Abnormal Flashcards
1
Q
The DSM is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in nature and, as such, only addresses the etiology of disorders for which the cause is clearly known (e.g., PTSD).
A
Atheoretical
2
Q
Regarding multiaxial assessment, identify and describe the 5 axes used with each individual diagnosis.
A
Axis I: Clinical disorders and other conditions that may be a focus of clinical attention; Axis II: Mental retardation and personality disorders; Axis III: General medical conditions; Axis IV: Psychosocial and environmental problems; Axis V: GAF
3
Q
The DSM-IV-TR defines \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ as a "clinically significant behavioral or psychological syndrome or pattern that occurs in an individual and is associated with present distress... disability... or with a significant increased risk of suffering death, pain, disability, or important loss of freedom..."
A
Mental
disorder
4
Q
When a therapist applies diagnoses for a person on both Axis I and Axis II, what words should be used to emphasize the one that is the focus of treatment?
A
Principal
Diagnosis (or
Reason for
Visit)
5
Q
Routinely used defense mechanisms and maladaptive personality traits that are not pervasive enough to qualify for a personality disorder can be recorded on what axis?
A
Axis II
6
Q
TRUE or FALSE: A therapist should not consider impairment caused by a client's physical or environmental limitations when using the GAF scale (Axis V).
A
TRUE: Physical limitations are usually coded on Axis III, while environmental stressors would be coded on Axis IV
7
Q
The DSM-IV-TR takes a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ approach to mental disorder diagnosis, classifying a person as either meeting or not meeting a disorder's given criteria. This differs from a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ approach, which quantifies a persons symptoms rather than classifying them.
A
Categorical;
dimensional
8
Q
This diagnosis requires the following three criteria: (1) Significantly sub-average intellectual functioning, (2) concurrent impairments or deficits in at least 2 areas of adaptive functioning, and (3) onset before age 18.
A
Mental
Retardation
9
Q
What are the 4 degrees of mental retardation and their corresponding IQ scores, as defined by the DSM?
A
Mild (IQ = 50-55 to 70); Moderate (IQ = 35-40 to 50-55); Severe (IQ = 20-25 to 35-40); Profound (IQ = 20-25 or below)
10
Q
People with this degree of mental retardation are able to develop social and communication skills during childhood, acquire about a 6th grade level of academic skills, and are able to work and live independently as adults.
A
Mild Retardation
(85% of all
mentally
retarded people)
11
Q
With this level of mental retardation, people may require guidance and some supervision in social and occupational settings; they usually have no more than a 2nd grade academic level; and as adults, they can contribute to their own support by performing unskilled or semiskilled work under close supervision
A
Moderate
Retardation (10%
of all mentally
retarded people)
12
Q
People with this degree of mental retardation have poor motor skills and communication skills as a child, though may learn to talk and can be trained in simple hygiene tasks; and they are often able to perform simple tasks as a adults, often living in highly supervised settings (e.g., group homes, with family).
A
Severe
Retardation (3-4%
of all mentally
retarded people)
13
Q
At this level of mental retardation, people demonstrate extreme limitations in motor and sensory function; require highly structured environments, usually assisted by a caregiver; and can sometimes perform simple tasks under close supervision in a sheltered workshop
A
Profound
Retardation (1-2%
of all mentally
retarded people)
14
Q
What biological antecedent to mental retardation is caused by a lack of the enzyme necessary to oxidize phenylalanine (and amino acid in protein foods)?
A
Phenylketonuria
PKU
15
Q
This biological cause of mental retardation occurs due to a faulty distribution of chromosomes when the egg or sperm is formed, leaving the person with 47 rather than 46 chromosomes
A
Down’s
Syndrome (aka
Trisomy-21)
16
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ retardation is often related to early deprivation of nurturance, deficiencies in health care, early deficiencies in social, cognitive, and other stimulation, and poverty
A
Cultural-familial
17
Q
What disorder is characterized by delayed or abnormal functioning in: social interaction, language as used in social communication, or symbolic or imaginative play by age 3?
A
Autism
Disorder
18
Q
TRUE or FALSE: As people with Autism grow older, they may become more interested in developing relationships, which is usually absent in Autistic children.
A
TRUE: They usually do not understand the customs that regulate social interaction
19
Q
What is the term used to define a person's tendency to repeat the words or phrases of others?
A
Echolalia
20
Q
What form of therapy has been shown to be fairly successful in treating people with Autism?
A
Behavioral therapy, particularly techniques such as shaping and operant conditioning, has helped people with Autism replace abnormal behaviors with more desirable ones
21
Q
The core feature of this disorder is a progressive pattern of developmental regression that begins before age 4 and is characterized by decelerated head growth, loss of hand skills, lack of bodily coordination, severe deficiencies in overall language development, psychomotor retardation, and lacking social interest.
A
Rett’s Disorder
(only been
found in
females)
22
Q
People with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ experience a significant loss of developed skills (language, social, adaptive behavior, bowel/bladder control, play, and/or motor) after 2 or more years of seemingly normal development.
A
Childhood Disintegrative Disorder (similar social/communication and behavior to those with Autism)
23
Q
What are the significant differences between a person with Autism and a person with Asperger's Disorder?
A
While both involve deficits in social interaction and behavior, people with Asperger's show no impairment in language development, self-help skills, cognitive development, or interest in the environment
24
Q
What are the 3
Learning Disorders
described in the
DSM?
A
Reading Disorder, Mathematics Disorder, and Disorder of Written Expression
25
Q
TRUE or FALSE: Learning disorders cannot be caused by mental retardation, but mental retardation can be co-diagnosed with a learning disorder.
A
TRUE: Learning Disorders and Mental Retardation are distinct phenomena that, while not caused by the other, can be co-diagnosed
26
Q
A person with ________ is able to read
regularly spelled words, but unable to
decipher words spelled irregularly (e.g.,
reads “fight” as “fit”); a person with
________ might produce responses that
are related to the target word in meaning
but not visually or phonologically (e.g.,
substitutes “down” for “up” or “hot” for
“cold”), which is referred to as “semantic
paralexia.”
A
Surface
dyslexia;
deep dyslexia
27
Q
What condition involves inflammation of the middle ear accompanied by accumulation of liquid in the middle ear cleft and is said to cause cerebellar-vestibular dysfunction, which has been linked to the development of learning disorders?
