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Pharm > Drugs for Final > Flashcards

Drugs for Final Flashcards

1
Q

Hib vaccine

A
  • bacterial

- haemophilus influenzae- NOT the flu

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2
Q

Meningococcal vaccine

A
  • bacterial

- bacteria that gets into the meninges that causes neurological compromise and often death

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3
Q

pneumococcal vaccine

A
  • bacterial

- pneumonia

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4
Q

typhoid vaccine

A
  • bacterial

- contaminated water and food

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5
Q

diphtheria vaccine

A
  • bacterial

- respiratory illness that causes plaque to build over the posterior pharynx; patient suffocates

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6
Q

tetanus vaccine

A
  • bacterial
  • found in the ground, anaerobic; likes to grow in deep wounds
  • causes permanent muscle contraction and respiratory failure
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7
Q

pertussis vaccine

A
  • bacterial
  • whooping cough, not lethal in adults, but lethal in babies
  • paroxysmal cough
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8
Q

influenza vaccine

A
  • viral

- flu shot

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9
Q

hep A vaccine

A
  • viral

- liver infection from contaminated water

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10
Q

hep B vaccine

A
  • viral

- liver infection from sharing blood and needles, sexually transmitted

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11
Q

measles vaccine

A
  • viral

- infection that causes great damage and has a high death rate from pneumonia

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12
Q

mumps vaccine

A
  • viral

- infectious agent that causes swelling in the neck; can create infertility esp in males

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13
Q

rubella vaccine

A
  • viral

- minor childhood infection; can damage fetus

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14
Q

polio vaccine

A
  • viral

- polio attacks the nervous system

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15
Q

rabies vaccine

A
  • viral

- from bats, dogs, armadillo; once you show symptoms you’re dead

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16
Q

smallpox vaccine

A
  • viral

- causes pneumonia, distinct rash

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17
Q

varicella vaccine

A
  • viral

- chicken pox; mild childhood illness, awful in adults who have never been exposed

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18
Q

yellow fever vaccine

A
  • viral

- causes liver damage which causes jaundice

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19
Q

herpes zoster vaccine

A
  • viral

- shingles

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20
Q

sera

A
  • immune globulins: proteins that are involved in conferring immunity
  • sera is from someone else’s body
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21
Q

types of sera

A
  • HBIG: hep B vaccine
  • RIG: rabies immune globulin; NOT vaccine; its a sera from someone else’s body who has been exposed but has not gotten sick
  • TIG- tetanus immune globulin
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22
Q

antitoxins

A

clear out the toxic results of the body working on the invading toxin

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23
Q

antivenins

A

works against the actual enzyme process in the poison

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24
Q

interleukins

A

immune modulator: mimics the body’s natural interleukins; stimulates cellular immunity; creates antibodies (T and B cells); synthetic

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25
Q

interferons

A
  • immune modulator stimulants

- naturally produce proteins that the body sends out in response to a viral invasion

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26
Q

interleukins

A
  • immune modulator stimulants

- mimics the body’s natural interleukins; stimulates cellular immunity; creates antibodies (T and B cells); synthetic

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27
Q

colony-stimulating factors

A
  • immune modulator stimulant

- stimulates the bone marrow to produce neutrophils

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28
Q

immune modulator suppressants

A
  • blocks the release of cytokines involved in the inflammatory response
  • used in autoimmunity and organ transplants
  • causes pt to feel horrible, flu-like
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29
Q

rimantadine

A
  • antiviral
  • for influenza A; prevents the shedding of the viral protein coat so it can’t replicate
  • anticholinergic effects
  • treat flu within 48 hours of symptom onset
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30
Q

acyclovir

A
  • antiviral
  • for herpes and CMV (cytomegalovirus)
  • dangerous, causes neuropathies, parasthesias, confusion, renal tox, bone marrow suppression
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31
Q

terbinafine

A
  • antifungal
  • for nail and scalp infections
  • causes bone marrow suppression, liver tox, (must look at liver labs for this drugs)
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32
Q

metronidazole

A
  • antiprotozoal and antibacterial
  • giardia and other protozoal and bacterial infections
  • causes retinal damage, flu-like response, ototoxicity, chincinism
  • could cause cancer and SJS
  • any alcohol while taking this will cause disulfiram-like reaction: n/v, flushing of skin, tachycardia, shortness of breath
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33
Q

