Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Chat GPT > Cardiology > Flashcards

Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

How is heart rate determined on an ECG?

A

Count the number of big squares between two consecutive R waves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does “regularly irregular” on an ECG suggest?

A

Sinus arrhythmia, atrial flutter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the normal PR interval range?

A

3-5 small squares (0.12-0.2s).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does a prolonged QRS complex suggest?

A

Bundle branch block, hyperkalaemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which electrolyte imbalance shortens the QT interval?

A

Hypercalcaemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Apart from STEMI, what can ST elevation indicate?

A

Pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the significance of inverted T waves in V5 and V6?

A

Digoxin effect (reversed tick).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which artery supplies the lateral wall of the heart?

A

Left circumflex artery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How is stable angina relieved?

A

Rest or sublingual GTN within 5 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the first-line medication for chronic angina?

A

Beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does a delta wave indicate on ECG?

A

Wolf Parkinson White syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the ECG signs of hyperkalemia?

A

Tall tented T waves, prolonged QRS complex, absent P waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In hypokalemia, what changes are seen in the ECG?

A

Long PR interval and long QT interval.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is STEMI defined on an ECG?

A

ST elevation >1mm in ≥2 inferior leads (II, III, aVF) or >2mm in ≥2 adjacent anterior leads (V1-6), new LBBB, or posterior MI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name complications occurring within 0-24 hours of NSTEMI

A

Cardiac arrest (VF), AV block, acute heart failure, cardiogenic shock.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the ECG characteristic of Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome?

A

Shortened PR interval, prolonged QRS with slurred upstroke ‘delta’ wave, axis deviation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How is the rate controlled in atrial flutter?

A

Beta-blockers or non-dihydropyridine rate-limiting calcium channel blockers (diltiazem, verapamil).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How is rhythm controlled in atrial fibrillation?

A

Electrical cardioversion or pharmacological (flecainide IV, sotalol IV, or amiodarone IV).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How does atrial flutter present on an ECG?

A

Fixed block and sawtooth pattern.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the first-line treatment for stable narrow complex tachycardia?

A

Vagal maneuvers, Adenosine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How does atrial flutter present on an ECG?

A

Fixed block and sawtooth pattern.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the first-line treatment for regular broad complex ventricular tachycardia?

A

Amiodarone 300mg IV over 10-20 mins, followed by 900mg over 24 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the preferred treatment for irregular broad complex tachycardia, such as Torsade de Pointes?

A

Magnesium sulfate 2g IV.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the first-line treatment for sinus bradycardia and heart blocks?

A

Atropine 500mcg IV (repeat to max 3mg).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

In cardiac arrest, what is the initial approach after CPR and attaching a defibrillator?

A

Assess the rhythm - shockable (VF or pulseless VT) or non-shockable (PEA or asystole).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

In non-shockable cardiac arrest rhythms, what medication is administered after 2 minutes of CPR?

A

Adrenaline 1mg of 1:10,000 IV (repeat every 3-5 minutes).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the symptoms of left-sided heart failure?

A

Dyspnoea, orthopnoea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea, fatigue, pulmonary oedema, pleural effusion, cyanosis, pulsus alternans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the signs of right-sided heart failure?

A

Peripheral oedema, ascites, tender pulsatile hepatomegaly, raised JVP (with hepatojugular reflux).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the immediate treatment for acute pulmonary edema?

A

Oxygen 15L + diamorphine 1.25-2.5mg IV + furosemide 20-50mg IV + GTN.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What causes a soft S1 sound in valvular heart disease?

A

Mitral regurgitation due to incomplete valve closure, prolonged PR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When is a 4th heart sound heard?

A

Aortic stenosis, HOCM, HF, MI - always pathological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What causes a loud S1 sound in valvular heart disease

A

Mitral stenosis - Narrowed valve limits flow, shortened PR interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the symptoms associated with mitral regurgitation?

A

Left-sided heart failure symptoms, atrial fibrillation, displaced apex, thrill, pansystolic murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the common causes of mitral stenosis?

A

Rheumatic fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What symptoms are associated with aortic stenosis?

A

narrow pulse pressure, slow-rising pulse, displaced apex, heave, systolic thrill, ejection systolic murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the common causes of aortic regurgitation?