A
Otitis Media
with Effusion
(OME)
28
Q
After administering a battery of standardized tests of intelligence to a client, results reveal severe deficits in both receptive and expressive language development, while the client's performance on nonverbal measures are considerably higher. What is the likely diagnosis?
A
Mixed
Receptive-Expressive
Language Disorder
29
Q
This diagnosis would likely apply when a person's academic/occupational or social abilities are impeded by their inappropriate use of speech sounds.
A
Phonological
Disorder
30
Q
While considered "normal childhood dysfluency" when it occurs in young children, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is said to be aggravated by tension or anxiety in more mature individuals.
A
Stuttering
31
Q
A young person whose scholastic achievement is impeded by abnormal clumsiness would likely receive a diagnosis of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A
Motor
Skills
Disorder
32
Q
The 3 types of ADHD include ________, which is
characterized by 6 or more symptoms of
inattention and 6 or more symptoms of
hyperactivity-impulsiveness; ________, which is
diagnosed when a person has 6 or more
symptoms of inattention but fewer than 6
symptoms of hyperactivity-impulsiveness; and
________, which is characterized by 6 or more
symptoms of hyperactivity-impulsiveness but
fewer than 6 symptoms of inattention
A
Combined; Predominantly Inattentive; Predominantly Hyperactivity-Impulsive
33
Q
Onset of symptoms must be before what age, and for what duration, in order to assign an ADHD diagnosis?
A
Onset must be before 7 y/o and last for a duration of at least 6 months, with symptoms present in 2 or more settings (e.g., home and school)
34
Q
What are common comorbid problems experienced by children and adolescents diagnosed with ADHD?
A
50% meet criteria for Conduct Disorder, 25% have emotional disorder, 20% have Learning Disorder, and others experience social maladjustment, motor incoordination, and visual/audio impairments
35
Q
TRUE or FALSE: Children classified as ADHD tend to become delinquent and antisocial young adults?
A
TRUE: About 70%
exhibit signs of
ADHD throughout
their lives
36
Q
What personality characteristics have been noted to develop as a result of untreated ADHD?
A
Narcissism and passive-aggressive traits (usually subside once ADHD is treated)
37
Q
ADHD has been linked to abnormalities in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ by research that found diminished glucose metabolism and decreased blood flow in this region, as well as pathways connecting this region to the caudate nucleus.
A
Prefrontal
cortex
38
Q
TRUE or FALSE:
There is no
genetic link
regarding ADHD
A
FALSE: About 57% of children whose parents have ADHD are later diagnosed, while twin studies have revealed a .80 average heritability for hyperactivity/impulsivity
39
Q
This idea suggests that the core of ADHD is not attention deficits but rather a lack of ability to adjust activity levels to fit the requirements of different settings.
A
Behavioral
disinhibition
hypothesis
(Barkley)
40
Q
What are some of the undesirable side-effects of methylphenidate (Ritalin), which is often used to treat ADHD?
A
Somatic symptoms (decreased appetite, insomnia, stomach aches); movement abnormalities (motor and vocal tics, stereotyped movements); obsessive-compulsive symptoms (though more common with dextroamphetamine); growth suppression (hence "drug holidays")
41
Q
A child or adolescent who persistently violates social rules and norms, such as acting aggressively toward animals, destroying property, or stealing, is likely to receive what diagnosis?
A
Conduct
Disorder
42
Q
To diagnose Conduct Disorder, the person has to display \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ or more signs for at least \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ months, with at least one sign present in the past \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ months.
A
3; 12; 6
43
Q
Regarding Conduct Disorder, what differentiates "Childhood Onset" from "Adolescent Onset?"
A
Childhood Onset diagnosed when symptoms present prior to age 10; Adolescent Onset when symptoms occur at age 10 or later
44
Q
In people diagnosed with Conduct Disorder, those with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Onset have a worse prognosis and are more likely to receive a later diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder, while problematic behavior of those with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Onset is usually a product of their relationships with delinquent peers.
A
Childhood;
Adolescent
45
Q
What diagnosis best applies for a child or young adolescent who is very negative, argumentative, and defiant to adults (usually parents), rarely accepts responsibility for their actions, but tends not to get into much trouble outside of the home?
A
Oppositional
Defiant
Disorder
46
Q
This disorder involves persistently eating non-nutritive substances such as paint, cloth, sand, grass, etc. for at least 1 month; it is typically associated with Mental Retardation
A
Pica
47
Q
What is the diagnosis of a child who, for at least one month following normal functioning, recurrently regurgitates and re-chews their food?
A
Rumination
Disorder
48
Q
What disorder is diagnosed for a child who, before age 6, chronically fails to eat enough food for at least one month, which leads to weight loss or failure to gain weight? It is commonly referred to as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A
Feeding Disorder
of Infancy or
Early Childhood;
failure to thrive
49
Q
This Tic Disorder has its onset before age 18 and is characterized by involuntary jerky movements, vocal sounds (grunts, clicks), and sometimes coprolalia (uttering obscene words); people with this diagnosis often have attention and hyperactivity problems
A
Tourette’s
Disorder
50
Q
A person presenting with symptoms similar to Tourette's Disorder who experiences tics in only one domain (movements or vocal sounds) would be most appropriately diagnosed:
A
Chronic Motor
or Vocal Tic
Disorder
51
Q
Regarding elimination disorders, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ refer to repeated involuntary or intentional elimination of feces and urine, respectively.
A
Encopresis;
enuresis
52
Q
Treatment of enuresis often includes \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which involves placing a pad under the child that sounds an alarm as soon urine touches it and are associated with the highest long-term success rate.
A
Moisture
alarms (aka
bell-and-pad)
53
Q
What diagnosis is most appropriate for a child who experiences excessive anxiety, lasting for at least 4 weeks, in response to separation from home or a significant figure of attachment (parent) and is often accompanied by somatic complaints (nausea, dizziness)?
A
Separation
Anxiety
Disorder
54
Q
Usually caused by separation anxiety, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ refers to the experience of intense anxiety about going to school and is often an early sign of depression or another serious mental disorder
A
School
Phobia
55
Q
TRUE or FALSE: It is recommended that a child with school phobia be removed from the academic setting until his fear is appropriately resolved.
A
FALSE: The
consensus is that
he child should be
returned to school
56
Q
What disorder is characterized by a chronic failure to talk in certain situations (e.g., school) for at least 1 month, despite competently and easily talking in other situations (e.g., home)?
