q

Compare treatment of Cranial diabetes insipidus and nephrogenic DI

A

Desmopressin is used to treat CDI, and thiazide diuretics for NDI.

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62
Q

What is the primary cause of Addison’s disease in the UK, and what is the treatment during illness?

A

utoimmune adrenalitis (Addison’s disease) is the primary cause in the UK. During illness, double the hydrocortisone dose.

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63
Q

What is seen on bloods in Addison’s disease

A

Hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, metabolic acidosis

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64
Q

Cushing’s syndrome diagnosis

A

Low-dose and high-dose overnight dexamethasone suppression tests and plasma ACTH levels.

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65
Q

What are the common causes of Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Iatrogenic, adrenal adenoma, pituitary adenoma, ectopic production

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66
Q

What is the leading cause of primary hyperaldosteronism?

A

Adrenal adenoma (Conn’s syndrome)

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67
Q

Treatment of primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn’s)

A

Spironolactone +/- adrenalectomy

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68
Q

What is seen on bloods in Conn’s

A

Hypertension, mild acidosis, hypokalaemia

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69
Q

Outline the diagnosis and treatment of phaeochromocytoma.

A

Diagnosis involves 24h urinary metanephrines and CT. Treatment includes α-blockers (phenoxybenzamine), β-blockers (propranolol, labetalol), and laparoscopic adrenalectomy.

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70
Q

What is acromegaly, its common cause, and how is it managed?

A

Acromegaly is characterized by excess growth hormone. Pituitary adenoma is a common cause. Management involves transsphenoidal adenectomy and somatostatin analogues like octreotide.

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71
Q

1st line drugs in prolactinoma

A

Dopamine agonists like bromocriptine are the primary treatment.

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72
Q

1st line drugs in acromegaly

A

somatostatin analogues like octreotide.

73
Q

What is seen in bloods in PCOS

A

high insulin and LH, leading to androgen production

74
Q

Symptoms of PCOS

A

hypertension, hirsutism, acne, oligo/amenorrhoea, and metabolic syndrome features

75
Q

Primary Hyperparathyroidism bloods

A

High PTH, high Ca, low PO4

76
Q

Secondary Hyperparathyroidism:

A

High PTH, low Ca, high PO4 (e.g., CKD).

77
Q

Tertiary Hyperparathyroidism:

A

high PTH, high Ca, high PO4.

78
Q

Complications of CKD

A

Cardiovascular disease, anaemia, renal osteodystrophy, kidney stones.

79
Q

Causes of CKD

A

Hypertension, diabetic nephropathy, infections, polycystic kidney disease.

80
Q

Explain chronic graft failure in renal transplantation

A

Occurs after 6 months, antibody and T-cell mediated, leads to fibrosis in the transplanted kidney.

81
Q

Define acute graft failure in renal transplantation.

A

Occurs within the first 6 months, T-cell mediated, reversible with steroids and immunosuppressants.

82
Q

Indications for dialysis.

A

Metabolic acidosis, hyperkalaemia, fluid overload uraemia, uraemic pericarditis, acute intoxication

83
Q

Stress incontinence definition

A

Stress: Increased abdominal pressure (e.g., laughing), common in females.

84
Q

Stress incontinence treatment

A

Pelvic floor retraining

85
Q

Urge incontinence definition

A

Detrusor overactivity, sudden urge, frequent incontinence.

86
Q

Functional incontinence definition

A

Unable to reach the bathroom due to physical or mental reasons.

87
Q

Overflow incontinence definition

A

Involuntary release from an overfull bladder without urge, common in males.

88
Q

Define nephrotic syndrome

A

Proteinuria >3g, hypoalbuminaemia <30g/dL, oedema

89
Q

Complications of haemodialysis

A

thrombosis, stenosis, infection.

90
Q

Complications of peritoneal dialysis

A

Peritonitis

91
Q

Complications of renal transplant

A

ejection and immunosuppressant issues e.g. SCC

92
Q

Define minimal change disease and who it affects and its treatment

A

In children, normal light microscopy, responds to steroids.

93
Q

Pre-renal causes of AKI

A

Due to factors before kidneys (e.g., hypovolaemia)

93
Q

Explain AKI staging based on creatinine levels

A

Stage 1: Creatinine ≥1.5 x baseline.
Stage 2: Creatinine ≥2 x baseline.
Stage 3: Creatinine ≥3 x baseline.

94
Q

Renal causes of AKI

A

Vasculitis, glomerulonephritis

95
Q

Post-renal causes of AKI

A

Urinary tract obstruction (e.g., renal stone).

96
Q

Membranous nephropathy definition

A

Thickened GBM, treated with ACEi/ARB and immunosuppressants.

97
Q

What are the risk factors for prostate cancer?

A

Age >55, African-Caribbean, obesity.

98
Q

Name the common medications for BPH.

A

Alpha-blockers (tamsulosin), 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors (finasteride).

99
Q

What is the first-line treatment for lower UTI?

A

Nitrofurantoin or trimethoprim.

100
Q

What is the treatment for minimal change disease?

A

Steroids.