mebendazole

A
  • antihelmintic
  • for worms (usually pinworms, do tape test)
  • causes metabolic collapse in the worm
  • contraindicated in pregnancy
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34
Q

antineoplastics

A
  • target rapidly multiplying cells
  • goal is to kill the cancer just enough that the immune system can take over and finish the job
  • nursing interventions: do whatever it takes to keep the immune system functioning; move toward wellness
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35
Q

cyclophosphamide

A
  • non cell cycle specific antineoplastic alkylating agent
  • for slower growing cancers like lymphomas and myelomas
  • works by bursting the cells –> acid comes out of it and we get a lot of uric acid, which can be fatal for liver and kidneys
  • side effects: ***hemorragic cystitis, bladder bleeding
  • nursing interventions: the drug mesna is used for prevention of hemorrhagic cystitis
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36
Q

allopurinol

A

-antigout agent; xanthine oxidase inhibitor
-prevention and treatment of gout
(because of acid)

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37
Q

methotrexate (MTX)

A
  • antineoplasic antimetabolites
  • S phase of cell cycle
  • used for ectopic pregnancy
  • used for rapidly growing cells like psoriasis
  • causes hypersensitivity reactions, bone marrow suppression
  • nursing interventions: working on S phase inhibits folic acid, so pt should take leukovorin (folic acid)
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38
Q

doxyrubicin

A
  • antineoplastic antibiotics
  • S phase of cell cycle, breast cancer
  • causes heart problems
  • nursing interventions: check for hypertrophy, mouth sores, dexrazoxane reduces heart problems
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39
Q

tamoxifen

A
  • antineoplastic hormone modulator
  • M phase of cell cycle, prevents mitosis of cell; for breast cancer
  • causes hot flashes, CV incidents, pulmonary embolism
  • drug-drug: anticoagulants increase chance of bleeding
  • nursing process: teratogenic, use barrier contraceptives
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40
Q

vincristine

A
  • antineoplasic mitotic inhibitors
  • M phase of cell cycle, prevents mitosis; for breast cancer
  • side effects: SIADH (syndrome of inappropriate ADH), very damaging to the skin tissue so we can’t administer through a peripheral line
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41
Q

trimethoprim/ sulfamethoxazole

A
  • Bactrim
  • broad spectrum antibiotic; fluoroquinolones
  • interfereswith the cell wall’s abilit to stay intact with the bacteria; does so by interfering with folic acid
  • less dangerous than cipro, most safe of the fluoroquinolones
  • drug-drug: diabetic meds could cause hypoglycemia
42
Q

glucagon

A
  • pancreatics
  • antidote to insulin
  • give when pt is showing s/s of hypogylcemia
  • increases the blood glucose levels by decreasing insulin release and accelerating the breakdown of glycogen in the liver to release glucose
  • s/e: hypoTN, and HTN, hyperglycemia (but hypo is more dangerous, so when in doubt, give it)
43
Q

phenobarbital

A
  • barbiturate
  • actions: general CNS depression that inhibits neuronal impulse conduction in ascending RAS
  • s/e: laryngospasm, hypersensitivity causes serum sickness and SJS
  • taper gradually
44
Q

diazepam

A
  • benzodiazepine
  • actions: act in the limbic and RAS to make GAMMA amniobutric acid more effective, causing interference with neuron firing
45
Q

flumazenil

A

antidote to benzodiazepine overdose

46
Q

fluoxetine

A
  • SSRI

- blocks reuptake of serotonin with little or no effect on NE

47
Q

benztropine

A
  • Cogentin
  • antiparkinson agent, anticholinergic
  • antidote to EPS
  • actions: synthetic, made to haev a greater affinity for the cholinergic receptor sites in the CNS than for those in the PNS, but still block (to some extent) the cholinergic receptors that are respinsible for stimulation of the PNS’s pot ganglionic effectors… essentially, block Ach receptors
  • drug-drug: don’t use with other anticholinergics
48
Q

phenytoin

A
  • Dilantin
  • generalized antiseizure agent, hydantoins
  • generally less sedating than other antiepileptics
  • actions: stabilize nerve membranes throughout the CNS directly by influencing ionic channels in the cell membrane thereby decreasing the excitability and hyperexcitability to stimulation
  • expected side effects: teeth stains and gum hypertrophy
  • therapeutic level: 10-20 mcg/ml
49
Q

lithium

A
  • mood stabilizer
  • bipolar disorder
  • actions: alters Na+ transport in nerve and muscle cells, inhibits release of NE and dopamine but not serotonin from stimulated neurons; increases the interneuronal stores of NE and dopamine slightly and decreased stores of second messengers
  • contra: hyponatremia
  • nursing process: take with food or milk, adequate intake of Na+, small, frequent meals to increase secretions and decrease discomfort
  • lithium levels: 0.6-1.2 mEq/L
50
Q

morphine

A
  • opioid agonist

- actions: react with the opioid receptors throughout the body to cause analgesia, sedation, and euphoria

