EM MED Chest Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 7 components of the TIMI score

A

Age older than 65

More than 3 risk fxs

Prior stenosis >50%

St segment changes

2 or more anginal events w/in 24 hours

Asprin use w/in 7 days

Elevated Cardiac Markers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Components of a HEART score

A

History
(Slightly sus-0, Mod sus-1, high sus-2)

EKG
(No change-0, Non specific T wave change -, ST depressions-2)

AGE
(<45-0, 45-64-1, >65-2)

Risk fx
(None-0, 1-2-1, <3-2)

Initial Troponin
(NML-0, 1-3x NML-1, >3x ULN-2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When should NSTEMI pts get PCI

A

refractory angina

hemodynamic or electrical instability

patients at increased risk for clinical events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If fibrinolytics fail, rescue PCI is recommended for patients:

A

in cardiogenic shock who are <75 years old

with severe heart failure or pulmonary edema

with hemodynamically compromising ventricular arrhythmias

in whom fibrinolytic therapy has failed and a moderate or large area of myocardium is at risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

STEMI patients who received fibrinolytics should get full-dose anticoagulants for a minimum of

A

48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

C/I for ACEI

A

hypotension

bilateral renal artery stenosis

renal failure

history of cough

angioedema due to prior angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Verapamil and Diltizem benefit what ACS pts

A

Verapamil and diltiazem are potentially beneficial in patients
with
- ongoing ischemia
-atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response who do not have congestive heart failure
-left ventricular dysfunction
-atrioventricular block
-when β-adrenergic antagonists are contraindicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the measurement for Inferior vena cava to Dx Acute HF

A

An IVC size >2 cm or collapsibility index of <50% is indicative of elevated central venous pressure

Absent pulmonary disease, these are specific for acute HF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A pt is in normotensive heart failure

And has never taken diuretics

What is the recommended dose

A

If the patient is on furosemide 80 mg/PO twice a day, then an initial ED dose is 80 to 200 mg/IV bolus

Loop diuretic naïve? —> start with furosemide 40 mg/IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

MC findings in Dilated Cardiomyopathy

A

LVH and LAE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Role of Amioderone or ICD in Acute heart failure

A

Patients at risk for sudden cardiac death may benefit from amiodarone therapy or an implanted cardioverter-defibrillator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

ECG findings in HOCM

A

Resting ECG is nonspecific in most patients with HCM often demonstrating LVH and left atrial enlargement; Deep broad Q waves in septal, lateral or inferior leads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Indicators of poor prognosis in acute pericarditis

A

temperature >38°C (100.4°F)

subacute onset over weeks

immunosuppression

history of oral anticoagulant use

associated myocarditis (elevated cardiac biomarkers, symptoms of CHF)

large pericardial effusion (an echo-free space >20 mm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MC cause of non traumatic pericardial effusion/ Tamp

A

Cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the triple rule out for Aortic Dissection

A

Coronary CT angiography,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If treating cancer with L-asparaginase

What is the risk

A

Increased risk of DVTs

17
Q

What is the risk of VTE after intubation

A

Up to 4 weeks post

18
Q

What metabolic finding difs out syncope vs SZR

A

Transitory, wide anion gap acidosis follows a generalized seizure but is not present in simple syncope

19
Q

What is the CSRS score

A

CSRS: predict 30-day serious outcomes not evident during the index ED eval

Applicable to age ≥16 yo, includes following predictors:

  • Predisposition to vasovagal syncope
  • Heart disease
  • Any SBP in ED <90 or >180
  • Troponin >99th percentile for normal population
  • Abnormal QRS axis (< -30° or > 100°)
  • Prolonged corrected QT interval (>480 milliseconds)
  • ED diagnosis of cardiac or vasovagal syncope
20
Q

High risk, admit syncope pts

A

Exertional syncope
Concern for acute coronary syndrome (ACS)
History of ventricular arrhythmia

Implantable cardiac device

Known CHF
(ejection fraction <40%)
Concerning ECG Findings

21
Q

If arterial O2 fails ro raise in response to supplemental o2

Suspect

A

A Right to left shunt for Hypoxemia

22
Q

Acute PaCO2 elevations over 100 can cause

A

Cardio collapse

23
Q

What is the rise of HCO3 in acute and chronic hypercapnia

A

Acute: increases about 1 mEq/L for each increase of 10 mmHg in PaCO2

Chronic: concentration increases about 3.5 mEq/L for each increase of 10 mmHg in PaCO2

24
Q

Can Fluoroquinolones be used in Myasthenia Gravis pts?

A

NO!

25
Q

Out pt PNA tx

A

Macrolide-level I recommendation

Respiratory fluoroquinolone

Doxycycline-level III recommendation