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Chat GPT > Emergencies > Flashcards

Emergencies Flashcards

1
Q

What is the initial dose of adrenaline for anaphylactic shock?

A

500mcg of 1:1000 IM (repeat every 5 minutes)

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2
Q

3 investigations in sepsis

A

Blood cultures, Urine output hourly, Lactate

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3
Q

What is the recommended initial dose of oxygen for pulmonary edema?

A

15 L via non-rebreathe mask

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4
Q

What is the cutoff diameter in primary and secondary pneumothorax to determine whether or not to aspirate

A

2 cm and 1 cm

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5
Q

What antibiotics are recommended for meningitis before urgent transfer to the hospital?

A

Benzylpenicillin or cefotaxime (give IM)

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6
Q

What is the secondary prevention for TIA with an ABCD2 score ≥4?

A

Clopidogrel 75mg for life

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7
Q

What is the treatment for unconscious hypoglycemia?

A

20% glucose 50mL IV or glucagon 1mg IM/SC

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8
Q

What is the fluid of choice for initial resuscitation in DKA?

A

0.9% sodium chloride 500mL boluses

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9
Q

What is the antidote for paracetamol poisoning?

A

Acetylcysteine / activated charcoal (if within 1 hour)

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10
Q

What is the specific antagonist for benzodiazepine poisoning?

A

Flumazenil

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11
Q

What medication is administered after three shocks in non-shockable cardiac arrest rhythms?

A

Amiodarone 300mg IV

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12
Q

What does MONAC stand for in the context of ACS treatment?

A

Morphine, Oxygen, Nitrates, Aspirin, Clopidogrel

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13
Q

What is the recommended treatment for stable broad complex tachycardia with an irregular rhythm?

A

Magnesium sulfate 2g IV

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14
Q

What is the recommended duration for secondary prevention of ischemic stroke with clopidogrel?

A

Lifelong

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15
Q

What symptoms may overlap between meningitis and subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A

Headache and neck stiffness

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16
Q

What type of hemorrhage presents with a lucid interval between loss of consciousness and rapid decline?

A

Extradural

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16
Q

What is the primary treatment for oesophageal varices-related upper GI bleed?

A

Terlipressin IV + endoscopic therapy (EVL) + antibiotic

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17
Q

What is the recommended treatment for conscious hypoglycemia?

A

Glucose 10-20g orally then a sustained carbohydrate

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18
Q

What symptoms may indicate aspirin poisoning?

A

Hyperventilation, tinnitus, vasodilatation

19
Q

What is the role of GTN (glyceryl trinitrate) in the management of pulmonary oedema?

A

Vasodilator for blood pressure control

20
Q

What is the recommended secondary prevention for ACS with the acronym ‘BADS’?

A

BB (bisoprolol), ACEi (ramipril), Dual antiplatelets (aspirin and clopidogrel), Statin (atorvastatin)

21
Q

What are the reversible causes of cardiac arrest included in ‘The H’s’?

A

Hypoxia, hypovolemia, hypo-/hyper-kalemia, hypothermia

22
Q

Complication of correction of chronic hypernatraemia too fast

A

cerebral oedema

23
Q

Sepsis 6 (3 in, 3 out)

A

In: oxygen, fluid challenge, broad-spectrum antibiotics

Out: Measure serum lactate, blood cultures, urine output

24
Q

What is acute hypercalcaemia management

A

IV fluids + loop diuretics

25
Q

Which transfusion blood product has the highest risk of bacterial contamination?

A

Platelet transfusion

26
Q

Common triggers for anaphylaxis

A

Seafood, nuts, beans, chocolate, eggs, grains

27
Q

Signs / symptoms of anaphylactic shock

A

Hypotension, tachycardia, widespread urticaria, swollen tongue, lips, eyes, laryngeal oedema, swollen epiglottis

28
Q

Why does blood pressure drop in anaphylactic shock?

A

Vasodilatation, increased vascular permeability, fluid loss from vascular space

29
Q

Which immunoglobulin and inflammatory cells are involved in anaphylaxis ?

A

IgE and mast cells

30
Q

What enzyme / test can be used to detect anaphylaxis?

A

Tryptase

31
Q

Dose of IM adrenaline in anaphylaxis of different age groups

A
  • Up to 6 years old = 150 mcg
  • 6-12 years old = 300 mcg
  • Above 12 = 500 mcg (0.5 ml 1 in 1000)
32
Q

Define refractory anaphylaxis and its management

A

2 doses of adrenaline (5 mins apart) fail to cease the reaction - seek specialist help to administer IV adrenaline

33
Q

Post-anaphylaxis management

A

Non-sedating antihistamine, refer to allergy specialist, adrenaline auto-injector, tryptase (if query diagnosis)

34
Q

When can we discharge patients following anaphylaxis?

A
  • 2 hours in most patients
  • up to 6 hours if they required 2 doses of adrenaline / have a history of biphasic reaction
  • 12 hours if they had refractory anaphylaxis / severely unwell
35
Q

ECG changes in hyperkalaemia

A

Absent P waves, tall tented T waves, widened QRS complexes, PR prolongation

36
Q

Which drug is administered in severe hyperkalaemia and why?

A

Calcium gluconate IV - stabilises the cardiac membrane

37
Q

Which 2 drugs are administered after calcium gluconate in severe hyperkalaemia and why?

A

Insulin and dextrose - to ensure potassium ions enter cells

38
Q

How can we differentiate between second degree and third degree burns?

A

Third degree is a full thickness burn with no pain and no blisters

39
Q

Common organic causes of reduced GCS

A

Head injury, SAH, intracerebral haemorrhage, ischaemic stroke, brain abscess,
meningitis, poisoning, trauma

40
Q

Non-brain causes of reduced GCS

A

Hepatic encephalopathy, hyperuraemic encephalopathy, sepsis

41
Q

Pre-operative assessment

A
  • Medical and drug history
  • FBC, U&Es, clotting, group and save, LFTs
  • CXR and ECG
  • Pregnancy test
  • Sickle cell test
  • Urinalysis
  • VTE risk
42
Q

Signs of opioid overdose on examination

A

Respiratory depression
Pinpoint pupils
Shallow breathing
Decreased GCS / GCS <15

43
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity is anaphylaxis?

A

Type 1

44
Q

What position should you place someone in with anaphylactic shock

A

Flat with legs raised
To maximise venous return to the heart

Chat GPT (18 decks)

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