A
Selective
Mutism
57
Q
A child with this disorder presents with extremely disturbed and developmentally inappropriate relatedness; the Inhibited Type fails to initiate or respond in age-expected manners to social interactions, while the Disinhibited Type is socially indiscriminate (e.g., easily affectionate with strangers)
A
Reactive
Attachment
Disorde
58
Q
Often associated with Mental Retardation, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is characterized by repetitive motor behaviors that are not functional, such as head banging or body-rocking, and cause physical harm or significantly interfere with normal activities
A
Stereotypic
Movement
Disorder
59
Q
A child who has a short nose, narrow upper lip, small chin, and flat mid-face, and who experiences developmental delays, failure to thrive, and is usually mild to moderately mentally retarded characterizes what non-DSM condition?
A
Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (caused by chronic consumption of alcohol by mother during pregnancy)
60
Q
What is the 3rd most frequent cause of death for infants between 1 month and 1 year old?
A
Sudden Infant
Death
Syndrome
(SIDS)
61
Q
A child diagnosed with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ may present similarly as depressed adults, though often mask their feelings with delinquency, phobias, underachievement, psychosomatic complaints, hyperactivity, or aggression; it is often associated with family abuse or neglect.
A
Childhood
Depression
62
Q
A person presents for therapy after family members noticed significantly increased paranoia following a car accident where the person sustained a head injury. Collateral information suggests the paranoia presented only after the accident. What is the most likely primary diagnosis?
A
Personality
Change Due to a
General Medical
Condition
63
Q
What are the subtypes of Personality Change Due to a General Medical Condition?
A
Labile, Disinhibited, Aggressive, Apathetic, Paranoid, Other, Unspecified, and Combined
64
Q
What is the most likely diagnosis for a person who becomes catatonic as a direct result of cerebrovascular disease?
A
Catatonic
Disorder Due to a
General Medical
Condition
65
Q
What is diagnosed when maladaptive behavioral or psychological changes occur during or shortly after using or being exposed to a substance (e.g., alcohol, caffeine, opioids), and the changes are due to the physiological effects of the substance on the central nervous system?
A
Substance
Intoxication
66
Q
This diagnosis is given when a reversible syndrome develops in a person due to recently terminating or reducing the use of a substance after using it in large quantities over a long period of time.
A
Substance
Withdrawal
67
Q
A client who discloses a history of extensive LSD use, though he no longer uses, reports that he occasionally re-experiences hallucinations similar to those he experienced when using the LSD. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?
A
Hallucinogen
Persisting
Perception
Disorder
68
Q
A person with ________ experiences a reduced
level of awareness and understanding of the
environment, impaired ability to focus, maintain,
or switch attention (disturbances of
consciousness), as well as memory impairment,
disorientation, or language difficulties (cognitive
disturbances); sometimes illusions or
hallucinations (perceptual disturbance) occur
instead of cognitive disturbances
A
Delirium
69
Q
Describe the
typical onset
and duration of
delirium.
A
Onset is usually
rapid and duration
is brief, typically
less than 1 month
70
Q
What four groups has research found to be most at risk for developing delirium?
A
Older people (60+ y/o); people with decreased cerebral reserve (e.g., prior CNS injury or impaired cognition); post-cardiotomy patients; people going through drug withdrawal
71
Q
A client is relatively alert, though her memory has significantly declined and she has been experiencing increased difficulty recognizing objects, organizing her thoughts, and understanding abstract concepts. These problems have seriously impeded her normal functioning. What is her most likely diagnosis?
A
Dementia
72
Q
What percent
of people over
age 85 have
dementia?
A
20%
73
Q
What is the term used when an elderly person's experience of depression impairs their cognitive ability, but is unrelated to a general medical condition or substance use?
A
Pseudo-dementia
74
Q
The initial stages of ________ involves
forgetting tasks and repeating questions,
which progresses to impaired ability to
perform day-to-day tasks independently
(e.g., cooking, driving, getting dressed).
In the final stages, incontinence, severe
language impairment, and the inability to
walk or sit-up are typical
A
Alzheimer’s
Disease
75
Q
What is the only way to confirm with certainty that a person has Alzheimer's Disease?
A
Postmortem
brain autopsy
or biopsy
76
Q
A person who presents with significant problems in memory and/or other cognitive disturbances following a cerebrovascular disease (e.g., stroke or infarction) would receive what diagnosis?
A
Vascular
Dementia
77
Q
What is another term for what the DSM calls Dementia Due to HIV Disease?
A
AIDS
Dementia
Complex
78
Q
When a person's dementia is caused by the persisting effects of substance use, rather than the direct effects of intoxication or withdrawal, the most appropriate diagnosis is what?
A
Substance-Induced
Persisting Dementia
(with the responsible
substance indicated)
79
Q
Significant impairment in one's ability to learn new information is referred to as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ amnesia, while marked diminishment in one's ability to recall learned information or events is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ amnesia
A
Anterograde;
retrograde
80
Q
When a person's amnesia is due to a medical condition, such as hypoxia, seizures, or head trauma, the correct diagnosis is:
A
Amnestic Disorder Due to a General Medical Condition (with specific condition indicated)
81
Q
Alcohol-Induced Persisting Amnestic Disorder due to thiamine and other vitamin B deficiencies is know as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A
Korsakoff’s
Syndrome
82
Q
What drug produces severe nausea when taken in conjunction with alcohol and is used to assist in the treatment of alcoholism?
A
Antabuse
83
Q
The DSM defines Substance \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ as a cluster of cognitive, behavioral, and physiological symptoms indicating that the individual continues use of the substance despite significant substance-related problems, while Substance \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ refers to less severe maladaptive substance use that leads to general problems in life (e.g., academic, relational, legal).
A
Dependence;
Abuse
84
Q
TRUE or FALSE: A person cannot be diagnosed with both Substance Abuse and Substance Dependence.
A
True- if a person meets the criteria for Dependence, Abuse is not diagnosed
85
Q
Research has shown that alcoholics who are administered the WAIS perform relatively normal on \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ subtests, while their \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ subtest scores are often poorer than expected, especially on visual-spatial measures
A
Verbal;
performance
86
Q
Occurring during alcohol withdrawal, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ involve typical signs of delirium, in addition to hallucinations, delusions, autonomic hyperactivity, and agitation; they are often associated with a co-occurring medical condition (e.g., liver failure)
A
Delirium
tremens
87
Q
Withdrawal and Intoxication by what 2 substances share the same diagnostic criteria in the DSM?
A
Cocaine and
amphetamine
88
Q
What substance does not lead to physical dependence, has no significant withdrawal symptoms, and has no evidence of causing any long-term negative or toxic effects to it's users (based on governmental studies)?
A
Cannabis
Marijuana
89
Q
A client presents to therapy complaining of nervousness, speaking rapidly, and has a flushed face. He reports having a difficult time sleeping and mentions increased diarrhea. During the session, he coyly states he has started consuming copious quantities of "Red Bull" energy drinks. What is a possible diagnosis?
A
Caffeine
Intoxication
90
Q
What term is used to describe the phenomenon that a person's substance use relapse leads to feelings of guilt and failure, which in turn lead to more relapses?
A
Abstinence
Violation
Effect (AVE)
91
Q
In any substance abuse treatment, the first and most important step involves what?
A
Getting the person to acknowledge that they have a problem, as denial is common
92
Q
What 2 forms of treatment, when done in tandem, have the highest benefit for people in treatment for nicotine dependence (e.g., looking to quit smoking)?
A
Nicotine replacement therapy (gum, patch) and behavioral intervention (stimulus control, aversive techniques)
93
Q
An approach used for the treatment of substance dependence, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ contends substance dependence is a collection of maladaptive, over-learned habit patterns, rather than physiological responses to substance use; it does not label or blame people, but rather views them as responsible for learning more adaptive habits
A
Relapse
Prevention
Therapy (CBT
in nature)
94
Q
The symptoms of what disorder affect content of thought, form of thought, perception, affect, sense of self, volition, interpersonal functioning, and/or psychomotor behavior, and literally means "splitting of the mind?"
A
Schizophrenia
95
Q
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ symptoms of schizophrenia are distortions of normal functions, such as delusions and hallucinations; the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ symptoms represent a decrease or loss of functions that are usually present, such as alogia (restricted fluency of thought/speech), avolition (restricted initiation of goal-directed behavior), and flat affect
A
Positive;
negative
96
Q
A person diagnosed with Schizophrenia \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Type might present with loose associations, incoherence, flat or inappropriate affect, and regressed behavior that is largely uninhibited (e.g., laugh w/ out reason, incongruous facial gestures)
A
Disorganized
97
Q
What type of Schizophrenia is characterized by psychomotor motor disturbance, including posturing, mutism, rigidity, motoric immobility, extreme negativism, and/or extreme excitement?
A
Catatonic
Type
98
Q
A client who speaks candidly and lucidly about a nonexistent world, is preoccupied with voices telling her "the world is ending," and whose speech, overt behavior, and affect are largely appropriate best fits what type of Schizophrenia?
A
Paranoid
Type
99
Q
A person who presents with symptoms of Schizophrenia though does not clearly qualify as disorganized, catatonic, or paranoid types would be classified as what type?
A
Undifferentiated
Type
100
Q
A client who has had an episode of Schizophrenia and continues to display less severe negative and/or positive symptoms (e.g., flat affect, odd beliefs), though no prominent positive psychotic symptoms are present would be classified as what type?
A
Residual
Type
101
Q
What type of speech is a common symptom of psychosis characterized by responses that do not relate to questions asked, or one paragraph, sentence, or phrase is not logically connected to those that occur before or after?
A
Loosening of
Associations
(Loose
Associations)
102
Q
This term refers to a style of speech that is less serious than loose associations and is characterized by excessive attention to irrelevant and digressive details; often the point is eventually reached.
A
Circumstantiality
103
Q
What term refers to the idea that schizophrenia is associated with either an excess of the monoamine neurotransmitters (dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, glutamate) or with increased sensitivity to the dopamine ordinarily present in the brain?
A
Dopamine
hypothesis
104
Q
According to Gottesman, what are the lifetime probabilities for developing Schizophrenia among biological siblings, dizygotic (fraternal) twins, and monozygotic (identical) twins, in percentages?
A
Biological = 10%;
dizygotic twins =
16%; monozygotic
twins = 48%
105
Q
The theory (Mednick) that proposes Schizophrenia occurs in people physiologically predisposed to the condition who are confronted with an adverse and stressful environment is referred to as what?
A
Diathesis-stress
(vulnerability)
theory
106
Q
Research suggests that Schizophrenic patients from \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ countries tend to have a more acute onset, but shorter clinical course, and usually a complete remission when compared to patients from \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ countries.
A
Non-industrialized;
industrialized
107
Q
One side-effect of pharmacological treatment of Schizophrenia, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements, such as grimacing, lip smacking, rapid eye blinking, and lip puckering.
A
Tardive
dyskinesia
108
Q
What is the likely diagnosis of a person who presents with symptoms identical to Schizophrenia, which he has been experiencing for less than 6 months, though he has not experienced a significant decline in overall functioning?
A
Schizophreniform
Disorder
109
Q
This disorder is characterized by symptoms of both a Mood Disorder and Schizophrenia, where psychotic symptoms are present and mood symptoms absent for 2 weeks or more; psychotic features are more prominent than in a Mood Disorder with Psychotic Features.
A
Schizoaffective
Disorder
110
Q
A person who presents with delusions that are theoretically plausible (non-bizarre), appropriate behavior, and no marked impairment in functioning would receive what diagnosis?
A
Delusional
Disorder
111
Q
This Delusional Disorder type is characterized by the delusion that a person, typically of higher status, is in love with the patient.
A
Erotomanic
Type
112
Q
Delusional Disorder \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Type is characterized by the delusion that one has made a truly meaningful discovery and/or has a remarkable talent.
A
Grandiose
Type
113
Q
What Delusional Disorder type does a man who is convinced his wife is cheating, based on the fact she came home from work with a wrinkled shirt, best fit?
A
Jealous
Type
114
Q
A person with Delusional Disorder who believes they, or someone they know, is being malevolently mistreated best qualify for what type of the disorder?
A
Persecutory
Type
115
Q
This type of Delusional Disorder is characterized by the irrational conviction that one has a physical defect, disorder, or disease.
A
Somatic
Type
116
Q
When a client's delusional belief cannot be clearly determined or is not described by the specific types, they would receive a diagnosis of Delusional Disorder \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Type.
A
Unspecified
117
Q
TRUE or FALSE: A person can present with more than one type of Delusional Disorder?