A

Rheumatic fever, endocarditis, ankylosing spondylitis, Marfan’s and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the signs indicating the severity of aortic regurgitation?

A

Collapsing pulse,wide pulse pressure, displaced apex, heave, diastolic thrill, early diastolic murmur (Austin Flint murmur).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the main differences between mechanical and prosthetic heart valves?

A

Mechanical valves have a longer lifespan, are suitable for younger patients, and require lifelong anticoagulation (warfarin). Prosthetic valves have a shorter lifespan, are suitable for older patients or those at high risk of bleeding or wishing to conceive, and require anticoagulation for 3 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the components of tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)?

A

Pulmonary stenosis (RVOT), RVH, Overriding aorta, VSD. Ejection systolic murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How does transposition of the great arteries typically present?

A

Presents at birth with severe cyanosis. Diagnosed by echo and CXR (‘egg on a string’ heart)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the symptoms of pericarditis?

A

Sharp pain worse on lying flat and better on sitting forwards, fever, pericardial rub.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the common causes of infective endocarditis?

A

Strep viridans / staph aureus in IVDU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for rheumatic fever?

A

Jones criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What type of chorea can occur in rheumatic fever

A

Sydenhams chorea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which types of pacing are used in bradycardia?

A

Pacing includes transcutaneous (temporary) pacing and transvenous (permanent) pacing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How is pericarditis diagnosed?

A

Diagnosed by ECG showing widespread PR depression and ST (concave) elevation. Pericardial rub

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the pathogenesis of rheumatic fever?

A

Caused by strep pyogenes (2-4 weeks after pharyngeal infection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the genetic basis of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy?

A

Autosomal dominant, mutation of the gene encoding myosin contractile proteins. Features include LV hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What ECG finding is associated with third-degree heart block?

A

complete heart block, is characterized by a complete dissociation between atrial and ventricular contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the criteria for rate control in atrial fibrillation (AF)?

A

Rate control in AF is recommended for patients older than 65 years or those with a history of ischemic heart disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the first-line treatment for stable ventricular tachycardia?

A

The first-line treatment for stable ventricular tachycardia is amiodarone 300mg IV over 10-20 minutes, followed by 900mg over 24 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which individuals are at increased risk of dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

Alcoholics

52
Q

Target INR in aortic valve mechanical replacement

A

3.0

53
Q

Target INR in mitral valve mechanical replacement

A

3.5

54
Q

Which cardio drug class can lead to gum swelling (gingival hyperplasia)?

A

CCBs e.g. amlodipine

55
Q

Imaging for acute pericarditis

A

Transthoracic echocardiogram

56
Q

Which class of medications are contraindicated in aortic stenosis?

A

Nitrates

57
Q

How to differentiate between TRALI and TACO

A

TRALI = hypotension, TACO = hypertension

58
Q

How is TRALI treated?

A

Titrate O2, IV fluids, consider escalation of care

59
Q

What is a clinical sign of Takayasu’s arteritis?

A

Absent upper limb pulses

60
Q

What is seen on ophthalmoscope in endocarditis?

A

Roth spots

61
Q

How do you take blood cultures in infective endocarditis?

A

3 sets of cultures from 3 different sites on 3 different occasions before starting ABx

62
Q

Which group of drugs can cause ototoxicity?

A

Loop diuretics

63
Q

What is heard on auscultation in pulmonary hypertension?

A

a loud S2

64
Q

Thrombophlebitis (superficial VTE) management

A

Analgesia + compression stockings

65
Q

Which ECG sign is most specific for acute pericarditis?

A

PR depression

66
Q

Pathogen that causes endocarditis within 2 months of valve replacement

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

67
Q

Pathogen that causes endocarditis > 2 months of valve replacement

A

Staphylococcus aureus

68
Q

Symptoms of rheumatic fever

A

Recent sore throat, chorea (jerk, irregular movements) and polyarthralgia

69
Q

Dermatological condition associated with rheumatic fever

A

Erythema marginatum

70
Q

1st line management of acute pericarditis

A

Combination of NSAID and colchicine

71
Q

Surgical intervention for WPW syndrome

A

Catheter ablation

72
Q

Which drugs should be avoided in AF and atrial flutter with WPW

A

AV node blockers e.g. verapamil, adenosine, CCBs, beta blockers

73
Q

What is heard on auscultation in cardiac tamponade?

