Developmental Flashcards

1
Q
Characteristics determined by
information coded on a person's
genes is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, while
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ refers to a set of
observable and measurable
characteristics (e.g., eye color,
intelligence) that develop from an
interaction between a person's
genetics and their environment.
A

Genotype;

phenotype

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2
Q
The idea that genes set
boundaries within which
environment determines
what phenotypes will
occur is referred to as
what?
A

Range of
Reaction (or
Norm of
Reaction)

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3
Q
The time-frame during which a
living organism is biologically
prepared to acquire certain
behaviors, but is only able to do
so with the presence of
appropriate environmental
stimuli, is called what?
A

Critical/Sensitive

Period

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4
Q
This term refers to
patterns of development
that are genetically
determined and are
influenced very little by
the environment.
A

Maturation

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5
Q
What term is used to
describe characteristics
that are rather resistant
to environmental forces,
taking a narrower
developmental path?
A

Canalization

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6
Q
The fact that children have
been starting puberty earlier
due to better health practices is
one example of a/an \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_,
which is defined as long-term
differences across cohorts that
indicate the impact of
environment on development.
A

Secular

trend

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7
Q
What statistic is used to
estimate the degree to
which a certain
characteristic can be
attributed to genetic
factors?
A

The
heritability
index

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8
Q
A person with this disorder
lacks an enzyme necessary for
the digestion of the
phenylalanine amino acid,
which remains toxic to the brain
in its undigested form and
leads to severe mental
retardation.
A

Phenylketonuria

PKU

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9
Q
What incurable
neurodegenerative genetic
disorder that affects muscle
coordination and some
cognitive functions is an
example of an autosomal
dominant gene disorder?
A

Huntington’s

Chorea

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10
Q
This disorder is caused by an extra
number 21 chromosome and is
characterized by moderate to
profound mental retardation,
abnormal physical features
(flattened face, protruding tongue,
stocky build), heart abnormalities,
and thyroid dysfunction.
A

Down
Syndrome
(trisomy 21)

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11
Q

________ is caused by an extra X chromosome
in males and leads to incomplete development of
secondary sex characteristics; ________ occurs
in females when all or part of the second X
chromosome is missing and causes sterility,
short stature, stubby fingers, and undeveloped
secondary sex characteristics; ________ occurs
in both males and females and is caused by a
weak site on the X chromosome, leading to
mental retardation, facial abnormalities, and
abnormal speech.

A
Klinefelter's
Syndrome;
Turner's
Syndrome; Fragile
X Syndrome
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12
Q
Environmental agents,
such as drugs or
infections, that cause
abnormalities by
interfering with normal
prenatal development are
called what?
A

Teratogens

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13
Q
During what period of
fetal development is a
teratogen most likely to
cause a major structural
defect to a developing
organ?
A
Embryonic period
(end of second
week after
conception to end
of eighth week)
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14
Q
Symptoms of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, a condition
caused by a pregnant mother's heavy
alcohol consumption, include retarded
growth, microcephaly (underdeveloped,
small brain), facial deformities,
hyperactivity, irritability, and mental
retardation; when only some of the
symptoms are present (e.g., lower IQ and
hyperactivity), the condition is referred to
as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A

Fetal alcohol
syndrome; fetal
alcohol effects

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15
Q
TRUE or FALSE: A pregnant
woman undergoing
antiretroviral therapy is
significantly less likely to
ransmit HIV to her child during
the pregnancy process when
compared to woman not
receiving the therapy?
A
TRUE: The chance of
HIV transmission from
mother to baby when
undergoing antiretroviral
therapy is reduced from
25% to 2%
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16
Q

The ________ reflex is when an infant grasps a
finger pressed against his palm; the ________
reflex is when an infant extends her big toe and
spreads his pinky toe when the bottom of his foot
is stroked; the ________ reflex is when an infant
arches her back, extends her legs, and projects
her arms outward when her head is slightly
dropped or she hears a loud sound; the
________ reflex is when an infant makes
stepping motions when he his held upright and
his feet touch the ground.

A

Palmar grasp;
babinski; moro
(or startle);
stepping

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17
Q
These are the 6 family risk factors,
according to Rutter, that place
infants and young children at risk of
child psychopathology; research
indicates that children with 1 or no
risk have a 2% chance of
psychopathology, while 4 or more
risks led to a 21% chance.
A
Low SES, large family size
(overcrowding), severe
marital discord, parental
criminality, maternal
psychopathology, and
placement of the child
outside of the home
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18
Q

According to Bronfenbrenner, the ________ is
the child’s immediate setting and includes family,
school, and daycare; the ________ comprises
connections between immediate environments
(e.g., a child’s home and school); the ________
is the child’s external environment that has only
an indirect influence on development, such as a
parent’s workplace; the ________ refers to the
larger cultural and subcultural context in which
the other systems are embedded (e.g., national
economy, politics).

A

Microsystem;
mesosystem;
exosystem;
macrosystem

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19
Q
TRUE or FALSE:
At birth, infants
show no clear
preference for
taste.
A
FALSE: They are
capable of experiencing
all 4 tastes, though
show a clear preference
for sweets
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20
Q

What is the least
developed part
of an infant’s
brain at birth?