A
TRUE: This is
referred to as
Mixed Type
118
Q
A person experiences the sudden onset of at least one psychotic symptom (delusion, hallucination, etc.) that lasts from several hours up to a month, and then returns to premorbid level of functioning, the most appropriate diagnosis is:
A
Brief
Psychotic
Disorder
119
Q
If a Brief Psychotic Disorder is in response to a very stressful event, it is sometimes referred to a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and the diagnosis would include the specifier \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A
Brief Reactive
Psychosis; With
Marked
Stressor(s)
120
Q
This French term often refers to when a person in close relation to another person who has a psychotic disorder begins experiencing similar delusions
A
Folie a Deux
(aka Shared
Psychotic
Disorder)
121
Q
A ________ Episode involves impaired
functionality as a result of abnormally elevated,
expansive, or irritable mood for a period of at
least 1 week, in addition to symptoms such as
grandiosity, flight of ideas, and increased
verbosity; a ________ Episode is similar,
however the duration must be 4 days, no
psychotic features or functional impairment is
present, and hospitalization is not needed.
A
Manic;
Hypomanic
122
Q
A person who reports experiencing both mania and major depression in a single day, for at least 1 week, is experiencing a:
A
Mixed
Episode
123
Q
This is characterized by a change in prior functioning due to the experience of depressed mood or loss of pleasure, in addition to at least 5 other symptoms of depression, during a two-week period
A
Major
Depressive
Episode
124
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ involves the presence of at least 1 manic or mixed episode at some time, and the person may or may not have experienced 1 or more major depressive episodes; the diagnosis of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is given when 1 or more major depressive episodes and at least one hypomanic episode are present.
A
Bipolar I;
Bipolar II
125
Q
Considered a Bipolar Disorder, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Disorder involves a mood disturbance of at least 2 years where the person alternates between hypomania and mild to moderate depressive states; functioning is often unimpaired.
A
Cyclothymic
126
Q
According to the DSM, approximately what percentage of people with Major Depressive Disorder die by suicide?
A
15%
127
Q
A person experiencing their first (and perhaps only) depressive episode would be diagnosed with Major Depressive Disorder, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, while one who has experienced more than one episode in a 2 year period would receive the indicator \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A
Single
Episode;
Recurrent
128
Q
Research has shown that women appear to experience depression at a higher rate than men. What are some of the possible reasons for this?
A
Men are likely underrepresented due to underreporting; coping styles differ- men employ action and mastery strategies, women tend to brood and dwell on problems; women tend to express more extreme levels of well-being than men
129
Q
What is the appropriate diagnosis for a woman who, within 4 weeks after giving birth, experiences mood swings, tearfulness, and other depressive symptoms suggestive of a Mood Disorder?
A
Postpartum
Depression
130
Q
A 24 y/o client reports he has felt “pretty
down” for most his life, stating he
experiences difficulty falling asleep, low
self-image, decreased energy, feelings of
hopelessness, and difficulty
concentrating and making decisions. He
explains, however, that it rarely affected
his functional capacities. What’s the likely
diagnosis?
A
Dysthymic
Disorder
131
Q
A person who has both Major Depressive Disorder and Dysthymic Disorder is best characterized by the condition known as what?
A
Double
Depression
132
Q
This etiological explanation of depression holds that depression is caused by low levels of norepinephrine in the brain, while mania is due to excess norepinephrine levels; there is some evidence that effective antidepressants (tricyclics, MAOIs) increase norepinephrine in the brain and mood stabilizers (lithium) decrease it, which supports this theory
A
Catecholamine
Hypothesis
133
Q
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Theory suggests depression is a result of low serotonin and low norepinephrine levels, while mania is caused by low serotonin and high norepinephrine levels; the effectiveness of SSRIs support this theory.
A
Permissive
134
Q
A person experiencing depression often views negative events as stable over time rather than transient, global rather than specific, and internal rather than external. What is the term used to describe this attributional style?
A
Learned
Helplessness
(M. Seligman)
135
Q
While \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are considered most effective for treating the classic symptoms of depression, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are more likely to be prescribed if the person has atypical symptoms, such as hypochondria or obsessive-compulsiveness.
A
SSRIs;
tricyclics;
MAOIs
136
Q
Practitioners of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ contend depression is caused by difficulties in relationships stemming from early life, particularly those related to the development of attachment, and serve to maintain depression later in life; this approach embraces the medical model and views depression as a an illness to be treated with both medication and concurrent therapy
A
Interpersonal
Therapy
(IPT)
137
Q
This is diagnosed when a person displays onset and remission of Major Depressive Episodes at characteristic times of the year; typically onset is in fall or winter and remission is in spring.
A
Seasonal
Affective
Disorder (SAD)
138
Q
It has been proposed that Seasonal Affective Disorder is related to abnormal regulation of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ secretions by the pineal gland, hence the benefit of light therapy for people with this condition
A
Melatonin
139
Q
A discrete period of intense apprehension, fear, or discomfort, often involving a sense of doom, and characterized by at least 4 somatic or cognitive symptoms (sweating, trembling, nausea, etc.) is referred to as what?
A
Panic
Attack
140
Q
As defined by the DSM, this condition involves "anxiety about being in places or situations from which escape might be difficult (or embarrassing) or in which help may not be available in the event of having an unexpected or situationally predisposed panic attack or panic like symptoms."
A
Agoraphobia
141
Q
A client reports experiencing numerous panic attacks that are unexpected and, consequently, worries excessively (for at least 1 month) about having another attack. This worry, particularly about losing control, has caused behavioral changes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A
Panic
Disorder
142
Q
A person diagnosed with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ makes efforts to avoid social or performance situations that might place him under the judgment, scrutiny, or observation of others, or expose him to strangers; being in such situations provokes a severe anxiety response
A
Social
Phobia
143
Q
Those people who experience intense fears of certain stimuli, such as heights, animals, and closed spaces, are placed in what general diagnostic category?
A
Specific
Phobia
144
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ panic attacks are most characteristic of Specific Phobia and Social Phobia, occurring every time a person is exposed to a specific stimulus.
A
Situationally
bound
145
Q
What is the term used to describe panic attacks that occur without warning and in the absence of a trigger (must occur for a diagnosis of Panic Disorder)?
A
Unexpected
panic
attacks
146
Q
An example of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ panic attacks would be a person who only occasionally experiences panic attacks in certain situations, and may experience attacks in other unrelated situations as well.