A

Muffled heart sounds

74
Q

Gold standard investigation in cardiac tamponade

A

Echocardiogram

75
Q

What percentage reduction do we aim for with statins?

A

At least 40%

76
Q

Myocarditis clinical picture

A

ST elevation and acute pulmonary oedema in a young patient with a recent flu-like illness

77
Q

How are unstable NSTEMI patients managed?

A

Immediate coronary angiogram

78
Q

Most common cause of death post-MI

A

Ventricular fibrilation

79
Q

Which post-MI complication leads to mitral regurgitation

A

Papillary muscle rupture

80
Q

Symptoms of digoxin toxicity

A

Yellow-green tinge to vision + lethargy

81
Q

Which medications can cause torsades des pointes?

A

Macrolide antibiotics e.g. clarithromycin

82
Q

In ACS management, which medication is contraindicated in hypotension?

A

Nitrates

83
Q

Hypercalcaemia ECG changes

A

Short QT, bradycardia, widened QRS and prolonged PR

84
Q

Initial management of hypercalcaemia

A

0.9% NaCl replacement (3-4 litres a day)

85
Q

Management of hypercalcaemia if fluid replacement is unsuccessful

A

IV bisphosphonates / calcitonin OR loop diuretics

86
Q

Which cancers can cause hypercalcaemia

A

Lymphoma, breast, lung, myeloma

87
Q

Main ECG change in hypercalcaemia

A

Short QT

88
Q

SVC obstruction emergency management

A

Dexamethasone

89
Q

Symptoms of SVC

A

Bulging of facial veins, SOB, raised ICP signs, Pemberton’s test (cyanosis when they lift their arms)

90
Q

How should GTN be taken?

A

Wait 5 mins between doses, take while sitting, if after 10 mins (3 doses - 999), SE = headache

91
Q

Target INR for AF

A

2-3

92
Q

Mechanism of action of beta blockers and CCBs in angina-relief

A

Beta blockers reduce heart rate and strength of contraction (reducing O2 and perfusion demand of myocardium)

CCBs relax coronary artery smooth muscles (increases O2 and perfusion to heart)

93
Q

Which valvular lesion predisposes you to AF and why?

A

Mitral stenosis (increased atrial workload > LA hypertrophy > SA node disturbance)

94
Q

Below which ABPI suggests some intermittent claudication / peripheral arterial disease?

A

< 0.9 (Leg / arm ABPI)

95
Q

1st line investigation in intermittent claudication

A

Doppler ultrasound

96
Q

Define intermittent claudication

A

pain in calf/leg/buttock when walking for given distance, relieved by rest.

97
Q

The 6 Ps of acute limb ischaemia

A

Perishing cold, pale, pulseless, paraesthesia, paralysis, painful

98
Q

Features of critical limb ischaemia / Buerger’s disease

A

Foot pain at rest, burning pain at night, relieved by hanging foot off side of bed, gangrene / ulceration

99
Q

Management of critical limb ischaemia

A

Surgical emergency: needs revascularisation within 4-6 hours to save limb

100
Q

When should you suspect emboli in critical limb ischaemia ?

A

No previous vessel disease. 40% cases are thrombotic, 38% are emboli. Do urgeny arteriopgraphy. May give thrombolysis if embolic.

101
Q

Conservative management options for peripheral vascular disease

A

Antiplatelets e.g. clopidogrel, treat hypertension, smoking cessation, supervised exercise programs

  • Naftidrofuryl oxalate (vasoactive drug – if don’t want revascularisation)
102
Q

Surgical options for peripheral vascular disease

A

Endovascular stent, bypass graft, transluminal angioplasty, amputation

103
Q

Imaging modalities in acute limb ischaemia / critical ischaemia

A

MR/CT angiogram, colour duplex USS

104
Q

In terms of area of lower limb affected, how do we differentiated between peripheral arterial vs venous ulcers?

A

Arterial ulcers tend to be more distal

105
Q

Left ventricular hypertrophy signs on ECG?