A

The

cortex

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21
Q
According to Piaget, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ occurs as
a child interacts with the environment and
subsequently develops organized ways
of thinking about the world (cognitive
schemas); it consists of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which
is when a child perceives and interprets
new information in terms of existing
schemas, and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which is when
existing schemas must be modified to
provide consistency with external reality.
A

Adaptation;
assimilation;
accommodation

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22
Q
Piaget believed humans were
biologically driven to produce an
optimal state of stability between
their cognitive structures and their
environment, which he termed
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, a state that is necessary
for cognitive development to occur.
A
Equilibration
(accommodation occurs
during disequilibrium,
assimilation during
equilibrium)
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23
Q
What are the 4
stages of cognitive
development
according to
Piaget's theory?
A
Sensorimotor (birth to 2
years), preoperational (2
to 7 years), concrete
operational (7 to 12
years), and formal
operational (12+ years)
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24
Q
When a child who is in the
sensorimotor stage of
development begins to
understand that even if an
object cannot be seen, it
still exists, is said to be
developing what?
A

Object

permanence

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25
Q
A child in the preoperational stage
does not yet understand that others
do not experience the world the
same exact way they do and, thus,
their experience is shared
universally, which is termed
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_; an example would be a
2 y/o who scrapes her knee and
assumes mommy is also in pain.
A

Egocentrism

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26
Q
Children in the preoperational stage
often believe they can control
objects or events just by thinking
about them, termed \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, or
that inanimate objects possess
thoughts and feelings, termed
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, both of which are a
result of egocentrism.
A

Magical
thinking;
animism

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27
Q
According to Piaget, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
refers to the tendency to focus
on a single detail of a situation
while neglecting other important
features, which is present
during the preoperational stage
and limits a child's ability to
understand the world
A

Centration

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28
Q
One of the most prominent
developments during the concrete
operational stage is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, or
the ability for a child to understand
that the underlying properties of an
object may not change just because
its physical appearance has.
A
Conservation
(results from the
development of
decentration and
reversibility)
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29
Q
A person in the formal operational stage
of development has the ability to arrive at
and test alternative explanations for
observed events, referred to as
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, and can evaluate the logical
validity of verbal assertions without
making reference to real-world
circumstances, which is termed
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A

Hypothetical-deductive
reasoning; propositional
thought

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30
Q
An adolescent who is
convinced that others are just
as concerned with and critical
of his behavior as he is
exemplifies what characteristic
of the formal operational stage
of development?
A

Imaginary

audience

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31
Q
An adolescent who experiences a
break-up and is convinced that no
one could ever come close to
understanding the emotional pain
she is experiencing is engaging in
what characteristic of the formal
operational stage of development?
A

Personal fable
(the belief that
one is unique and
indestructible)

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32
Q
This neo-Piagetian theory of
development compares the human
mind to computer processes,
proposing that just as a computer
improves with changes to hardware
and software, so to can a child's
mental capacities improve by
learning rules and strategies for
processing information better.
A

Information
Processing
Theory

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33
Q
This theory proposes that
cognitive development occurs
as a direct response to social
interactions and that learning
occurs on the interpersonal
and intrapersonal levels.
A
Vygotsky's Theory
of Cognitive
Development (Social
Development
Theory)
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34
Q
According to Vygotsky, the
difference between what a
person can do without help and
what they can do with help is
referred to as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_;
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the term used to
describe the help provided to a
child by others.
A

Zone of
proximal
development;
scaffolding

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35
Q
This phenomenon refers
to the inability of adults
to recall memories from
the earliest years of
their childhood.
A

Infantile
(childhood)
amnesia

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36
Q
TRUE or FALSE: While an
infant's cry has been
shown to have
physiological effects on
parents, the effect for first
time parents is the
strongest.
A
TRUE: Research has
suggested first time
parents are most sensitive
physiologically, to the
sounds of their infant
crying
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37
Q
Regarding language
development,
holophrastic speech,
which develops between
12 and 18 months of
age, refers to what?
A
Combining single
words with gestures
and intonation to
express a complete
thought or sentence
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38
Q
Research indicating that certain
aspects of language are universal,
that there is a sensitive period
within which language is best
acquired, and that there is brain
ateralization for language supports
what theories of language
development?
A
Nativist theories, which
emphasize the role of
innate,
genetically-determined
factors in learning
language
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39
Q
At about what age do
children start to use
rehearsal and other
memory strategies in
a consistent way?
A

7 years

old

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40
Q
What is the significant
finding that came out of
Harlow's research on
attachment with monkeys
(i.e., wire-monkey with
food vs. soft, cloth monkey
with no food)?
A
Contact comfort (the
pleasant sensation
provided by a soft, warm
parent) is more important
than food as a determinant
of attachment
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41
Q
The idea that infants are born
with built-in attachment-related
behaviors that mothers respond
to with certain behaviors in
order to meet infants' needs is
characteristic of what theory of
attachment?
A

Bowlby’s
Ethological
Theory

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42
Q
Bowlby proposed that a child's'
behavior in later relationships is
guided by what he termed
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which are mental
representations of the self and
attachment figures developed
during the first years of life.
A