A
Situationally
predisposed
147
Q
This behavioral approach to treating Specific Phobias involves directly exposing the client to the object of fear until they recognizes there is nothing to fear, which leads to the fear being extinguished.
A
In-vivo
exposure
148
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are persistent thoughts a person experiences as intrusive, inappropriate, distressing, and uncontrollable; \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are repetitive behaviors performed according to a rigid set of rules, usually in response to the former.
A
Obsessions;
compulsions
149
Q
TRUE or FALSE: People diagnosed with OCD are of a disproportionately higher SES and higher intelligence.
A
TRUE: OCD is a condition with higher prevalence rates among people with higher SES and intelligence
150
Q
A client reports increased distress following her witnessing of a tragic car accident 2 months prior. She says she has since had difficulty falling asleep, and when she does sleep she has nightmares about the incident. What is the likely diagnosis?
A
Post-traumatic
Stress Disorder
(PTSD)
151
Q
PTSD can be either \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which is when symptoms last less than 3 months, or \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, when the duration of symptoms is more than 3 months.
A
Acute;
chronic
152
Q
A woman presents to a clinic reporting she was raped 5 days prior and has since been very fearful, helpless, and has had some flashbacks of the event. During the interview, it is determined she has also been experiencing depersonalization, sense of detachment, and reduced awareness of her surroundings. What's the most appropriate diagnosis?
A
Acute Stress Disorder (PTSD should be considered once symptoms persist beyond 1 month)
153
Q
A person with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ experiences excessive anxiety and worry about numerous life circumstances and feels incapable of controlling their worry; symptoms, lasting at least 6 months, include restlessness, irritability, difficulty concentrating, etc.
A
Generalized
Anxiety
Disorder
154
Q
Disorders included in this general class, according to the DSM, are characterized by physical symptoms that have no known physiological cause and are believe to be attributable to psychological factors.
A
Somatoform
Disorders
155
Q
A client presents to therapy reporting he is blind and reveals his loss of sight occurred shortly after witnessing the suicide of a colleague. Medical records, however, suggest no physiological explanation for the blindness. What's the likely diagnosis?
A
Conversion Disorder (impaired voluntary motor or sensory function that has psychological cause)
156
Q
The 2 possible explanations for the development of Conversion Disorder are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which is when the symptom reduces anxiety and keeps internal conflict out of awareness, and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which is when the symptom helps the person to avoid an unpleasant activity or obtain otherwise unavailable support.
A
Primary gain;
secondary
gain
157
Q
A person who presents as dramatic, vague, and exaggerated and who has made numerous physical complaints over several years, though those complaints have no clear physical cause, would receive what diagnosis?
A
Somatization
Disorder
158
Q
People with Somatization Disorder frequently exhibit \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which are often the reasons for their initial therapy visit.
A
Anxiety;
depression
159
Q
What is the best diagnosis for a person who has at least 1 physical complaint that has persisted for at least 6 months and cannot be fully explained by a medical condition or substance use (e.g., chronic fatigue, appetite loss)?
A
Undifferentiated Somatoform Disorder (if less than 6 months = Somatoform Disorder NOS)
160
Q
A client reports to her therapist that she experiences immense pain in her abdomen area; however, she discloses doctors have found no physical cause. Recognizing the client's preoccupation with the pain, the therapist is likely to diagnosis what?
A
Pain
Disorder
161
Q
What condition is characterized by a preoccupation with fears one has a serious disease based on a misunderstanding of normal bodily functions, despite medical evidence and reassurance that nothing is wrong?
A
Hypochondriasis
(no delusions;
person is aware of
exaggerated fears)
162
Q
A preoccupation with non-existent physical flaws that interferes with one's functioning and is often dealt with via excessive plastic surgery is characteristic of what disorder?
A
Body
Dysmorphic
Disorder
163
Q
The core feature of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Disorders are deliberately produced physical or psychological symptoms; people with this condition possess a desire to assume the role of a sick person.
A
Factitious
164
Q
A person diagnosed with Factitious Disorder with Psychological Symptoms is likely to induce their psychological symptoms by the use of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A
Psychoactive
substances
165
Q
A person who voluntarily produces or fakes physical symptoms and who has spent enough time in hospital settings to develop rather extensive medical knowledge would be best diagnosed with what?
A
Munchausen Syndrome (or Factitious Disorder with Physical Symptoms; hospital addiction)
166
Q
A physician at a hospital discovers that a child she has treated on numerous occasions for similar conditions is likely having symptoms fabricated by his mother. This being the case, the mother would most appropriately be diagnosed with what?
A
Factitious
Disorder by Proxy
(or Munchausen
by Proxy)
167
Q
This term refers to one's deliberate production of either fraudulent or exaggerated symptoms motivated by external incentives (secondary gain).
A
Malingering
168
Q
A pervasive pattern of distrust and suspiciousness in which the person consistently interprets the motives of others as malicious is characteristic of what disorder?
A
Paranoid
Personality
Disorder
169
Q
What is the main difference between Paranoid Personality Disorder and Psychotic Disorders involving paranoia?
A
Paranoid Personality Disorder does not involve delusions, while Psychotic Disorders do
170
Q
People with this disorder are pervasively indifferent to social relationships, express a limited range of emotions in social situations, often prefer to be "loners," and usually function adequately in non-social situations.
A
Schizoid
Personality
Disorder
171
Q
What disorder is characterized by a pattern of social and interpersonal deficits involving severe discomfort with and limited capacity for close relationships, as well as perceptual and cognitive distortions and odd/eccentric behavior?
A
Schizotypal
Personality
Disorder
172
Q
People with this disorder often act sexually seductive, have exaggerated though shallow emotions that shift rapidly, are easily influenced by others, seek constant reassurance/praise, and may consider relationships to be more close than they really are
A
Histrionic
Personality
Disorder
173
Q
Often preoccupied with fantasies of power and success, people with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ display a pattern of grandiosity, need for admiration, and lack of empathy, which can lead to exploitative relationships.
A
Narcissistic
Personality
Disorder
174
Q
This disorder is characterized by a pattern of instability of interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affect, significant impulsivity (e.g., suicide threats, substance use), and fear of abandonment/domination
A
Borderline
Personality
Disorder
175
Q
What are the dominant defense mechanisms used by a person with Borderline Personality Disorder?
A
Splitting,
idealization,
and projective
identification
176
Q
Developed for the treatment of Borderline Personality Disorder, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_emphasizes mindfulness, social skills training, and affect regulation.
