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A/O 2024 > Department Bulletins > Flashcards

Department Bulletins Flashcards

1
Q

DB05-09: Effective immediately, the 35-foot extension ladder shall be raised and lowered by ___ members during all emergencies and routine training.

A

3 members

*The only exception to this policy is when an immediate threat to public and/or firefighter safety exists.

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2
Q

DB05-07: In the summer, set air conditioning to ___ degrees F. In winter, set the heater to ___ degrees F during the daytime and ___ degrees F at night.

A

78; 68; 60

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3
Q

DB05-11: Effective June 1.2005, field repairs by the heavy Rescue Company will be limited to what?

A
  • Changing tires

- Providing tow service

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4
Q

DB05-14: The California Safely Surrendered Baby Law, as amended, allows a person to surrender a minor child (___ hours or younger) to any firefighter on duty at any one of our fire stations

A

72 hours or younger

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5
Q

DB05-14: What is one of the goals of the Safety Surrendered Baby Law?

A

To protect the identities of parents in order to encourage them to safely surrender rather than abandon their newborn

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6
Q

DB05-14: Each fire station should have a ____________ sign, in addition to the _________ sign, in front of the station.

A

Safe Surrender; Safe House

*The Safe Surrender sign is a blue and white sign with a baby resting in the palm of a hand inside of a house

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7
Q

DB05-14: Each fire station should maintain ___ Newborn Safe Surrender Kits. What does each kit consist of?

A

2 Newborn Safe Surrender Kits
Each kit consists of
- Procedures for accepting a newborn
- (2) Coded ankle identification bracelets fo newborn
- (1) Coded wrist identification bracelet for adult
- Note pad for notes regarding the newborn surrender (e.g. date, time, location, persons involved, sex or newborn, etc.)

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8
Q

DB05-14: What does the Kit for the person surrendering the newborn consist of?

A
  • Postage paid envelope
  • Newborn family medical history questionnaire (English)
  • Newborn family medical history questionnaire (Spanish)
  • Coded wrist identification bracelet for person surrendering newborn
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9
Q

DB05-14: If addition Newborn Safe Surrender Kits or fire station signs are needed, who do you contact?

A

Contact the Manuals and Orders Unit at 213-978-3425, or email Debbie Megliorino

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10
Q

DB05-14: What form is used during Safe Surrenders?

A

F-902M

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11
Q

DB05-15: All national sources of fire statistics, the United States Fire Administration, the National Fire Protection Association, and the Insurance Information Institute agree that 500,000 fires, or approximately one in every ___ fires in the United States are intentionally set

A

Four

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12
Q

DB05-15: The primary responsibility for determining the most probable cause of a fire still remains with the _____________.

A

Incident Commander

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13
Q

DB05-15: Overhaul should not be initiated until the premises are what?

A

Released by an ACTS investigator

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14
Q

DB05-27: Recent evaluations of rapid intervention systems conducted by metropolitan fire departments have reflected rescue times of downed members approaching ___ minutes

A

21 minutes

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15
Q

DB06-12: The most significant difference in the new backing policy was the change that prohibits what?

A

Members from riding the tailboard or any exposed position when the vehicle is in motion.

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16
Q

DB06-12: TRUE OR FALSE: No member shall be permitted to ride on the tailboard, running board, or any exposed position of an apparatus when the vehicle is in motion

A

TRUE

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17
Q

DB06-12: During backing operations, no member shall enter the designated apparatus hazard zone, delineated by an area ___ feet behind the apparatus and ___ feet to each side of the apparatus while the apparatus is moving backwards.

A

15 feet; 3 feet

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18
Q

DB06-12: What signal shall be given to the driver to immediately stop the apparatus?

A

A double, closed fist with crossed arms, forming an “X”

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19
Q

DB06-12: When backing the aerial ladder apparatus, who will assume the role of the safety spotter?

A

The tiller person

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20
Q

DB06-12: All members shall wear ______ when assisting with backing operations or controlling traffic

A

Helmets

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21
Q

DB06-12: TRUE OR FALSE: The diesel exhaust capture system shall not be connected while the apparatus is moving

A

TRUE. It may be connected as the apparatus enters quarters, or after the apparatus is in the final parking location. In either case, the maxi-brakes shall be set first.

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22
Q

DB06-12: Station commanders shall conduct training for all members on these procedures and document the training session using ____ Code 29 BH

A

F-393

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23
Q

DB08-04: The Los Angeles Fire Department will implement a workplace policy regarding tattoos, scarifications, and branding effective _________.

A

May 1, 2008

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24
Q

DB08-04: __________ and __________ are appropriate actions when dealing with initial violations.