A

ST depression, prolonged QRS, inverted T waves, tall R waves in V5 and V6, S waves in V1 and V2, left axis deviation

106
Q

Cardiac complication of aortic stenosis

A

LVH > L-sided heart failure

107
Q

Long-term complications of untreated aortic stenosis

A

Two from: Sudden death, Arrhythmia such as AF or VT, Left heart failure, Angina
Right heart failure, Cerebral embolus

108
Q

Clopidogrel mechanism of action

A

Binds to platelets’ P2Y12 receptor and inhibits platelet aggregation

109
Q

Which clotting factors does heparin act on?

A

IIa and Xa

110
Q

Which drug acts the same way as clopidogrel (binds to P2Y12 receptor on platelets), but reversibly?

A

Ticagrelor

111
Q

Drugs used for rate control in AF

A

Beta blocker, rate-limiting CCBs (verapamil / diliatazem), digoxin if sedentary lifestyle

112
Q

Beck’s triad of cardiac tamponade +/- pulse change

A

hypotension, raised JVP, muffled heart sounds +/- pulsus parodoxus (10mmHg decrease in arterial systolic pressure with inspiration)

113
Q

Drugs that may cause pericarditis

A

Isoniazid, phenytoin, anticoags

114
Q

Most common causes of pericarditis

A

Idiopathic or viral (coxsackie, EBV etc)

115
Q

Causes of secondary hypertension

A

Phaeochromocytoma, conns, cushings, renal artery stenosis, hyperthyroid, acromegaly

116
Q

Examination findings in infective endocarditis

A
  • Pallor / Conjunctival Pallor
  • Clubbing
  • Roth Spots
  • Osler’s Nodes
  • Splinter Haemorrhages
  • Splenomegaly
  • Janeway’s Lesions
  • Petechiae
  • Hypotension
  • Tachycardia
  • Tachypnoea
117
Q

Risk factors for infective endocarditis

A

Dental Surgery / Prosthetic Heart Valves / Thoracotomy / Valvular Disease / Rheumatic Heart Disease / Indwelling Cardiac Devices / Catheterisation / Haemodialysis / Immunosuppression
IVDU

118
Q

ABCDE signs of heart failure on CXR

A
  • Alveolar oedema
  • Kerley B lines/ interstitial oedema
  • Cardiomegaly
  • Dilated prominent upper lobe vessels
  • Pleural effusion (bilateral)
119
Q

Signs of pulmonary oedema / cor pulmonale on examination

A
  • Hypertension
  • 3rd heart sound
  • Raised JVP
  • Peripheral oedema
  • Frothy sputum
  • Tachycardia
  • Fine crackles
  • Dyspnoea
120
Q

Amiodarone monitoring requirements

A

TFTs and LFTs

121
Q

Define atherosclerosis formation

A

Accumulation of lipids, macrophages, and smooth muscle cells in the intima of large and medium sized arteries.

122
Q

Define 1st degree heart block

A

Indicated on an ECG by a prolonged PR interval

123
Q

Define Mobitz I (Wenckebach) - second degree heart block

A

has progressive prolongation of the PR interval followed by a dropped QRS complex

124
Q

Define Mobitz II - second degree heart block

A

AV block is a disease of the distal conduction system (His-Purkinje system). Characterised by intermittently non-conducted P waves not preceded by PR prolongation and not followed by PR shortening

125
Q

Define 3rd degree heart block

A

Complete absence of AV conduction. E.g. atrial rate is ~100 bpm, ventricular rate ~40 bpm. 2 rates are independent.

126
Q

Actions of the RAAS system

A
  • Increased sympathetic activity
  • Increased tubular reabsorption of Na and Cl. K+ excretion. H2O retention.
  • Increased aldosterone secretion resulting in Na reabsorption in DCT.
  • Arteriolar vasoconstriction
  • ADH secretion leading to H2O reabsorption
  • Overall salt and water retention and an increase in BP.
127
Q

Causes of secondary hypertension

A

Renal artery stenosis Chronic renal disease Primary hyperaldosteronism Stress
Sleep apnea
Hyper- or hypothyroidism Pheochromocytoma Preeclampsia
Aortic coarctation

128
Q

How do we define broad complex tachycardia?

A

QRS of more than 0.12s

Chat GPT (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions