Endocrine and Nervous System Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Cervical Plexus

A

Serves the head, neck and shoulders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Brachial Plexus

A

Serves the chest, shoulders, arms and hands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Lumbar Plexus

A

Serves the back, abdomen, groin, thighs, knees and calves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Sacral Plexus

A

Serves the pelvis, buttocks, genitals, things, calves and feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Solar or Celiac Plexus

A

Serves internal organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Femoral Nerve

A

Sensory (afferent) and motor (efferent) nerve supplying the front of the thigh and part of the lower leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Common fibular nerve (common peroneal)

A

Sensory and motor nerve supplying the knee and superior tibiofibular joints and tibialis anterior muscle. It divides intro superficial and deep fibular (peroneal) nerves; a branch of the sciatic nerve supplying movement and sensation to the lower leg, foot and toes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Intercostal Nerves

A

The upper thoracic nerves innervate primarily the chest and upper abdomen; the only nerves not originating from the plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Median Nerve

A

Innervates most flexor muscles of the forearm and provides sensation for the thumb, index, middle fingers, and a portion of the ring finger. It is the only never passing through the carpal tunnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Musculocutaneous Nerve

A

Sensory and motor nerve of the coracobrachialis, biceps branchii and the greater part of the brachialis (the bicep and side of forearm). It arises from the brachial plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Radial Nerve

A

Innervates the triceps branchii muscle of the arm and all 12 muscles in the posterior osteofascial compartment of the forearm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Saphenous Nerve

A

Sensory nerve of the knee joint, subsartorial and patellar plexuses and the skin on medial side of the leg and foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Sciatic Nerve

A

The largest nerve of the body, derived from the spinal nerves L4 through S3, runs through the buttocks and down the lower limb. It supplies the skin of the leg and the muscles of the back and the thigh. It divides just above the knee into the tibial and common fibular (common peroneal) nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Subcostal Nerves

A

Sensory and motor nerves of the skin of the lower abdomen and lateral side of the gluteal region, and parts of abdominal transverse, oblique and rectus muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Tibial Nerve

A

Sensory and motor nerve, supplies the muscles and skin of the knee, calf and sole of the foot, and the toes; a branch of the sciatic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Ulnar Nerve

A

Provides sensation for the little finger and a portion of the ring finger and innervates some muscles of the hand and forearm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Acromegaly

A

Overgrowth of bone and soft tissue, especially in the hands, feet and face caused by excess growth hormone in an adult. The name comes from acro meaning extremity and megal/o meaning abnormal enlargement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cushing’s Syndrome

A

An excess of cortisol, caused either by an overactive adrenal gland or glucocorticoid medications; symptoms may include excess fatty tissue of the face, neck, and body, weight gain, curvature of spine and muscle wearkness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Goiter

A

An enlarged thyroid gland caused by overproduction of thyroid hormone (TSH) or a neoplasm. A diet deficient in iodine can result in goiter; however this is rarely the case

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hyperparathyroidism

A

Overactive parathyroid; may result in bone deterioration, reduced renal function, kidney stones and other difficulties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Hyperaldosteronism

A

Oversecretion of aldosterone by the adrenal glands; results in fluid retention and hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Hypoparathyroidism

A

Underactive parathyroid; may result in muscle cramps and cataracts amongst other difficulties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Hypothyroidism

A

Underactive thyroid; too little thyroid horomose produced (the opposite of hyperthyroidism) may result in children with intelletual disability and small stature. In adults, this condition results in lower metabolism, fatigue and fluid in the tissue (myxedema)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Panhypopituitarism

A

Inadequate or absent production of the anterior pituitary hormones which is caused by damage or absence of pituitary gland. This may result in impaired sexual function, weight loss, fatigue, depression and other symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Prolactinoma

A

A benign tumor of the pituitary gland with excess production of a hormone called prolactin. In women. high blood levels of prolactin can result in infertility and changes in menstruation. In men, the most common symptom of prolactinoma is impotence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Throiditis

A

inflammation of the thyroid gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Thyrotoxicosis

A

Condition resulting from overactivity of the thyroid gland. Symptoms include anxiety, irritability, weight loss, and sweating. The main example of the thyrotoxicosis is Graves Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)

A

A disorder marked by muscular weakness, spasticity and exaggerated reflexes caused by degeneration of motor neurons; it’s known as Lou Gehrig disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Ataxia

A

Lack of muscle movement coordination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Cerebral Lipidoses

A

Genetic disorder causing lipid accumulation the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Cerebral Palsy

A

A nonprogressive neuromuscular disorder usually caused by damage to the CNS near the time of birth. May include spasticity, involuntary movements, or ataxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Dyskinesia

A

Uncontrolled muscle movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Hydrocephalus

A

Increased accumulation of CSF in or around the brain as a result of obstructed flow. May be caused by tumor, inflammation, hemorrhage or congenital abnormality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Myelopathy

A

Dysfunction of the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Myoclonus

A

Spontaneous, uncontrolled twitching of muscle or group of muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Neuropathy

A

Dysfunction of the nerves (for example, peripheral neuropathy is dysfunction of the nerves of the peripheral nervous system)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Paraplegia

A

Paralysis of the legs and lower parts of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Reye’s Syndrome

A

A rare acute encephalopathy occurring in children after viral infections. The liver, kidney, and heart may be involced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Syringomyelia

A

A progressive disease marked by formation of fluid filled cavities in the spinal chord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Anoxic Brain Damage

A

Brain injury due to lack of oxygen. Codes for anoxia due to birth trauma are found in chapter 15, pregnancy, childbirth and peurperium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Cataplexy

A

Sudden onset of muscle weakness with loss of tone and strength; triggered by intense emotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Diplegia

A

Paralysis of like parts on either side of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Dural Tear

A

The dura is the outermost of the three layers comprising the meninges, which surround the brain and spinal cord. A tear in the dura may result in loss of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Grand Mal Status

A

Sudden loss o consciousness followed by generalized convulsions in epilepsy; see also Petit Mal Stratus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Encephalopathy

A

Disorder or disease of the brain; it does not refer to a single disease but rather to a syndrome caused by any number of diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Epilepsy

A

A brain disorder characterized by electrical like disturbances. May be convulsive or nonconvulsive, generalized or localized; symptoms may include occasional impairment and loss of consciousness, abnormal movement and sensory disturbance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Hemiplegia

A

Paralysis affecting one side of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Monoplegia

A

Paralysis in on limb (arm or leg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Multiple Sclerosis

A

The body directs antibodies and white blood cells against proteins in the myelin sheath surrounding nerves in the brain and spinal cord, causing inflammation and injury to the sheath and ultimately to the nerves. The damage slows or blocks muscle coordination, visual sensation and other nerve signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Narcolepsy

A

Brief, recurrent, uncontrollable episodes of sound sleep, often during the day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Petit Mal Status

A

Minor, involuntary muscle movement or brief (usually less than 15 seconds) disturbance in brain function (staring spell) due to abnormal electrical activity in the brain. Person is usually wide awake and thinking clearly immediately after the seizure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Quadriplegic

A

Paralysis in all four limbs (arms and legs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Bell’s Palsy

A

Paralysis or weakness of the muscles on one side of the face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

A

Numbness and weakness of the hand caused by pressure on the median nerve as it passes through a tunnel formed by carpal bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Causalgia

A

Intense burning pain and sensitivity to vibration or touch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Demyelination

A

Damage to the myelin sheath of neurons, occurs in Multiple Sclerosis (MS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Geniculate Ganglionitis

A

Involves severe pain deep in the ear, may be caused by compression of the somatic sensory branch of Cranial Nerve VII. This may also develop following herpes zoster oticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Mononeuritis

A

Inflammation of a single nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Muscular Dystrophy (MD)

A

A group of hereditary muscular disorders marked by progressive weakness and muscular atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Myoneural Disorder

A

Disorders affecting both muscles and nerves (for example, myasthenia gravis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Myotonia

A

Slow relaxation of the muscles after voluntary contraction or electrical stimulation; individuals with myotonia (a symptom of certain neuromuscular disorders) may have trouble releasing their grip on objects or may have difficulty rising from a sitting position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Neuralgic Amyotrophy (Parsonage-Aldren-Turner Syndrome, branchial neuritis, brachial plexitis)

A

Pain and muscle weakness affecting the upper extremity often in response to stressors such as surgery, infection, minor trauma etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Polyneuritis

A

Inflammation of several peripheral nerves simultaneously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Trigeminal Neuralgia

A

Inflammation of the trigeminal nerve. Cranial Nerve V (CN V) delivers feeling to the face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Actigraphy Testing

A

Measures the movement of a limb; the term actigraphy refers to the methods utilizing miniaturized sensors translating physical motion into a numeric presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Anastomosis

A

A passage or communication between two vessels or organs. May be normal or pathologic or may be created surgically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Chemodenervation

A

An interruption of messages sent between nerves and muscles by administration of a chemical substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Chemonucleolysis

A

Injection of an enzyme to dissolve the gelatinous cushioning material in an intervertebral disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Cranioplasty

A

Surgical repair of a defect or deformity of a skill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Decompression

A

When referring to nerves of the spine: Freeing of a pinched nerve, for instance from between adjacent vertebra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Encephalocele (Cephalocele, Meningoencephalocele)

A

Rare disorder in which the bones of the skull do not close completely, creating a gap though which cerebral spinal fluid; brain tissue and the meninges can protrude into a sac like formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Fossa

A

Hollow cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

F-Wave

A

A voltage change observed after electrical stimulation is applied to the skin surface above the distal region of a nerve; often used to measure nerve conduction velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

H-Reflex

A

Hoffman Reflex. A reflectory reaction of muscles after electrical stimulation of sensory fibers in their innervating nerves (for example, those located behind the knee)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Ligation

A

A tie or bandage, the process of binding or tying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Meninges

A

The three membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord (singular: meninx) (root: mening/o, meninge/o)

77
Q

Meningocele

A

Protrusion through a bone defect in the vertebral column of the meninges covering the spinal cord

78
Q

Myelomeningocele

A

A birth defect in which the backbone and spinal canal do not close before birth; a type of spina bifida (a developmental birth defect caused by the incomplete closure of the embryonic neural tube). The spinal cord and meninges protrude

79
Q

Neurolytic Agent

A

Agent used to destroy nerves; for instance, alcohol, phenol, etc

80
Q

Osteomyelitis

A

Inflammation of bone and bone marrow caused by infection, usually bacterial

81
Q

Spinal tap

A

Spinal puncture; a procedure to withdraw cerebrospinal fluid

82
Q

Stereotactic Head Frame

A

A guiding device, position the head for precise treatment during a stereotactic radiosurgery

83
Q

Tentorium Cerebelli (Cerebellar Tantorium)

A

An extension of the dura mater, separates the cerebrum from the cerebellum

84
Q

Transection

A

To divide by cutting transversely; a cross section along a long axis

85
Q

Trephination (trepanning, trephining, burr hole)

A

Cutting a piece of bone out of the skill; the intrument used is a trepan or trephin

86
Q

Vasospasm

A

A condition in which blood vessels spasm, leading to vasoconstriction and possible stroke or other injury; may arise in the context of subarachnoid hemorrhage

87
Q

Zygapophyseal Joint (Z joint, paravertebral facet joint, facet joint)

A

Located on the posterior spine on each side of the vertebrae where it overlaps the neighboring vertebrae; the facet joints provide stability and give the spine the ability to ben and twist. They are made up of two surfaces of the adjacent vertebra that are separated by a thin layer of cartilage

88
Q

Acous, acus

A

sound, hearing

89
Q

blephar/o

A

eyelid

90
Q

canth/o

A

corner of eyelid

91
Q

cochle/o

A

conclea (inner ear)

92
Q

conjecntiv/o

A

conjunctival

93
Q

dacry/o

A

tears, lacrimal sac or duct

94
Q

dipl/o

A

two

95
Q

goni/o

A

angle

96
Q

ir/i, irit/o, irid/o

A

iris

97
Q

kerat/o

A

corna

98
Q

myring/o

A

tympanic membrane

99
Q

-opia

A

condition of having a disease of the eye(s)

100
Q

ot/o

A

ear

101
Q

phac/o

A

lens

102
Q

phot/o

A

light

103
Q

-ptosis

A

drooping, downward displacement, prolapse

104
Q

retin/o

A

retina

105
Q

rhin/o

A

nose

106
Q

scler/o

A

hard, sclera (of eye)

107
Q

stapedi/o

A

stapes

108
Q

tars/o

A

margin of eyelid

109
Q

trabecul/o

A

relating to meshwork for drainage of aqueous humor

110
Q

uve/o

A

uvea (of eye)

111
Q

vitre/o

A

vitreous

112
Q

Acoustic Neuroma

A

A tumor of the eighth cranial nerve sheath; although benign, it can press on surrounding tissue and produce symptoms; also called an acoustic or vestibular schwannoma or acoustic neurilemmoma

113
Q

After-Cataract

A

When a cataract is removed from the eye the physician opts to retain the posterior outermost shell so there remains an organic separation between the posterior and anterior chambers. Later, this remaining shell may develop opacities as well, and this is called after cataract or secondary cataract