A

Verbal counseling and training

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25
Q

DB08-04: Members may request a one-time exemption for tattoos, scarifications, or brands already in existence on the effective date of this policy that cannot be what?

A

Cannot be covered by a Department-approved uniform or skin patch

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26
Q

DB08-04: Any future tattoos, scarifications, or brands received after the effective date of this policy, which cannot be covered with Department-approved uniform or skin patches, are ___________.

A

Prohibited

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27
Q

DB09-03: On November 24, 2008, a new federal regulation (23 Code of Federal Regulations Part 634) went into effect mandating that anyone working on foot within the right-of-way of a federal-aid highway, freeway, or public way must wear ______________

A

A high-visibility vest (HVV)

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28
Q

DB09-03: However, the safety vest shall be worn, prior to exiting the apparatus, anytime a member is actively working on traffic/highway/roadway incidents:

A
  • Directing traffic around an accident scene or fire incident
  • Aiding a stranded motorist
  • Attending to injured and/or ill patients in vehicles directly adjacent to moving traffic
  • Performing functions at a traffic diversion
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29
Q

DB09-03: The safety vest shall not be worn during:

A
  • Fire suppression activities
  • Physical rescue/extrication
  • Hazardous materials mitigation measures
  • Activities in IDLH environments
  • Incidents that require immediate action from responding personnel to effect life-saving measures
  • Any incident that by wearing the vest, places the firefighter at a personal risk level greater than the potential risk of exposure to traffic conditions
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30
Q

DB09-03: The HVV is made of 100% ______ material with _________ breakaway design to minimize the risk of becoming entangled in equipment and allowing for greater mobility in critical situations

A

Polyester; five-point breakaway design

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31
Q

DB09-03: Where are the tear-away features located on a HVV?

A
  • Front-side of both shoulders
  • Two at the waist area
  • Front torso area
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32
Q

DB09-03: The HVV features ___ silver reflective material background

A

2”

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33
Q

DB09-03: When not in use, how shall the HVV be stored?

A

When not in use, the vest folds into a convenient storage pouch that is attached to the inside of the garment and shall be stored in the cab area of a light vehicle or heavy apparatus

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34
Q

DB09-03: How shall the HVV be cleaned?

A

The vest may be washed in warm water and line dried only

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35
Q

DB09-03: The maximum wash cycles for this garment is ___ wash cycles.

A

25 wash cycles

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36
Q

DB09-03: If damaged, defaced, faded, or torn, or if it is not visible at ______, the HVV shall be sent to the Supply and Maintenance Division for replacement

A

1,000 feet

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37
Q

DB09-03: An HVV that is worn on a daily basis has a service life expectancy of approximately _________, although vests that are not worn on a daily basis may have a useful service life of _________.

A

Six months; three years

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38
Q

DB09-03: Station Commanders shall conduct training for all members on these procedures and document the training in the _________ and making ___________.

A

Journal (F-2) and making an F-393 entry

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39
Q

DB09-10: Rescuers’ eyes are particularly vulnerable to bodily substances via what methods?

A
  • Splash
  • Cough
  • Spit
  • Mechanical actions
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40
Q

DB09-10: Effective immediately all members involved in patient care shall wear protective eyewear when?

A

At all times

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41
Q

DB09-10: What is the definition of patient care?

A

The definition of patient care is intended to reflect the delivery of EMS attention to persons who are ill or injured, by all members who have the potential of exposure to infectious materials, including body substances, contaminated medical supplies and equipment, and contaminated environmental surfaces.

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42
Q

DB09-10: As a rule when members place latex gloves on, they should also ____________________

A

Put on eye protection.

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43
Q

DB09-10: What are the two forms of eye protection that the Department provides?

A

1) Face shields

2) Protective glasses

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44
Q

DB09-10: TRUE OR FALSE: The EMS glasses are to be exchanged on a one for one basis and should not be used in situations other than EMS care (e.g., not as protective glasses for sports, vehicle maintenance, etc.).

A

TRUE

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45
Q

DB09-10: What is the maintenance of EMS glasses?

A

Maintenance of EMS glasses shall be done in accordance with the manufacture’s recommendation. Scratches or abrasions that impede vision shall be replaced with replacement lenses

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46
Q

DB09-10: _____________ shall ensure that all members have the proper protective equipment while monitoring that the appropriate ordering and inventory controls are in place.

A

Company Commanders

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47
Q

DB09-11: TRUE OR FALSE: Transporting a patient to the hospital “emergency” should be the exception and not the rule.