A
Dialectical
Behavior
Therapy (DBT)
177
Q
A person with this condition must have had symptoms of Conduct Disorder before 15 y/o and demonstrate a pattern of disregard for and violation of others' rights; some symptoms include lack remorse/empathy, impulsivity, irritability and aggressiveness, and deceitfulness
A
Antisocial
Personality
Disorder
178
Q
What is another term used to refer to people diagnosed with Antisocial Personality Disorder?
A
Sociopath
179
Q
This condition is characterized by a persistent pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation, resulting in limited social contacts despite a longing for contact and relationships
A
Avoidant
Personality
Disorder
180
Q
What diagnosis is given when there is a pervasive and excessive need to be taken care of, leading to clinging and submissive behavior and fears of separation; people with this disorder often struggle to make decisions and take responsibility for their lives?
A
Dependent
Personality
Disorder
181
Q
Typically, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ refers to a person's deliberate or inadvertent support of another's addiction or dependence.
A
Codependency
182
Q
What condition is characterized by a persistent preoccupation with perfectionism, orderliness, and mental and interpersonal control, which severely limits openness, flexibility, and efficiency?
A
Obsessive-Compulsive
Personality Disorder
183
Q
What defense mechanism do people diagnosed with Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder most often rely on?
A
Reaction formation-defending against an
unacceptable impulse
by expressing its
opposite
184
Q
This condition is characterized by a refusal to maintain age and height appropriate body weight, fear of losing control of one's weight, a distorted body image, and often amenorrhea; weight is usually controlled by restricting caloric intake or bingeing/purging.
A
Anorexia
Nervosa
185
Q
Developed by Minuchin for the treatment of Anorexia Nervosa, the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ refers to family members and the therapist eating a meal together.
A
Family
lunch
186
Q
What condition is given when a person persistently binge eats and engages in inappropriate compensatory behavior to prevent weight gain (e.g., excessive exercise, self-induced vomiting) at an average rate of twice per week for 3 months?
A
Bulimia
Nervosa
187
Q
RUE or FALSE: Bulimics are more likely than Anorexics to become engaged in treatment due to their awareness that their behavior is abnormal?
A
TRUE: People with Anorexia usually deny that they have a problem, while people with Bulimia are often aware of their abnormal eating habits
188
Q
A person who presents with an inability to recall important personal information, usually of a stressful or traumatic nature, and too extensive to be attributed to ordinary forgetfulness, would receive what diagnosis?
A
Dissociative
Amnesia
189
Q
This condition is characterized by unanticipated travel away from home or work, an inability to remember some or all of one's past, and confusion about personal identity or the adoption of a new identity
A
Dissociative
Fugue
190
Q
This diagnosis is given when a person develops at least 2 identifiable personality states that recurrently take control of the person's behavior, and the person is unable to recall important personal information to an extent greater than ordinary forgetfulness.
A
Dissociative Identity Disorder (previously Multiple Personality Disorder)
191
Q
A person who repeatedly experiences a sense of estrangement from self, feelings of unreality, dreamlike states, and ego-dystonic bodily sensations, while reality testing remains intact, would best be diagnosed with what?
A
Depersonalization
Disorder
192
Q
Often diagnosed as Dissociative Disorder NOS, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is characterized by a person providing answers to questions that are close to the truth but not completely True-
A
Ganser's Syndrome (aka syndrome of approximate answers)
193
Q
People with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ have repeated, powerful sexually arousing fantasies or urges to engage in sexual behaviors involving nonhuman objects, suffering/humiliation of self/partner, or children or other non-consenting partners, and the symptoms cause marked distress or impairment.
A
Paraphilias
194
Q
This term refers to people who are sexually aroused by wearing clothing usually worn by the opposite sex.
A
Transvestism
195
Q
The 4 stages of the Sexual Response Cycle are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, characterized by sexual fantasies; \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which entails feeling sexual pleasure and consequent physiological changes; \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, or the culmination of the sexual pleasure with release of sexual tension; and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, consisting of general muscle relaxation and well-being.
A
Desire;
excitement;
orgasm;
resolution
196
Q
Affecting the Desire stage of the Sexual Response Cycle, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ refers to absent/deficient sexual desires and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ refers to extreme eversion to and avoidance of sexual contact
A
Hypoactive
Sexual Desire
Disorder; Sexual
Aversion Disorder
197
Q
Disorders of the Excitement stage of the Sexual Response Cycle include \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, involving inadequate lubrication/swelling of the genitals and/or subjective lack of excitement, and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, characterized by recurrent failure to attain or maintain an erection
A
Female Sexual
Arousal
Disorder; Male
Erectile Disorder
198
Q
What three conditions are parts of the orgasm stage of the Sexual Response Cycle?
A
Female Orgasmic Disorder, Male Orgasmic Disorder, and Premature Ejaculation
199
Q
This term refers to vaginal muscle contractions that make penile penetration difficult and painful.
A
Vaginismus
200
Q
This term refers to sexual pain this is not due to Vaginismus (usually not in males).
A
Dyspareunia
201
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the most common sexual dysfunction in males, while \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the most common sexual dysfunction in females
A
Premature
Ejaculation;
Orgasmic
Disorder
202
Q
As treatment for sexual disorders, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ requires partners to touch and stroke each other's naked bodies in a comfortable, relaxed setting, desensitizing the couple to anxiety cues usually encountered during sexual play
A
Sensate
focus
203
Q
This is the most effective treatment for premature ejaculation- it involves one partner squeezing the penis of the aroused partner just before ejaculation, thus inhibiting ejaculation and promoting self-control.
A
Squeeze
technique (aka
“stop and
start”)
204
Q
What exercise involves women tightening pelvic floor muscles, as if to stop urinating, and is used to strengthen the perineum to prepare for pregnancy, treat incontinence, and enhance sexual pleasure?
A
Kegel
exercise
205
Q
A person whose experience of discomfort with their actual gender role and intense identification with the opposite gender causes functional impairment would receive what diagnosis?
A
Gender
Identity
Disorder
206
Q
What is diagnosed when a person displays a sexual disorder that does not meet the criteria for a more specific sexual disorder, such as Ego-Dystonic Homosexuality?
A
Sexual
Disorder
NOS
207
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are characterized by disturbances in the amount, quality, and timing of sleep.
