E190 - Automatic flight Flashcards

1
Q

The AFCS consists of:

A

The (AFCS) automatic flight control system:- FGCS (flight guidance control system)- TMS (thrust management system)

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2
Q

The GP (guidance panel) send information to the FGCS through… channels.

A

2 independent.

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3
Q

What happens if you press the BANK button ?

A

The bank angle is limited to 17 deg in HDG mode.

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4
Q

Is it possible to turn off the FD on the side used as source for the engaged AP ?

A

No.

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5
Q

Is it possible to turn off the FD on the coupled side, with the AP disengaged?

A

Yes. The FMA blanks and both FD’s disappear. The only FMA mode that remains is SPDt.

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6
Q

How many AP’s are installed ?

A

1 AP, dual channel.

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7
Q

What is the function of the TCS button ?

A

The touch control steering synchronizes the FD with the current airplane attitude. Afterwards the FD returns to it’s previous setting.

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8
Q

When is the A/T mode LIM displayed ?

A

When the target speed and the V/S are incompatible with the thrust rating available.

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9
Q

Can you have an amber AP indication ?

A

No, only a green of red (AP engaged/disengaged).

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10
Q

If the F/D is turned off, it automatically turns ON again in case of:

A
  • Windshear detection- AP engagement- TO/GA button- Selecting any vertical/lateral modeIt is impossible to have the AP engaged without the FD on the coupled side.
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11
Q

When do the AP channels switch ?

A
  • After each landing, or- In case of failure of the active channel1 channel can use EITHER FMA sources.
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12
Q

How many servos does the AP have for pitch, roll and rudder control ?

A

1 servo for each control direction.(1 additional rudder servo for autoland)

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13
Q

Does the AP disengage in case of:

  • Windshear escape guidance active ?
  • Stick shaker is activated ?- Manual pitch trim is activated ?
A

Yes, in all cases.

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14
Q

Does the AP disengage in case of:

  • FBW reversion to DIRECT mode ?
  • Aileron/elevator control system de-activated ?- A manual input is made on the controls ?- Internal monitor failure ?
A

Yes, in all cases.

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15
Q

The yaw damper will disengage if hydraulic systems … fail.

A

Systems 1 and 3.

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16
Q

For APPR mode, will the system give a warning if different minima’s are set on both PFD’s ? Will it give a warning if one selector is set to RA and the other one to BARO ?

A

It will only give an indication if one pilot has selected RA while the other pilot selected BARO. The RA indication will be amber.

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17
Q

What is the bank limit during localizer capture ?

A

35 deg of bank.

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18
Q

During T/O, ROLL mode will transition to TRACK mode when:

A
  • IAS > 100 kts- For more than 10 sec, < 3° bank angle
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19
Q

During G/A, TRACK mode will be activated:

A

Upon pushing TO/GA.

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20
Q

What happens if you engage the AP while vertical TO mode is still active ?

A

TO mode is cancelled and FPA becomes the active mode.

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21
Q

What is the pitch logic for T/O ?What are the min/max speeds ?

A

The AP initially commands 8-18°, then:
V2 + 10 kts (2#)
V2 - V2 + 10 kts (1#)
Min speed:Vshaker + 10 kts (3 kts for 1#)Max speed:Vfe - 5kts

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22
Q

During FLCH, the active thrust mode is:

A

SPDe.

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23
Q

What happens if the airplane is climbing, and you select an altitude below the current altitude ?

A

The airplane starts descending.

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24
Q

The speed changes from M to IAS and visa versa:

A

Around 29,000 ft.

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25
Q

What is the pitch logic for GA ?What are the min/max speeds ?

A

The AP initially commands 8°, then:
Vref + 20 kts (2#)
Vac (1#)
Min speed:Vshaker + 10 kts (3 kts for 1#)Max speed:Vfe - 5kts

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26
Q

Ths WSHR pitch mode provides escape guidance in case of detection below … ft.

A

1,500 ft.

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27
Q

What are the indications of a windshear caution ?

A

Amber WSHR on PFD + “caution windshear “.(associated with increasing HW and updrafts)

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28
Q

What are the indications of a windshear warning ?

A

Red WSHR on PFD + “windshear, windshear, windshear”.(associated with increasing HW and updrafts)

29
Q

Windshear guidance mode is activated when:

A

WSHR alert is present, and:
- FD mode in TO or GA, or- TO/GA is pressed, or

  • T/L set to TO/GA
    green WSHR becomes active pitch mode.
30
Q

What is VARM mode ?

A

The initial VNAV mode until the appropiate vertical mode is determined.

31
Q

VFLCH becomes active when:

A
  • Manually selected during VPATH- Speed reversion from VPATH.
32
Q

VGP can be armed within:

A

30 nm of the FAF (and a non-loc based app is selected)

33
Q

VGP will engage when within:

A

5 nm from the FAF along track distance, OR,

within 30nm if using ACTIVATE VECTORS and the first waypoint is the FAF.