114
Q

Anterior Segment

A

The cornea up to the vitreous body which includes the aqueous humor, iris and lens

115
Q

Aqueous Humor

A

Fluid that fills the anterior and posterior chamber of the eye

116
Q

Blepharaplasty

A

Surgical repair of the eyelid

117
Q

Cataract

A

Opacity of the lens of the eye

118
Q

Cerymen

A

The brownish, wax like secretion formed in the external ear canal to protect the ear and prevent infection. Also known as ear wax

119
Q

Cholesteatoma

A

A benign growth of skin in the middle ear, usually caused by chronic otitis media

120
Q

Choroid

A

The middle vascular layer between the retina and the sclera in the posterior segment of the eye. The choroid nourishes the retina

121
Q

Ciliary Body

A

The muscular portion of the uvea that surrounds the lens and adjusts its shape for near and far vision

122
Q

Cochlea

A

The coiled portion of the inner ear that contains the receptors for hearing

123
Q

Conduction

A

Receptions or conveyance of sound, heat, or electricity. Sound waves are conducted to the inner ear through bones in the skull

124
Q

Conjunctiva

A

The mucous membrane that lines the eyelids and covers the eyeball’s anterior surface

125
Q

Cornea

A

The clear, anterior portion of the sclera

126
Q

Crystalline Lens

A

A convex disc suspended on threads just behind the iris

127
Q

Dacryolith

A

Calculus in the lacrimal sac or duct

128
Q

Endolymph

A

Fluid within the semicircular canals and the tubes of the cochlea of the inner ear

129
Q

Enucleation

A

Removal of a structure such as the eyeball

130
Q

Esotropia

A

A condition where the eye deviates inward

131
Q

Eustachian Tube

A

A tube in the ear linking the middle ear to the nasopharynx. This tube equalizes pressure between the middle ear and the outer world

132
Q

Evisceration

A

A procedure where the contents of the eyeball are scooped out but the sclera shell remains connected to the eye muscles so that a prosthesis fitted into the globe will have natural movement

133
Q

Exenteration

A

Removal of a complete structure and the surrounding skin, fat, muscle and bone

134
Q

External Auditory Meatus

A

Tube that extends from the pinna of the ear to the tympanic membrane

135
Q

Exotropia

A

A condition where the eye deviates outward

136
Q

Glaucoma

A

An eye disease cause by increased intraocular pressure that damages the optic disk and causes vision loss. Usually results from faulty fluid drainage from the anterior eye

137
Q

Goniotomy

A

A procedure where an opening is made in the trabecular meshwork of the front part of the eye. The provider uses a goniolens during the procedure

138
Q

Hypertropia

A

A condition of misalignment of the eyes (strabismus), whereby the visual axis of one eye is higher than the fellow fixating eye

139
Q

Incus

A

The middle ossicle (bone) in the middle ear

140
Q

Iris

A

The muscular colored ring between the lens and the cornea; regulates the amount of light that enters the eye by altering the size of the pupil at it’s center

141
Q

Limbus

A

The border where the cornea meets the sclera. Also known as the sclerocorneal junction

142
Q

Malleus

A

The ossicle (bone) in the middle ear that picks up vibration from the tympanic membrane, which is in contact with the tympanic membrane and the incus

143
Q

Mastoid

A

A bone in the skull just behind the ear containing tiny air cells that also form a conductive path for sound

144
Q

Mastoiditis

A

Inflammation of the air cells of the mastoid process

145
Q

Meniere’s Disease

A

A disease associated with increased fluid pressure in the inner ear and characterized by hearing loss, veritgo and tinnitus

146
Q

Microtia

A

A congential deformity of the ear whereby the pinna (external ear) in undeveloped

147
Q

Nystagmus

A

Reflexive jerky eye movements as a response to the messages of the inner ear

148
Q

Optic Nerve

A

The nerve that transmits images from the eye to the brain. Damage to the optic nerve can result in loss of or impaired vision

149
Q

Ossicles

A

The small bones of the middle ear; the malleus, incus, and stapes

150
Q

Ottis Media

A

Inflammation of the middle ear with accumulation of serous (watery) or mucoid fluid

151
Q

Oval Window

A

A membrane covered window from the inner ear to the middle ear

152
Q

Perilymph

A

Surrounds the semicircular canals, utricle, and saccule of the vestibular system and it surrounds the ducts in the cochlea. Inner channels are filled with endolymph

153
Q

Puncta

A

Tiny opening of the tear ducts

154
Q

Pupil

A

The opening at the center of the iris

155
Q

Refraction

A

The bending of light rays as they pass through the eye to focus on a specific point on the retina; also, the determination and correction of ocular refractive errors

156
Q

Retina

A

The innermost, light sensitive layer of the eye; contains the rods and cones, the specialized receptor cells for vision

157
Q

Retinal Detachment

A

The retina is freed from the blood-rich choroid at the back of the ye. When the retinal layer floats away, it loses it’s supply of nutrients. Nutrients must return, or vision is lost.