101
Q

Identify the characteristic feature of IgA nephropathy.

A

Episodic macroscopic hematuria, especially post-URTI.

102
Q

Differentiate between seminoma and NSGCT in testicular cancer

A

Seminoma: LDH high, NSGCT: AFP high.

103
Q

Identify common symptoms of kidney cancer.

A

Hematuria, flank pain, palpable abdominal mass.

104
Q

Describe the characteristics of urine in pre-renal AKI

A

High urine osmolality, low urine sodium.

105
Q

What are the common causes of pre-renal acute kidney injury (AKI)?

A

Hypovolemia, renal artery stenosis, and sepsis.

106
Q

Which antibody is seen in Hashimoto’s thyroiditis?

A

Anti thyroid peroxidase (TPO)

107
Q

Is the goitre in Hashimoto’s thyroiditis (autoimmune hypothyroidism) painful / painless?

A

Painless

108
Q

Which protein is seen in urine in multiple myeloma?

A

Bence Jones Protein

109
Q

Which condition usually presents with anaemia, pathological fracture and renal dysfunction?

A

Multiple myeloma

110
Q

What electrolyte abnormality is seen on U&Es in acute pancreatitis?

A

Hypocalcaemia

111
Q

Which antibody is associated with drug-induced lupus?

A

Antihistone antibodies

112
Q

Which drug (used in TB management) can cause drug-induced lupus?

A

Isoniazid

113
Q

What is seen on US KUB in pyelonephritis?

A

Perinephric fat stranding

114
Q

Use of which antibiotic can cause achilles tendon rupture?

A

Ciprofloxacin

115
Q

Which LFT is disproportionately raised in cholestatic liver injury?

A

ALP

116
Q

What causes deranged LFTs in blood loss / acute hypoperfusion

A

Ischaemic hepatitis

117
Q

Which cancer is CA 125 a tumour marker for?

A

Ovarian cancer

118
Q

Which cancer is CA 19-9 a tumour marker for?

A

Pancreatic cancer

119
Q

Which cancer is CEA a tumour marker for?

A

Bowel cancer

120
Q

Which cancer is AFP a tumour marker for?

A

Liver cancer and germ cell tumours

121
Q

Which cancer is HER2 a tumour marker for?

A

Breast cancer

122
Q

Most common type of lymphoma in the UK

A

Diffuse large B cell lymphoma

123
Q

Which surgical procedure is used in anal fissure if trial of laxatives and fibre lubricant fails?

A

Sphincterotomy

124
Q

What symptoms are seen in anal fissure?

A

Pain on defecation, Hx of constipation / anal sex, fresh blood

125
Q

Symptoms of pyelonephritis

A

Increased urination, fever, low-grade back pain and rigors

126
Q

Most common pathogen causing pyelonephritis

A

E coli

127
Q

What do patients on metformin need to do after a contrast CT scan and why?

A

Metformin should be discontinued for 48 hours following a contrast CT due to the risk of renal impairment

128
Q

Most common type of prostate cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma

129
Q

What clinical pattern is seen in anti-GBM

A

haemoptysis + AKI/proteinuria/haematuria

130
Q

Which type of cancer has a “starry sky” appearance on lymph node biopsy

A

Burkitt Lymphoma

131
Q

Which biologic is used alongside R-CHOP chemotherapy in lymphoma?

A

Rituximab

132
Q

How is C-peptide used to differentiate between Type 1 DM and Type 2?

A

Low in Type 1, high in 2

133
Q

Formula to calculate serum osmolality

A

(Na+ X 2) + glucose + urea

134
Q

Blood test results in Cushing’s syndrome

A

Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis

135
Q

What’s the diagnosis in thumb pain after repeated use e.g. in someone who sews?

A

Tenosynovitis

136
Q

Which medication should be added to morbidly obese diabetic patients (BMI >35)

A

GLP1 mimetics e.g. exenatide, liraglultide. Switch one of their medication to this if they’re already receiving triple therapy.

137
Q

Which diabetic medication should be avoided in heart failure?

A

Pioglitazones

138
Q

What’s seen on ABG in DKA

A

Raised anion gap metabolic acidosis

139
Q

Which clinical sign is associated with reactive arthritis?

A

Dactylitis

140
Q

Which drug is used in renal colic for analgesia?

A

IM diclofenac

141
Q

What can cause AKI after starting ACE inhibitors in young female patients?

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia

142
Q

Complications of tumour lysis syndrome

A

Hyperkalaemia
hyperphosphataemia
hypocalcaemia
hyperuricaemia
acute renal failure

143
Q

Which type of cancer is associated with tumour lysis syndrome

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

144
Q

Symptoms of tumour lysis syndrome

A

Confusion and muscle cramps in legs following chemotherapy

145
Q

What drug is given prior to chemotherapy in Burkitt’s lymphoma to reduce risk of tumour lysis syndrome

A

Rasburicase - catalyses the conversion of uric acid to allantoin to allow for easier renal excretion

146
Q

Which virus is associated with Burkitt’s lymphoma

A

EBV (Epstein-Barr Virus)

147
Q

Which cause of hyperthyroidism may present with a tender / painful goitre

A

Subacute (De Quervain’s) thyroiditis

148
Q

Subacute (De Quervain’s) thyroiditis pattern of disease

A

Initially hyperthyroidism > longer term hypothyroidism

149
Q

Antibody in antiphospholipid syndrome

A

Anticardiolipin antibody

150
Q

Features of antiphospholipid syndrome

A

venous/arterial thrombosis
recurrent miscarriages
livedo reticularis
other features: pre-eclampsia, pulmonary hypertension

151
Q

What medication should be first prescribed in Phaeochromocytoma whilst awaiting surgery?