34
Q

VPATH reverts to VFLCH when the programmed speed limit is exceeded with more than… kts, and the airplane levels off before continuing in VFLCH.

A

5 kts.

35
Q

Speed protection. VPATH automatically transitions to VFLCH under the following conditions:

A

Speed restriction > 5ktsVmo / Mmo / gear or flap placard speed > 10 kts< Vref - 10 kts

36
Q

APPR 2 means the airplane is:

A

Capable of performing a cat II-approach.

37
Q

What are the requirements for APPR 2 or AUTOLAND 1 to engage:

A
  • Both minima selectors set to RA- ILS frequency and course on both sides, and with correct frequency and course.
  • Flaps 5 (latest at 800ft RA)
38
Q

What happens at 800 ft RA during every ILS approach ?

A

The highest capability of ILS if frozen.

39
Q

What happens at 1,500 ft RA during every ILS approach ?

A

APPR 1(2) / AUTOLAND 1 engages if possible.

40
Q

Mach trim automatically engages when:

A
  • AP is not engaged- Speed > M 0.70- No trimming is in progress
41
Q

True or false: when FMS navigation is active and preview is enabled, the ILS frequency and course are automatically set if:

  • auto tuning is enabled, and
  • ILS or BC procedure is in the FP
A

True.

42
Q

How many seconds of roll guidance can the auto land system perform ?

A

5 seconds, based on the LOC signals.

43
Q

Is it possible to make an autoland without A/T ?

A

Yes.

44
Q

How many AP channels are required to perform autoland ?

A

1 AP channel.

45
Q

Are windshield wipers and the yaw damper required to perform an autoland ?

A

Yes.

46
Q

During an autoland, at 150 ft:

A

ALIGN engages. RLOUT and RETD are armed.

47
Q

During an autoland, at 50 ft:

A

FLARE engages. Automatic pitch trim is inhibited.

48
Q

During an autoland, at main gear touchdown:

A

RLOUT and D-ROT engage. A/T disengages. After 5 sec, AP disengages.

49
Q

Can you perform a 1# engine autoland in the same sequence ?

A

Yes. Although this is not allowed according to JAF procedures.

50
Q

The A/T normally engages on the ground for T/O when it is armed, no failures exist, and:

A

T/Ls are > 50% TLA.

51
Q

Is it possible to engage the A/T in-flight at 200 ft AGL ?

A

No, in-flight it is only possible to engage the A/T > 400 ft AGL

52
Q

The A/T, in normal operation, disengages:

A
  • When T/L is moved beyond TO/GA

- After touchdown (auto land)- Thrust reverse operation (during RTO)AT flashes green for 5 sec + “throttle” aural alert

53
Q

The A/T, in non-normal operation, disengages:

A
  • TLA difference > 8 deg- A/T failureAT flashes red + “auto throttle” aural alert
54
Q

During T/O, TO transitions to HOLD at:

A

60 kts. A/T servo’s are de-energized until 400ft AGL.

55
Q

The vertical modes related to SPDe are:

A
  • FLCH- VFLCH- OVSP
56
Q

If the A/T is overridden, the indication .. appears as thrust mode.

A

OVRD.

57
Q

What happens with the A/T in case of an engine failure ?

A

The A/T deactivates the respective TL. The operative engine TL remains active for A/T operation.

58
Q

With F/D on, the CLB thrust mode becomes active after T/O when (2#):

A
  • > 400 ft AGL, and- Landing gear up, and- Another vertical mode is selected.
59
Q

With F/D off, the CLB thrust mode becomes active after T/O when (2#):

A
  • > 3,000 ft AGL, and- Landing gear up.
60
Q

The CRZ thrust mode is active when:

A
  • Airplane is at selected level > 90 sec, and- Airspeed < 5 kts (or M 0,01) of selected airspeed
61
Q

The GA thrust mode is active when:

A

Landing gear down.

62
Q

The CON thrust mode is active after T/O when:

A
  • After engine failure, and- > 3,000 ft AGL.
63
Q

The CON thrust mode is active in-flight (not T/O) when:

A

After engine failure.

64
Q

What is the meaning of the EICAS msg: SHAKER ANTICIPATED ?

A

Indicates that shaker activation angles have been advanced to conservative settings.

65
Q

The ROLL mode will level the wings when bank angle is < … °. Above this value, the roll mode will maintain the bank angle up to a maximum of… °.

A

6 °35 °.

66
Q

In order to perform an autoland on a cat I approach, all requirements for an autoland must be fulfilled and the minima selectors:

A

set to RA.

67
Q

The A/T offers low speed protectionof:

A

< 20,000 ft: 1,2 VS
between: interpolation

> 30,000 ft: 2% LSA.

68
Q

Overspeed protection is given by which modes:

A
  • OVSP pitch mode ( < Vmo/Mmo limits)- VPATH reversal.