51
Q

naloxone

A

antidote for morphine

52
Q

succinylcholine

A
  • Anectine
  • depolarizing NMJ blocking agent
  • used during surgery to produce skeletal muscle paralysis
  • attaches to the Ach receptor site on the muscle cell causing a prolonged depolarization of the muscle
  • antidote is a cholinesterase inhibitor
53
Q

atenolol

A
  • beta blocker
  • blocks beta 1 in the heart
  • decreases excitability, CO, and BP
54
Q

neostigmine

A
  • anti-Ach-esterase
  • for urinary retention, myasthenia gravis
  • actions: preserves what Ach is there and does not allow the Ach-esterase to break down the Ach
  • antidote: atropine
55
Q

digoxin

A
  • aminoglycosides/ cardiac glycosides
  • negative chronotropy, positive intotropy, negative dromotropy
  • antidote: Dig ImmuneFab
56
Q

lidocaine

A
  • class 1 antiarrhythmic

- blocks Na+ in the muscle

57
Q

propranolol

A
  • class 2 antiarrhythmic and antihypertensive

- blocks beta receptors in the heart and kidneys

58
Q

amiodarone

A
  • class 3 antiarrhythmics

- blocks K+

59
Q

diltiazem

A
  • class 4 antiarrhythmics and antihypertensive

- blocks calcium channels

60
Q

nitroglycerin

A
  • vasodilator/ nitrate
  • used to treat angina (arteries to the heart are not getting enough blood)
  • dilates blood vessels to allow for more blood flow to the heart
  • causes raging headaches
  • MONA- Morphine, Oxygen, Nitroglycerin, Aspirin
61
Q

metformin

A
  • biguanide
  • for type 2 diabetes (first line drug choice because it is the safest)
  • actions: decreases the production and increases the uptake of glucose
  • adverse effects: lactic acidosis (diabetic ketoacidosis), does not cause hypoglycemia
62
Q

atorvastatin

A
  • HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor (statins/ antihyperlipidemics)
  • actions: inhibits enzyme that works in the liver
  • s/e: rhabdo
63
Q

Vitamin B3

A

increases rate of triglyceride destruction

64
Q

warfarin

A
  • anticoagulant
  • blocks vitamin K synthesis
  • used most commonly for Afib
  • used to treat, not just preventative, more powerful than enoxaparin
65
Q

enoxaparin

A
  • anticoagulant
  • safer than heparin; give for immobile patients; give qd
  • used to prevent the problem
66
Q

ferrous gluconate

A
  • antianemic
  • used to treat iron deficiency anemia
  • treat for 6 months, time it takes for the body to store enough iron to meet daily requirements on its own
67
Q

epoetin alpha

A
  • used to stimulate RBC production from the kidneys

- for pts getting chemo

68
Q

clomiphene

A

-Clomid
-used for infertility in men and women
-actions: directly or by stimulating the hypothalamus to increase FSH and LH levels, leading to ovarial follicular development and maturation of ova
-contra: primary ovarian failure, thyroid or adrenal dysfunction, ovarian cysts, pregnancy, idiopathic uterine bleeding, and known allergy
s/e: risk of multiple births and birth defects; overstimulation of the reproductive system; fluid retention; uterine bleeding; gynecomastia

69
Q

diphenhydramine

A
  • first gen antihistamine
  • for allergies
  • actions: selective blocking of H1 receptors in the CNS and PNS, anticholinergic stimulation
  • s/e: anticholinergic
70
Q

enalapril

A
  • ACE Inhibitor
  • treats HTN (first line)
  • prevent angiotensin 1 from becoming angiotensin 2 (a powerful vasoconstrictor)
71
Q

furosemide

A
  • loop diuretic
  • for acute CHF, pulmonary edema, edema associated with renal or liver disease
  • blocks the chloride pump in the loop of henley and the DCT
  • loss of Na+, chloride, and tons of fluid
  • s/e: alkalosis, hypo-everything, hearing loss (usually reversible)
72
Q

acetazolamide

A
  • carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (diuretics)
  • used as an adjunct to other diuretics
  • actions: block the effects of carbonic anhydrase; slows the movement of hydrogen ions; more Na+ and bicarb are lost in the urine
  • s/e: metabolic acidosis, parasthesias, confusion, drowsiness
  • drug-drug: salycilates decrease excretion and drug becomes toxic; lithium; sulfonamides bc could cause SJS or TENS
73
Q

mannitol

A
  • osmotic diuretic
  • used for increased cranial pressure (crosses the BBB), ARF due to shock, drug overdose, trauma
  • actions: pulls water into renal tubule without Na+ loss
  • contra: renal impairment and anuria; pulmonary congestion, intracranial bleeding, dehydration, CHF
  • s/e: n/v hypotension, light-headedness, confusion, headache (s/s of shock)
74
Q

spironolactone

A
  • potassium sparing diuretics
  • pts who are at risk for hypokalemia; hyperaldosteronism
  • actions: cause a loss of Na+ while retaining K+; blocks the actions of aldosterone in the distal tubule
  • drug-drug: aspirin
75
Q

ciprofloxacin

A
  • anti-infectives, fluoroquinolones
  • for bacterial infections, esp UTI (e.coli)
  • actions: acts specifically within the urinary tract to destroy bacteria, either through direct antibiotic effect or acidification of the urine
76
Q

nitrofurantoin

A
  • anti-infectives
  • for bacterial infections, esp UTI (e.coli)
  • actions: acts specifically within the urinary tract to destroy bacteria, either through direct antibiotic effect or acidification of the urine
77
Q

albuterol

A
  • sympathomimetic bronchodilator
  • rescue drug for asthma
  • actions: short acting beta 2 selective adrenergic agonist
78
Q

salmeterol

A
  • sympathomimetic bronchodilator
  • maintenance drug for asthma
  • actions: long acting beta 2 selective adrenergic agonist
79
Q

ipratropium

A
  • anticholinergic bronchodilator
  • treat asthma
  • actions: blocks Ach receptors in smooth muscle
  • contra: loss of Ach, allergy to soy or peanuts, BPH and glaucoma
  • s/e: anticholinergic
80
Q

theophylline

A
  • xanthine bronchodilators
  • for the treatment of bronchial swelling and apnea
  • actions: inhibits the release of histamine, effect Ca+ mobilization, thereby relaxing smooth muscle
  • therapeutic level: 10-20 mcg/ml
81
Q

fluticasone (Flovent)

A
  • inhaled steroid
  • for maintenance or exacerbation but they are not immediate- can take hours to days to become effective
  • actions: interfere with the inflammatory cascade and promotes beta-adrenergic receptor activity (suppresses immune sustem to cause anti-inflammation
  • nursing process: rinse mouth after use, have to ween off
82
Q

sucralfate

A
  • GI protectant
  • promotes ulcer healing
  • actions: forms an ulcer-adherent complex at duodenal ulcer sites, protecting the sites against acid, pepsin, and bile salts
  • must have on an empty stomach
83
Q

aluminum salts

A
  • antacids
  • for hyperacidity and hyperactivity of stomach
  • actions: neutralize stomach acid by direct chemical reaction (with aluminum, calcium, magnesium, sodium, and bicarb
  • contra: don’t use if there’s any possibility of obstruction; not for long-term use
84
Q

meclizine

A
  • Antivert
  • antiemetic
  • for prevention and treatment of n/v
  • actions: anticholinergics that act as antihistamines and block the transmission of impulses to the CTZ in the medulla
85
Q

promethazine

A
  • Phenergan
  • antiemetic
  • treatment of n/v and hiccoughs
  • actions: depresses various areas of the CNS, anticholinergic
86
Q

clorpromazine

A
  • neuroleptics; typical antipsycotics
  • actions: anticholinergic, antihistamine, alpha adrenergic blocking effects; block dopamine receptors preventing the stimulation of the post-synaptic neurons by dopamine; also suppress the RAS, limiting the stimuli coming into the brain
87
Q

clozapine

A
  • neuroleptics; atypical antipsycotics

- actions: block both dopamine and serotonin receptors, helping alleviate some of the unpleasant side effects of typical