A

Phenoxybenzamine, an alpha-receptor blocker

152
Q

Features of phaeochromocytoma

A

Headaches, palpitations, sweating, and sustained hypertension

153
Q

Diagnostic test for phaeochromocytoma

A

24 hours urinary collection of metanephrines

154
Q

Which MEN group is associated with phaeochromocytoma

A

MEN II

155
Q

What is phaeochromocytoma?

A

A catecholamine secreting tumour

156
Q

What is Fournier’s gangrene?

A

Necrotising fasciitis of the genitalia or perineum

157
Q

Which medication most commonly causes Fournier’s gangrene?

A

SGLT-2 inhibitors e.g. dapigaflozin

158
Q

Most common cause of infection after renal transplant

A

Cytomegalovirus

159
Q

Which thyroid cancer leads to raised calcitonin and who does it typically affect?

A

Medullary - middle aged women

160
Q

Which malignancy is associated with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis?

A

MALT lymphoma

161
Q

Which medication has been shown to reduce the rate of cyst growth and disease progression in ADPKD

A

Tolvaptan

162
Q

How do you detect dehydration as a cause of decreased urinary output?

A

Urea that is proportionally higher than the rise in creatinine

163
Q

Which cancers are most likely to cause bony mets?

A

Prostate (ment), breast (women)

164
Q

Presenting symptoms of SLE

A

Fatigue
- Weight loss
- Arthralgia / joint pain
- Non-erosive arthritis
- Myalgia / muscle pain
- Fever
- (Photosensitive) malar rash
- Lymphadenopathy
- Splenomegaly
- Shortness of breath
- Pleuritic chest pain
- Mouth ulcers
- Hair loss
- Raynaud’s phenomenon
- Oedema (due to nephritis)

165
Q

1st line DMARD in SLE

A

Hydroxychloroquine

166
Q

Complications of SLE

A
  • Coronary artery disease
  • Hypertension
  • Anaemia
  • Pericarditis
  • Pleuritis
  • Pulmonary fibrosis / interstitial lung disease
  • Lupus nephritis
  • Psychosis / seizures / neuropsychiatric SLE
167
Q

2 most specific tests for SLE

A

Anti-double stranded DNA and Anti-Smith

168
Q

U&E abnormality to be worried about in rhabdomyolysis / AKI

A

Hyperkalaemia

169
Q

What is seen in Waterhouse- Friderichsen syndrome ?

A

Diffuse haemorrhage of adrenal glands on CT scan in a patient with sepsis / coagulopathy - a very poor prognostic sign

170
Q

Electrolyte abnormality in compression syndrome

A

Hyperkalaemia, secondary to muscle wasting / AKI

171
Q

Antibodies seen in Grave’s

A

TSH Receptor Antibody

172
Q

Most serious SE of carbimazole

A

Agranulocytosis

173
Q

Why do CKD patients get renal anaemia

A

Decreased EPO production

174
Q

Which part of the adrenal gland is responsible for adrenaline/noradrenaline secretion?

A

Medulla

175
Q

Which part of the adrenal gland is responsible for aldosterone secretion?

A

Zona glomerulosa

176
Q

Which part of the adrenal gland is responsible for cortisol secretion?

A

Zona fasciculata

177
Q

Which part of the adrenal gland is responsible for androgen secretion?

A

Zona reticularis

178
Q

Sarah’s mnemonic for adrenal gland and secretions

A

Make Good Sex, Go Find Rex (mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids, sex hormones) => (Glomerulosa, fasciculata, reticularis)

179
Q

Where are renal stones most likely to become lodged?

A

Pelviureteric junction / where renal pelvis becomes ureter
Crossing the pelvic brim
Vesicoureteric junction / where the ureter enters the bladder

180
Q

Features of nephritic syndrome

A

Haematuria / oliguria / mild proteinuria / fluid retention or oedema

181
Q

Causes of nephritic syndrome

A
  • Goodpastures / anti GBM
  • IgA nephropathy / Berger’s disease
  • Membranous nephropathy
  • Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
  • Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
  • Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis / crescentic glomerulonephritis
  • Henoch-Schonlein purpura
  • Microscopic polyangiitis / granulomatosis with polyangiitis
  • Lupus nephritis
182
Q

Treatment of hyponatraemia in SiADH

A

Fluid restriction / demeclocycline or tolvaptan

183
Q

Diagnostic test of choice in bladder cancer

A

Flexible cystoscopy

184
Q

Medical management of Raynaud’s

A

Nifedipine

Chat GPT (18 decks)

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