A
Dyssomnias
208
Q
A person experiencing \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ has trouble falling or staying asleep, or does not feel rested after a sufficient period of sleep, leading to marked distress of impaired functioning.
A
Insomnia
209
Q
What is the diagnosis when functioning is impaired due to extreme sleepiness for at least 1 month, which has manifested as either prolonged sleep episodes or daytime sleepiness, not due to lack of sleep?
A
Hypersomnia
210
Q
This disorder is characterized by irresistible episodes of restorative sleep that occur nearly every day for a period of at least 3 months and either cataplexy or repeated intrusions of REM sleep.
A
Narcolepsy
211
Q
Breathing-Related Sleep Disorders include \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ (episodes of breathing cessation), \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ (abnormally low or shallow breathing), and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ (abnormal blood oxygen and carbon dioxide due to impaired ventilatory control).
A
Sleep apnea;
hypopneas;
hypoventilation
212
Q
A person whose arousal increases at night but is very tired during the day, impairing work functionality, might be diagnosed with this disorder.
A
Circadian
Rhythm Sleep
Disorder
213
Q
What disorders involve abnormal behavioral or physiological events during sleep or at the threshold between sleep and awakening?
A
Parasomnias
214
Q
This disorder is characterized by repeated awakenings due to frightening dreams that usually involve threats to self-esteem, survival, or security, and causes significant distress or functional impairment.
A
Nightmare
Disorder
215
Q
A person who awakens suddenly, usually accompanied by a panicky scream, though has difficulty recalling the dream would receive what diagnosis?
A
Sleep
Terror
Disorder
216
Q
This disorder is characterized by repeated episodes of elaborated behaviors that lead to leaving the bed and walking around, without the person being aware of the episode or remembering it later.
A
Sleepwalking
Disorder
217
Q
Impulse Control Disorders, characterized by failure to resist an impulse to perform a harmful act, include what?
A
Pathological Gambling, Pyromania, Kleptomania, Intermittent Explosive Disorder, and Trichotillomania
218
Q
This is diagnosed when a person develops emotional or behavioral symptoms in reaction to an identifiable stressor/s within 3 months of the onset of the stressor/s; once the stressor is terminated, symptoms last less than 6 months.
A
Adjustment
Disorder
219
Q
The difference between \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the former refers to the misperception or misinterpretation of an actual stimulus, whereas the latter refers to false beliefs that are firmly held despite contradictory evidence (and do not represent beliefs widely accepted by one's culture).
A
Illusions;
delusions
220
Q
What are sensory perceptions that seem real but occur without the presence of an external stimulus?
A
Hallucinations
221
Q
A client who reports that certain external events have a particular personal meaning would be demonstrating what type of symptom (e.g., belief that newscasters are talking directly to the client)?
A
Ideas of
reference
222
Q
This is a nervous system disorder that involves recurring seizures with no identifiable cause; it affects about .5% of the population.
A
Epilepsy
223
Q
Once referred to as grand-mal seizures, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ involve episodes of violent shaking, during which the person becomes blue and stiff, and can last up to an hour. After a seizure of this type, the person usually falls into a deep sleep
A
Generalized
tonic-clonic
seizures
224
Q
What types of seizures are similar to tonic-clonic seizures, but are very brief and not characterized by post-seizure deep sleep?
A
Generalized
absence
seizures (aka
petit-mal)
225
Q
A person undergoing this seizure appears confused and clumsy and is often mistakenly identified as intoxicated- the person may stare blankly, make chewing movements, and get up and walk around. They can occur in the temporal or frontal lobes
A
Complex-partial
seizures
226
Q
Also known as Jacksonian seizures, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ affect only one side of the body and involve an uncontrollable trembling or jerking of an arm or leg.
A
Simple
partial
seizures
227
Q
What are caused by sustained contractions of muscles in the forehead, scalp, and neck, and are often experienced as a band being tightened around one's head?
A
Tension
headaches
228
Q
What is the most commonly used modality of biofeedback treatment for tension headaches?
A
EMG
biofeedback
229
Q
Thought to be caused by dilation and spasms of the cerebral blood vessels, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are experienced as intense throbbing, usually on one side of the head, and often accompanied by nausea and/or other gastrointestinal problems.
A
Migraine
headaches
230
Q
What is the most commonly used modality of biofeedback treatment for migraine headaches?
A
Thermal hand warming biofeedback (person trained to warm their hands)
231
Q
High blood pressure that has an unknown cause is referred to as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, whereas if the high blood pressure is the result of a known disorder it is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A
Essential
hypertension;
secondary
hypertension
232
Q
A woman's experience of irritability, depressed affect, fatigue, and nervousness a few days before her menstrual period starts is termed what?
A
Premenstrual
Syndrome
(PMS)
233
Q
What condition is characterized by a woman's routine experience of 5 symptoms such as marked depression, hopelessness, affective lability, lethargy, and sleep disturbance (to name a few) during the last week of the luteal phase, with symptoms easing within a few days of the onset of menses and absent the week following menses?
A
Premenstrual
Dysphoric
Disorder
234
Q
Selye, who studied reactions to stress, has described the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which is a set of characteristic responses over time under conditions of stress
A
General
Adaptation
Syndrome
235
Q
The three stages of General Adaptation
Syndrome are ________, in which the body’s
sympathetic arousal system is mobilized; with
prolonged stress the ________ stage occurs, in
which defenses are stabilized and symptoms
disappear, but at a cost; the final stage,
________, results from prolonged resistance that
leaves the body susceptible to organ failure or
complete collapse
A
Alarm reaction; resistance; exhaustion (remembered by acronym "ARE")
236
Q
A person with this type of personality is competitive, achievement oriented, highly involved with work, and is active and aggressive.
A
Type A
237
Q
Friedman believes what four components comprise the pathogenic core of Type A behavior patterns?
A
Irritation,
impatience,
aggravation,
and anger
238
Q
What aspects of Type A behavior are more likely to increase the risk of heart attack?
A
Emotional and temperamental (anger, hostility), as opposed to behavioral (job involvement)
239
Q
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, a comprehensive quality of life measure, is used to assess the impact of disease on a person's physical and emotional functioning
A
Sickness
Impact
Profile (SIP)
240
Q
What controversial PTSD treatment combines both CBT and client-centered approaches with lateral eye-movements, usually involving the client following the finger movements of the therapist?
A
Eye Movement
Desensitization
and Reprocessing
(EMDR)