Internal
working
models

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43
Q
A child who is around 6
months old uses information
gleaned from reading her
parents' emotional reactions
to guide her own behaviors,
which is referred to as what?
A

Social referencing
(supported by
“visual cliff”
studies)

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44
Q
Strongest between 14
and 18 months old,
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ occurs when
an infant responds with
distress in the absence
of his primary caregiver.
A

Separation

anxiety

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45
Q
Between what
ages does an
infant experience
the most intense
stranger anxiety?
A

8 to 15

months old

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46
Q
According to Bowlby, babies
between 15 and 30 months old with
this experience demonstrate the
following pattern of predictable
behaviors: protest (crying loud,
rejects attention from other adults),
despair (inactive, withdrawal), and
detachment (apathy which may
continue in mother's presence).
A

Prolonged
separation from
their mother

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47
Q

As a result of Ainsworth’s research, the following 4
attachment patterns were identified: ________ (baby
explores environment, comfortable with strangers when
mother is around, emotionally sensitive/responsive),
________ (baby uninterested in environment, distressed
when mother not present and avoids her upon return),
________ (baby anxious when mother present, very
distressed when she leaves and ambivalent upon her
return, wary of strangers), and ________ (baby
apprehensive and confused, alternates between
avoidance/resistance ad proximity-seeking).

A

Secure; Avoidant/Anxious;
Resistant/Anxious;
Disorganized/Disoriented

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48
Q
The baby of a mother who is
either impatient/non-responsive
or is overly responsive,
involved, and stimulating may
respond to the "strange
situation" in ways consistent
with what attachment pattern?
A

Anxious/Avoidant

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49
Q
The baby of a mother who is
inconsistent in her responses,
responding with indifference at
times while responding
enthusiastically at other times,
is likely to develop a/an
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ attachment style.
A

Anxious/Resistant

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50
Q

The 4 adult attachment patterns include: ________ (value
attachment relationships, integrate positive and negative
childhood experiences), ________ (devalue importance of
attachment relationships, defensive and guarded when
asked about childhood, idealize parents without concrete
support), ________ (confused and incoherent attachment
memories, remain enmeshed with family issues, believe
family problems cannot be overcome), and ________ (have
dysfunctional relationships, experienced trauma or loss as
child that was never mourned, tend to be neglectful of their
own children).

A

Secure-autonomous;
dismissing;
preoccupied;
unresolved

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51
Q
TRUE or FALSE: Research has
shown that children who are
rejected by their peers tend to
experience less psychological
and behavioral problems than
those neglected by their peers.
A
FALSE: Children who are
rejected by their peers have
been shown to demonstrate
higher levels of aggressiveness
and other disruptive behaviors,
as well as increased feelings of
loneliness
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52
Q

According to Piaget’s theory of moral
development, children between 4 and 7 years old
demonstrate ________ morality in which rules
are viewed as absolute and unchangeable, and
judgments are based mainly on the
consequences of the act; by 7 or 8 years old,
children demonstrate ________ morality in which
rules are viewed as flexible agreements between
individuals and judgments are based more on
the actor’s intentions.

A

Heteronomous;

autonomous

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53
Q

Between what
ages does peer
conformity
peak?

A

12 to 14

years old

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54
Q
TRUE or FALSE: Fearful children
develop conscience better when
their parent uses gentle discipline
(deemphasizes power, capitalizes
on child's internal discomfort) rather
than negative discipline (threats,
angry commands).
A
TRUE: And fearless
children tend to develop
conscience through use
of secure attachment
and maternal
responsiveness
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55
Q
Of masculinity, femininity,
and androgyny, which is
associated with the
highest levels of
self-esteem in both girls
and boys?
A
Androgyny, while
masculinity is
associated with higher
levels of self-esteem
than femininity in both
girls and boys
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56
Q
What theory proposes that children
internalize conceptual frameworks
(schema) about
gender-expectations within a
sociocultural context, which
subsequently predispose the
person to construct a
schema-consistent self-identity?
A

Gender
Schema Theory
(Bem, 1981)

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57
Q

According to Kohlberg’s
Cognitive-Developmental Theory, the 3 stages of
gender-identity development are: ________
(child recognizes they are either male or female,
usually by 2 or 3 years old), ________
(realization that gender identity is consistent over
time), and ________ (understand that gender
does not change because of changes in
appearance or behaviors, usually around 6 or 7
years old).

A

Gender
identity; gender
stability; gender
constancy

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58
Q

According to Thomas and Chess, most children
can be categorized into 1 of 3 temperament
groups, which include: ________ (cheerful, react
to new stimuli with low-moderate intensity, adapt
easily, eat and sleep regularly), ________ (sad
or tense, react to new stimuli with low intensity,
adapt to new situations over time, variable eat
and sleep schedule), and ________ (irritated
with new experiences, difficult to soothe, very
active, irregular eat and sleep schedule).

A

Easy;
slow-to-warm-up;
difficult

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59
Q
According to the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
model, maladjustment is the
result of a poor fit between a
child's temperament and
environment (e.g., parents'
response pattern), whereas a
more appropriate fit leads to a
more well-adjusted child.
A

Goodness-of-Fit
(Thomas and
Chess)

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60
Q
What are the 5
stages of
psychosexual
development
proposed by Freud?
A
  1. Oral (birth to 1 year);
  2. Anal (1 to 3 years); 3.
    Phallic (3 to 6 years); 4.
    Latency (6 years to
    puberty); 5. Genital
    (post-puberty)
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61
Q
According to Freud,
during which stage of
development does the
Oedipal (boys) or
Electra (girls) conflict
occur?
A

Phallic
stage (3 to
6 years)

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62
Q
What are the 8
psychosocial conflicts,
according to Erikson,
that occur throughout
a person's lifespan?
A

Trust vs. mistrust (birth to 1 year),
autonomy vs. shame/doubt (1 to 3 years),
initiative vs. guilt (3 to 6 years), industry
vs. inferiority (6 years to puberty), identity
vs. identity confusion (adolescence),
intimacy vs. isolation (young adulthood),
generativity vs. stagnation (middle
adulthood), and ego integrity vs. despair
(old age)

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63
Q

Regarding parenting styles, ________ parents
are warm and nurturing, gain control through
explanation and seeking their child’s input, and
set high standards; ________ parents are
controlling and demanding, and respond to
disobedience punitively; ________ parents are
nurturing but fail to assert their authority,
providing little structure; and ________ parents
are undemanding and indifferent, uncommitted
as parents, and keep a distance from their
children.

A

Authoritative;
authoritarian;
permissive;
uninvolved

64
Q
A person who, as a child, was
insecure and unhappy, and as
an adult lacked a sense of
initiative and was dependent on
others, is likely to have had
parents with what type of
parenting style?
A

Authoritarian

65
Q
The characteristics of
what parenting style
are most predictive of
adolescent
delinquency?
A

Uninvolved

66
Q

According to Marcia, which “identity
status” corresponds to the following
adolescent responses to an inquiry about
political beliefs: 1) “I haven’t really
thought about it.” 2) “I’m libertarian, like
my parents.” 3) “I’m a little confused and
wonder if my beliefs are represented by
any existing political party.” 4) “After
struggling with it, I feel confident with my
liberal perspectives.”

A
Identity diffusion (no identity crisis
or commitment); identity foreclosure
(strong commitment to identity
based on external influence, not
crisis); identity moratorium (identity
crisis leads to exploration of
options); identity achievement
(crisis resolved and committed to
identity)
67
Q
According to Gilligan, females risk
experiencing \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ as a result of
the internalization of sexist
messages; this can be mitigated by
authority figures (parents, teachers)
providing them with experiences
that promote and support remaining
connected to themselves and
others.
A

Loss of

voice

68
Q
According to Patterson
and his colleagues,
children learn to act
aggressively as a result
of what 2 parenting
factors?
A
Imitation and being
rewarded for their
aggressive acts
(via attention or
approval)
69
Q
TRUE or FALSE: Having a
parent present while
watching aggressive
television programs
mitigates the negative
effects on children.
A
TRUE: As does parental
disapproval of aggression,
encouragement of
nonaggressive behavior,
and limiting viewing of
violent shows
70
Q
TRUE or FALSE:
Catharsis is an effective
approach to treating
aggressive children (e.g.,
instructing an angry child
to hit a pillow).
A
FALSE: Research
has shown that
catharsis can
stimulate
aggression
71
Q
According to research,
how does divorce
typically affect the
parenting styles of both
mothers and fathers?
A
Mothers show less
affection toward children,
especially sons, whom
they may treat more
harshly; fathers become
more indulgent and
permissive
72
Q
While boys of divorced parents
tend to be affected
immediately, demonstrating
increased negative behaviors,
young girls may appear
unaffected until their
adolescent years, exemplifying
this phenomenon.
A

Sleeper

effect

73
Q
The idea that genes set
boundaries within which
environment determines
what phenotypes will
occur is referred to as
what?
A

Range of
Reaction (or
Norm of
Reaction)

74
Q
The time-frame during which a
living organism is biologically
prepared to acquire certain
behaviors, but is only able to do
so with the presence of
appropriate environmental
stimuli, is called what?
A

Critical/Sensitive

Period

75
Q
This term refers to
patterns of development
that are genetically
determined and are
influenced very little by
the environment.
A

Maturation

76
Q
What term is used to
describe characteristics
that are rather resistant
to environmental forces,
taking a narrower
developmental path?
A

Canalization

77
Q
The fact that children have
been starting puberty earlier
due to better health practices is
one example of a/an \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_,
which is defined as long-term
differences across cohorts that
indicate the impact of
environment on development.
A

Secular

trend

78
Q
What statistic is used to
estimate the degree to
which a certain
characteristic can be
attributed to genetic
factors?
A

The
heritability
index

79
Q
A person with this disorder
lacks an enzyme necessary for
the digestion of the
phenylalanine amino acid,
which remains toxic to the brain
in its undigested form and
leads to severe mental
retardation.
A

Phenylketonuria

PKU

80
Q
What incurable
neurodegenerative genetic
disorder that affects muscle
coordination and some
cognitive functions is an
example of an autosomal
dominant gene disorder?
A

Huntington’s

Chorea

81
Q
This disorder is caused by an extra
number 21 chromosome and is
characterized by moderate to
profound mental retardation,
abnormal physical features
(flattened face, protruding tongue,
stocky build), heart abnormalities,
and thyroid dysfunction.
A

Down
Syndrome
(trisomy 21)

82
Q

________ is caused by an extra X chromosome
in males and leads to incomplete development of
secondary sex characteristics; ________ occurs
in females when all or part of the second X
chromosome is missing and causes sterility,
short stature, stubby fingers, and undeveloped
secondary sex characteristics; ________ occurs
in both males and females and is caused by a
weak site on the X chromosome, leading to
mental retardation, facial abnormalities, and
abnormal speech.

A
Klinefelter's
Syndrome;
Turner's
Syndrome; Fragile
X Syndrome
83
Q
Environmental agents,
such as drugs or
infections, that cause
abnormalities by
interfering with normal
prenatal development are
called what?
A

Teratogens

84
Q
During what period of
fetal development is a
teratogen most likely to
cause a major structural
defect to a developing
organ?
A
Embryonic period
(end of second
week after
conception to end
of eighth week)
85
Q
Symptoms of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, a condition
caused by a pregnant mother's heavy
alcohol consumption, include retarded
growth, microcephaly (underdeveloped,
small brain), facial deformities,
hyperactivity, irritability, and mental
retardation; when only some of the
symptoms are present (e.g., lower IQ and
hyperactivity), the condition is referred to
as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A

Fetal alcohol
syndrome; fetal
alcohol effects

86
Q
TRUE or FALSE: A pregnant
woman undergoing
antiretroviral therapy is
significantly less likely to
ransmit HIV to her child during
the pregnancy process when
compared to woman not
receiving the therapy?
A
TRUE: The chance of
HIV transmission from
mother to baby when
undergoing antiretroviral
therapy is reduced from
25% to 2%
87
Q

The ________ reflex is when an infant grasps a
finger pressed against his palm; the ________
reflex is when an infant extends her big toe and
spreads his pinky toe when the bottom of his foot
is stroked; the ________ reflex is when an infant
arches her back, extends her legs, and projects
her arms outward when her head is slightly
dropped or she hears a loud sound; the
________ reflex is when an infant makes
stepping motions when he his held upright and
his feet touch the ground.

A

Palmar grasp;
babinski; moro
(or startle);
stepping

88
Q
These are the 6 family risk factors,
according to Rutter, that place
infants and young children at risk of
child psychopathology; research
indicates that children with 1 or no
risk have a 2% chance of
psychopathology, while 4 or more
risks led to a 21% chance.
A
Low SES, large family size
(overcrowding), severe
marital discord, parental
criminality, maternal
psychopathology, and
placement of the child
outside of the home
89
Q

According to Bronfenbrenner, the ________ is
the child’s immediate setting and includes family,
school, and daycare; the ________ comprises
connections between immediate environments
(e.g., a child’s home and school); the ________
is the child’s external environment that has only
an indirect influence on development, such as a
parent’s workplace; the ________ refers to the
larger cultural and subcultural context in which
the other systems are embedded (e.g., national
economy, politics).

A

Microsystem;
mesosystem;
exosystem;
macrosystem

90
Q
TRUE or FALSE:
At birth, infants
show no clear
preference for
taste.
A
FALSE: They are
capable of experiencing
all 4 tastes, though
show a clear preference
for sweets
91
Q

What is the least
developed part
of an infant’s
brain at birth?

A

The

cortex

92
Q
According to Piaget, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ occurs as
a child interacts with the environment and
subsequently develops organized ways
of thinking about the world (cognitive
schemas); it consists of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which
is when a child perceives and interprets
new information in terms of existing
schemas, and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which is when
existing schemas must be modified to
provide consistency with external reality.
A

Adaptation;
assimilation;
accommodation

93
Q
Piaget believed humans were
biologically driven to produce an
optimal state of stability between
their cognitive structures and their
environment, which he termed
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, a state that is necessary
for cognitive development to occur.
A
Equilibration
(accommodation occurs
during disequilibrium,
assimilation during
equilibrium)
94
Q
What are the 4
stages of cognitive
development
according to
Piaget's theory?
A
Sensorimotor (birth to 2
years), preoperational (2
to 7 years), concrete
operational (7 to 12
years), and formal
operational (12+ years)
95
Q
When a child who is in the
sensorimotor stage of
development begins to
understand that even if an
object cannot be seen, it
still exists, is said to be
developing what?
A

Object

permanence

96
Q
A child in the preoperational stage
does not yet understand that others
do not experience the world the
same exact way they do and, thus,
their experience is shared
universally, which is termed
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_; an example would be a
2 y/o who scrapes her knee and
assumes mommy is also in pain.
A

Egocentrism

97
Q
Children in the preoperational stage
often believe they can control
objects or events just by thinking
about them, termed \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, or
that inanimate objects possess
thoughts and feelings, termed
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, both of which are a
result of egocentrism.
A

Magical
thinking;
animism

98
Q
According to Piaget, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
refers to the tendency to focus
on a single detail of a situation
while neglecting other important
features, which is present
during the preoperational stage
and limits a child's ability to
understand the world
A

Centration

99
Q
One of the most prominent
developments during the concrete
operational stage is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, or
the ability for a child to understand
that the underlying properties of an
object may not change just because
its physical appearance has.
A
Conservation
(results from the
development of
decentration and
reversibility)
100
Q
A person in the formal operational stage
of development has the ability to arrive at
and test alternative explanations for
observed events, referred to as
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, and can evaluate the logical
validity of verbal assertions without
making reference to real-world
circumstances, which is termed
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A

Hypothetical-deductive
reasoning; propositional
thought

101
Q
An adolescent who is
convinced that others are just
as concerned with and critical
of his behavior as he is
exemplifies what characteristic
of the formal operational stage
of development?
A

Imaginary

audience

102
Q
An adolescent who experiences a
break-up and is convinced that no
one could ever come close to
understanding the emotional pain
she is experiencing is engaging in
what characteristic of the formal
operational stage of development?
A

Personal fable
(the belief that
one is unique and
indestructible)

103
Q
This neo-Piagetian theory of
development compares the human
mind to computer processes,
proposing that just as a computer
improves with changes to hardware
and software, so to can a child's
mental capacities improve by
learning rules and strategies for
processing information better.
A

Information
Processing
Theory

104
Q
This theory proposes that
cognitive development occurs
as a direct response to social
interactions and that learning
occurs on the interpersonal
and intrapersonal levels.
A
Vygotsky's Theory
of Cognitive
Development (Social
Development
Theory)
105
Q
According to Vygotsky, the
difference between what a
person can do without help and
what they can do with help is
referred to as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_;
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the term used to
describe the help provided to a
child by others.
A

Zone of
proximal
development;
scaffolding

106
Q
This phenomenon refers
to the inability of adults
to recall memories from
the earliest years of
their childhood.
A

Infantile
(childhood)
amnesia

107
Q
TRUE or FALSE: While an
infant's cry has been
shown to have
physiological effects on
parents, the effect for first
time parents is the
strongest.
A
TRUE: Research has
suggested first time
parents are most sensitive
physiologically, to the
sounds of their infant
crying
108
Q
Regarding language
development,
holophrastic speech,
which develops between
12 and 18 months of
age, refers to what?
A
Combining single
words with gestures
and intonation to
express a complete
thought or sentence
109
Q
Research indicating that certain
aspects of language are universal,
that there is a sensitive period
within which language is best
acquired, and that there is brain
ateralization for language supports
what theories of language
development?
A
Nativist theories, which
emphasize the role of
innate,
genetically-determined
factors in learning
language
110
Q
At about what age do
children start to use
rehearsal and other
memory strategies in
a consistent way?
A

7 years

old

111
Q
What is the significant
finding that came out of
Harlow's research on
attachment with monkeys
(i.e., wire-monkey with
food vs. soft, cloth monkey
with no food)?
A
Contact comfort (the
pleasant sensation
provided by a soft, warm
parent) is more important
than food as a determinant
of attachment
112
Q
The idea that infants are born
with built-in attachment-related
behaviors that mothers respond
to with certain behaviors in
order to meet infants' needs is
characteristic of what theory of
attachment?
A

Bowlby’s
Ethological
Theory

113
Q
Bowlby proposed that a child's'
behavior in later relationships is
guided by what he termed
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which are mental
representations of the self and
attachment figures developed
during the first years of life.
A

Internal
working
models

114
Q
A child who is around 6
months old uses information
gleaned from reading her
parents' emotional reactions
to guide her own behaviors,
which is referred to as what?
A

Social referencing
(supported by
“visual cliff”
studies)

115
Q
Strongest between 14
and 18 months old,
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ occurs when
an infant responds with
distress in the absence
of his primary caregiver.
A

Separation

anxiety

116
Q
Between what
ages does an
infant experience
the most intense
stranger anxiety?
A

8 to 15

months old

117
Q
According to Bowlby, babies
between 15 and 30 months old with
this experience demonstrate the
following pattern of predictable
behaviors: protest (crying loud,
rejects attention from other adults),
despair (inactive, withdrawal), and
detachment (apathy which may
continue in mother's presence).
A

Prolonged
separation from
their mother

118
Q

As a result of Ainsworth’s research, the following 4
attachment patterns were identified: ________ (baby
explores environment, comfortable with strangers when
mother is around, emotionally sensitive/responsive),
________ (baby uninterested in environment, distressed
when mother not present and avoids her upon return),
________ (baby anxious when mother present, very
distressed when she leaves and ambivalent upon her
return, wary of strangers), and ________ (baby
apprehensive and confused, alternates between
avoidance/resistance ad proximity-seeking).

A

Secure; Avoidant/Anxious;
Resistant/Anxious;
Disorganized/Disoriented

119
Q
The baby of a mother who is
either impatient/non-responsive
or is overly responsive,
involved, and stimulating may
respond to the "strange
situation" in ways consistent
with what attachment pattern?
A

Anxious/Avoidant

120
Q
The baby of a mother who is
inconsistent in her responses,
responding with indifference at
times while responding
enthusiastically at other times,
is likely to develop a/an
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ attachment style.
A

Anxious/Resistant

121
Q

The 4 adult attachment patterns include: ________ (value
attachment relationships, integrate positive and negative
childhood experiences), ________ (devalue importance of
attachment relationships, defensive and guarded when
asked about childhood, idealize parents without concrete
support), ________ (confused and incoherent attachment
memories, remain enmeshed with family issues, believe
family problems cannot be overcome), and ________ (have
dysfunctional relationships, experienced trauma or loss as
child that was never mourned, tend to be neglectful of their
own children).

A

Secure-autonomous;
dismissing;
preoccupied;
unresolved

122
Q
TRUE or FALSE: Research has
shown that children who are
rejected by their peers tend to
experience less psychological
and behavioral problems than
those neglected by their peers.
A
FALSE: Children who are
rejected by their peers have
been shown to demonstrate
higher levels of aggressiveness
and other disruptive behaviors,
as well as increased feelings of
loneliness
123
Q

According to Piaget’s theory of moral
development, children between 4 and 7 years old
demonstrate ________ morality in which rules
are viewed as absolute and unchangeable, and
judgments are based mainly on the
consequences of the act; by 7 or 8 years old,
children demonstrate ________ morality in which
rules are viewed as flexible agreements between
individuals and judgments are based more on
the actor’s intentions.

A

Heteronomous;

autonomous

124
Q

Between what
ages does peer
conformity
peak?

A

12 to 14

years old

125
Q
TRUE or FALSE: Fearful children
develop conscience better when
their parent uses gentle discipline
(deemphasizes power, capitalizes
on child's internal discomfort) rather
than negative discipline (threats,
angry commands).
A
TRUE: And fearless
children tend to develop
conscience through use
of secure attachment
and maternal
responsiveness
126
Q
Of masculinity, femininity,
and androgyny, which is
associated with the
highest levels of
self-esteem in both girls
and boys?
A
Androgyny, while
masculinity is
associated with higher
levels of self-esteem
than femininity in both
girls and boys
127
Q
What theory proposes that children
internalize conceptual frameworks
(schema) about
gender-expectations within a
sociocultural context, which
subsequently predispose the
person to construct a
schema-consistent self-identity?
A

Gender
Schema Theory
(Bem, 1981)

128
Q

According to Kohlberg’s
Cognitive-Developmental Theory, the 3 stages of
gender-identity development are: ________
(child recognizes they are either male or female,
usually by 2 or 3 years old), ________
(realization that gender identity is consistent over
time), and ________ (understand that gender
does not change because of changes in
appearance or behaviors, usually around 6 or 7
years old).

A

Gender
identity; gender
stability; gender
constancy

129
Q

According to Thomas and Chess, most children
can be categorized into 1 of 3 temperament
groups, which include: ________ (cheerful, react
to new stimuli with low-moderate intensity, adapt
easily, eat and sleep regularly), ________ (sad
or tense, react to new stimuli with low intensity,
adapt to new situations over time, variable eat
and sleep schedule), and ________ (irritated
with new experiences, difficult to soothe, very
active, irregular eat and sleep schedule).

A

Easy;
slow-to-warm-up;
difficult

130
Q
According to the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
model, maladjustment is the
result of a poor fit between a
child's temperament and
environment (e.g., parents'
response pattern), whereas a
more appropriate fit leads to a
more well-adjusted child.
A

Goodness-of-Fit
(Thomas and
Chess)

131
Q
What are the 5
stages of
psychosexual
development
proposed by Freud?
A
  1. Oral (birth to 1 year);
  2. Anal (1 to 3 years); 3.
    Phallic (3 to 6 years); 4.
    Latency (6 years to
    puberty); 5. Genital
    (post-puberty)
132
Q
According to Freud,
during which stage of
development does the
Oedipal (boys) or
Electra (girls) conflict
occur?
A

Phallic
stage (3 to
6 years)

133
Q
What are the 8
psychosocial conflicts,
according to Erikson,
that occur throughout
a person's lifespan?
A

Trust vs. mistrust (birth to 1 year),
autonomy vs. shame/doubt (1 to 3 years),
initiative vs. guilt (3 to 6 years), industry
vs. inferiority (6 years to puberty), identity
vs. identity confusion (adolescence),
intimacy vs. isolation (young adulthood),
generativity vs. stagnation (middle
adulthood), and ego integrity vs. despair
(old age)

134
Q

Regarding parenting styles, ________ parents
are warm and nurturing, gain control through
explanation and seeking their child’s input, and
set high standards; ________ parents are
controlling and demanding, and respond to
disobedience punitively; ________ parents are
nurturing but fail to assert their authority,
providing little structure; and ________ parents
are undemanding and indifferent, uncommitted
as parents, and keep a distance from their
children.

A

Authoritative;
authoritarian;
permissive;
uninvolved

135
Q
A person who, as a child, was
insecure and unhappy, and as
an adult lacked a sense of
initiative and was dependent on
others, is likely to have had
parents with what type of
parenting style?
A

Authoritarian

136
Q
The characteristics of
what parenting style
are most predictive of
adolescent
delinquency?
A

Uninvolved

137
Q

According to Marcia, which “identity
status” corresponds to the following
adolescent responses to an inquiry about
political beliefs: 1) “I haven’t really
thought about it.” 2) “I’m libertarian, like
my parents.” 3) “I’m a little confused and
wonder if my beliefs are represented by
any existing political party.” 4) “After
struggling with it, I feel confident with my
liberal perspectives.”

A
Identity diffusion (no identity crisis
or commitment); identity foreclosure
(strong commitment to identity
based on external influence, not
crisis); identity moratorium (identity
crisis leads to exploration of
options); identity achievement
(crisis resolved and committed to
identity)
138
Q
According to Gilligan, females risk
experiencing \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ as a result of
the internalization of sexist
messages; this can be mitigated by
authority figures (parents, teachers)
providing them with experiences
that promote and support remaining
connected to themselves and
others.
A

Loss of

voice

139
Q
According to Patterson
and his colleagues,
children learn to act
aggressively as a result
of what 2 parenting
factors?
A
Imitation and being
rewarded for their
aggressive acts
(via attention or
approval)
140
Q
TRUE or FALSE: Having a
parent present while
watching aggressive
television programs
mitigates the negative
effects on children.
A
TRUE: As does parental
disapproval of aggression,
encouragement of
nonaggressive behavior,
and limiting viewing of
violent shows
141
Q
TRUE or FALSE:
Catharsis is an effective
approach to treating
aggressive children (e.g.,
instructing an angry child
to hit a pillow).
A
FALSE: Research
has shown that
catharsis can
stimulate
aggression
142
Q
According to research,
how does divorce
typically affect the
parenting styles of both
mothers and fathers?
A
Mothers show less
affection toward children,
especially sons, whom
they may treat more
harshly; fathers become
more indulgent and
permissive
143
Q

Studies indicate that children who are
preschool-aged when their parents divorce tend
to experience more ________ consequences
(e.g., self-blame, immature behavior, separation
anxiety), while children who are older at the time
of their parents divorce experience more
________ consequences (e.g., lasting painful
memories, fear their own ability to be happily
married).

A

Short-term;

long-term

144
Q
Who is likely to be more
well adjusted, a child from
an intact family that is
constantly in conflict, or a
child from a divorced
family low in conflict?
A
Research indicates that
children from high-conflict
intact families tend to be
more poorly adjusted than
those from low-conflict
divorced families
145
Q
The relationship between
children and step-\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
involves more frequent
interactions, though they are
often harsh, while relationships
between children and
step-\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are typically
unpleasant and disengaged.
A

Mothers;

fathers

146
Q
TRUE or FALSE: Children
with mothers who work
tend to have lower
self-esteem and worse
family and peer relations
than children whose
mothers do not work.
A
FALSE: Research
suggests children with
working mothers tend to
have higher self-esteem
and better relationships,
in general
147
Q
In what ways does the
adjustment of children
with homosexual
parents differ from that
of children raised by
heterosexual parents?
A
Research suggests no
significant differences,
including future sexual
orientation, impact of
divorce, and peer
relations
148
Q
In her Kansas City Study,
Neugarten found that around 50
years old, people experience a
transition from an \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to an
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ orientation; she also
found that "midlife" is characterized
by a shift in perspective from
"\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_" to "\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_."
A
Outer-world
(environment can be
controlled); Inner-world
(environment is a
threat); time since birth;
time until death
149
Q
As people increase in age, they are
likely to experience relatively little
impact when performing \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
tasks that measure acquired
knowledge; however, performance
on \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ tasks requiring rapid
responding to and processing of
new information declines
significantly.
A

Verbal;

nonverbal

150
Q
In the months just prior to
death, most people
experience the
phenomenon termed
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, whereby all
areas of intelligence
decline significantly.
A

Terminal

drop

151
Q
The "synchrony effect"
(May and Hasher) refers to
the matching of task
demands with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_,
which positively influences
performance on cognitive
tasks.
A

Preferred

time of day

152
Q

What types of
memory are most
negatively
impacted by age?

A

Recent
long-term and
working
memory

153
Q
Long-term memory is
divided into \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ memory, of
which the latter tends to be
substantially more
negatively impacted by
age than the former.
A

Remote;

recent

154
Q
TRUE or FALSE:
Age-related memory
decline appears to be
more a function of poor
encoding strategies rather
than capacity for storage
of new memories.
A

FALSE: Hence,
training in
encoding skills
can be beneficial

155
Q
Research indicates that
aging has the greatest
impact on one's ability
to recall personal
experiences, which is
referred to as what?
A

Episodic

memory

156
Q
What are the 5 stages
proposed by
Kubler-Ross that people
go through when faced
with their own death?
A
Denial, anger,
bargaining,
depression,
acceptance
(DABDA)
157
Q
During what ages
does a person
experience the
greatest anxiety
about death?
A

50 to 60

years old