158
Q

Retrobulbar

A

Space behind the eye

159
Q

Round Window

A

A membrane-covered window that separates the middle ear from the inner ear, allowing vibrations to pass through to the cochlea

160
Q

Round Window

A

A membrane covered window that separates the middle ear from the inner ear, allowing vibrations to pass through to the cochlea

161
Q

Sclera

A

The outer coat of the globe and is continuous with the dura via the dural sheath of the optic nerve at the back of the eye. The sclera at the front of the eye is known as the white of the eye and is covered with a thin protective layer of conjunctiva

162
Q

Sclerocorneal Junction

A

The ring where the cornea meets the sclera. Also known as the limbus

163
Q

Semicircular Canals

A

The three curved channels of the inner ear that hold receptors for equilibrium

164
Q

Stapes

A

The ossicle (bone) in the middle ear that is in contact with the inner ear

165
Q

Strabismus

A

A condition where the eyes are not properly aligned with each other

166
Q

Tenon’s Capsule

A

Connective tissue surrounding the posterior eyeball

167
Q

Trachoma

A

An infection caused by chlamydia trachomatis leading to inflammation and scarring of the cornea and conjunctiva; a common cause of blindness in underdeveloped countries

168
Q

Tympanic Membrane

A

The membrane between the external auditory canal and the middle ear (tympanic cavity); the eardrum. It serves to transmit sound waves to the ossicles of the middle ear

169
Q

Uvea

A

The middle, vascular layer of the eye; consists of the choroid, ciliary body and iris

170
Q

Vestibular Schwannoma

A

A benign tumor arising from nerve cells of the auditory nerve (eighth cranial nerve)

171
Q

Vestibule

A

The chamber in the inner ear that holds some of the receptors for equilibrium

172
Q

Vertigo

A

A whirling or spinning perception of motion resulting in the loss of balance

173
Q

Visual Field

A

The total area that can be seen by peripheral vision

174
Q

Vitreous Humor

A

A gel like mass that fills the large posterior segment of the eye

175
Q

Craniectomy and Craniotomy

A

Bony opening cut into the skull. Section of skull, called a bone flap is removed to access the brain underneath. If bone flap not replaced called a craniectomy

176
Q

Stereotaxis

A

he process by which neurosurgeons use MRI or CT imaging studies, targeted algorithms and a computer workstation to precisely locate and target a tumor or other lesion inside the brain

177
Q

Neurostimulator

A

an electronic device that delivers electrical signals to the brain or elsewhere in the nervous system, typically in order to block pain or treat neurological disorders. These can be surgically implanted.

178
Q

Central Nervous System

A

Brain and spinal cord

179
Q

Peripheral Nervous System

A

Connects the Central Nervous System (Brain and spinal cord) to the remainder of the body

180
Q

Frontal Lobe

A

Front part of brain. Planning, organizing, problem solving and higher cognitive functions.

181
Q

Temporal Lobe

A

Memory, sorting new info, evaluating hearing input and sense of smell

182
Q

Brainstem

A

Breathing, digestion, heart rate, blood pressure. Connects brain to spinal cord.

183
Q

Cerebellum

A

Coordinate movement

184
Q

Occipital Lobe

A

Back of brain, processes visual info

185
Q

Parietal lobes

A

Behind the frontal and above the temporal. Control sensation, visual perception of the spatial relationship with objects. Left parietal lobe processes spoken and written info

186
Q

Neuroendoscope

A

Small tubular type instrument with fiberoptic light source used to view the brain and spinal cord

187
Q

Shunt

A

Narrow tube that allows excess cerebrospinal fluid that builds up inside the ventricles in the brain, to drain into another part of the body

188
Q

Fenestration

A

surgically created opening or cutting of a small hole in a surface such as a membrane

189
Q

Ventricles of the brain

A

Chambers in the brain filled with cerebrospinal fluid CSF