88
Q

testosterone

A
  • Androderm
  • for replacement therapy in hypogonadism and delayed puberty; inoperable breast cancer; prevent ovulation to treat endometriosis
  • actions: increase the retention of nitrogen, Na+ and K+; decrease excretion of Ca+; increase protein anabolism; decrease protein catabilism; increase production of RBCs
  • s/e: acne, edema, hirsutism; deepening of voice, oily skin and hair, weight gain, decreased breast size, testicular atrophy; flushing, sweating, dizziness, sleep disorders, altered electrolytes; anti-estrogen effects in women
  • lab tests: thyroid function, creatinine, liver, polycythemia
89
Q

sildenafil

A
  • Viagra
  • ED agents/ vasodilators/ phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors
  • for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary atreal HTN
  • actions: selectively inhibits phosphodiesterase type 5 receptors (PDE5) and increases nitrous oxide levels, allowing blood to flow into the corpus cavernosum
90
Q

estradiol

A
  • HRT (hormone replacement therapy)
  • estrogen replacement in menopausal women
  • s/e: can place women at higher risk for cardiac events
91
Q

hydrocortisone

A
  • mineralocorticoids
  • for replacement therapy in primary or secondary adrenal insufficiency/ needed in times of stress
  • actions: holds Na+ and water in the body
92
Q

prednisone

A

-glucocorticoids
-for short-term treatment of inflammatory disorders
-actions: decrease the prduction of prostaglandins and leukotrienes in the inflammatory cascade; enter target cells and bind to cytoplasmic receptors; initiate many complex reactions responsible for anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects
s/e: retention, HTN, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hyperglycemia (because the drug opposes the action of insulin), arrhythmias, CV collapse, fractures, acute and fatal gastritis, weight gain, fat deposits, risk for adrenal failure (bc we put the adrenals to sleep)

93
Q

dexamethasone

A

-glucocorticoids
-for short-term treatment of inflammatory disorders
-actions: decrease the prduction of prostaglandins and leukotrienes in the inflammatory cascade; enter target cells and bind to cytoplasmic receptors; initiate many complex reactions responsible for anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects
s/e: retention, HTN, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hyperglycemia (because the drug opposes the action of insulin), arrhythmias, CV collapse, fractures, acute and fatal gastritis, weight gain, fat deposits, risk for adrenal failure (bc we put the adrenals to sleep)

94
Q

insulin

A
  • antidiabetic/ hormones/ pancreatics
  • treatment of type 1 diabetes and type 2 if diabetes can’t be controlled by other agents
  • actions: replacing what the pancrease needs to be doing- lowers blood sugar
  • contra: hypoglycemia
  • s/e: hyperglycemia, ketoacidosis, n/v, dehydration, deep gasping breaths (Kussmals), confusion, ketones
95
Q

levothyroxine

A
  • Synthroid
  • for hypothyroidism
  • actions: synthetic production of T4; increases the metabolic rate of body tissues, increasing oxygen consumption, respiration, and HR; the rate of fat, protein, and carbohydrate metabolism; and growth maturation
96
Q

raloxifene

A
  • estrogen receptor modulators
  • used for postmenopausal osteoporosis
  • actions: modulating effects on estrogen receptors to increase bone mineral density; does NOT stimulate the growth of the uterine lining as straight estrogen would do
  • s/e: dry vaginal mucosa and flushing
97
Q

desmopressin

A
  • posterior pituitary hormones
  • used in diabetes insipidus
  • acts like ADH and has vasopressor properties (increasing BP), opposite of SIADH
  • nasal spray
98
Q

alendronate

A
  • Fosamax
  • antihypercalcemic agents; bisphosphonates
  • for osteoporosis; slows normal and abnormal bone resorption
  • actions: acts on the serum levels of Ca+ and not directly on the parathyroid gland or PTH
  • make sure they stay upright for at least 30 mins after admin
99
Q

Ranitidine

A
  • Zantac
  • histamine 2 antagonist
  • short-term treatment of duodenal or gastric ulcer
100
Q

omeprazole

A

Prilosec

  • proton pump inhibitor
  • prevents final step of acid production
  • adverse: c. Diff infection (drug takes the acid down to almost nothing), long term use could lead to gastric cancer
101
Q

misoprostol

A

Cytotec

  • prostaglandins
  • treatment of NSAID- induced ulcers
  • s/e: bleeding, miscarriage, menstrual disorders

Pharm (20 decks)

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