A

TRUE. The patient’s condition, and not the time of day or other non-medical concerns, must dictate the modality. When a patient does not require immediate advanced life support (ALS) care, in most if not all cases, the modality of transport shall be non-emergency

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48
Q

DB09-18: Automatic sprinklers shall be set to water lawns and landscaping __ days a week, _________ and __________, before ____ hours or after ____ hours. Turn off automatic sprinklers during rain

A

2; Mondays and Thursdays; before 0900 hours or after 1600 hours

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49
Q

DB09-18: Limit the use of heavy stream drills and when necessary do not flow more than a reasonable amount of time (___ seconds)

A

90 seconds

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50
Q

DB09-18: Statistics have shown that ___% of automatic alarms are false or non-fire related intrusion alarms. Of the remaining ___%, the vast majority consists of small incidents handled by the first-in resource.

A

93%; 7%

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51
Q

DB10-05: What is the minimum

Driver’s License requirement for Fire suppression certified members below the rank of Battalion Chief?

A

Either a Class “A” or “B” non-commercial firefighter restricted license2 with an “X” (Hazardous Materials and Tank) endorsement.

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52
Q

DB10-05: What is the minimum

Driver’s License requirement for Fire suppression certified Battalion Chief?

A

Either a Class “A” or “B” Non-commercial firefighter restricted license with an “N” (Tank) endorsement.

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53
Q

DB10-05: What is the minimum

Driver’s License requirement for Chief Officers above the rank of Battalion Chief?

A

Class “C” license

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54
Q

DB10-05: What is the minimum

Driver’s License requirement for Non-fire suppression certified Battalion Chief?

A

Class “C” license

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55
Q

DB10-05: What is the minimum

Driver’s License requirement for Non-fire suppression certified member?

A

Class “C” license

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56
Q

DB10-05: What positions are exempt from maintaining a Class “B” license?

A
  • Helicopter pilots (full-time only)
  • Fireboat Pilots
  • Fireboat Mates
  • Arson Investigators
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57
Q

DB10-05: What shall members who are required to have a Class “B” license but believe that it is not necessary in the performance of their current duties do?

A

Submit an F-225 through channels to the appropriate Bureau Commander stating their reasons for exemption. For example, members with permanent medical restrictions in a non-field assignment may apply for such

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58
Q

DB10-05: Members shall maintain a current DL-51 (Medical Examination Report) or DL-546 (Health Questionnaire) on file with the OMV, to be renewed every ___ years.

A

2 years

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59
Q

DB10-05: Who is the approving authority for out-of-state drivers license?

A

The appropriate Operations Commander. Prior to submitting an F-225 request for approval for an out-of-state driver license to the Operations Commander, members must submit the F-225 to the Documentation Unit of the In-Service Training Section for verification

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60
Q

DB10-05: A member whose driver license is suspended, revoked , or restricted shall be ___________________.l

A

Deemed ineligible to work

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61
Q

DB10-05: TRUE OR FALSE: The Manual of Operation mandates that members immediately notify the Department of any change to the status of their driver license that affects their driving privileges. Members who fail to abide by the Department’s notification requirements will be subject to disciplinary review.

A

TRUE

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62
Q

DB10-05: Which state has the strictest DUI statutes in the nation?

A

California

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63
Q

DB10-05: If driving a non-commercial vehicle, it is unlawful to drive with a blood alcohol concentration (BAC) of ___ percent or greater. If driving a commercial vehicle, it is unlawful to drive with a blood alcohol concentration (BAC) of ___ percent or greater. For drivers under the age of 21 years, it is unlawful to drive any vehicle with a blood alcohol concentration (BAC) of ___ percent or greater.

A

.08; .04; .01

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64
Q

DB10-05: What is “subjective awareness”?

A

Simply put, if an individual is employed in a profession or has the educational knowledge that is perceived to make him/her more aware of the consequences of driving under the influence than the general population, that individual may be found guilty of a much more stringent offense under certain circumstances. The courts have included firefighters in this category of individuals with subjective awareness, and are consequently held to a higher standard.

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65
Q

DB10-12: The major changes include extending the time required to forward the F-150 Accident Report from __ days to ___ days to allow members adequate time to secure representation, if desired.

A

From 7 days to 14 days

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66
Q

DB10-12: Who will the cause determination be made by at the scene of an accident?

A

Will be made by the law enforcement investigating agency

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67
Q

DB10-12: What is the primary objectives of the investigating officer at an investigation scene?

A

To determine the circumstances surrounding an event and to report them accurately.

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68
Q

DB10-12: If upon arrival, you encounter a serious accident involving Fire Department apparatus, notify the Administrative Division Chief and request a _______________________.

A

Los Angeles City Attorney response through METRO FIRE CONTROL Section (MFC)

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69
Q

DB10-12: When will LAPD personnel request a Specialized Collision Investigation Detail (SCID)?

A
  • Any traffic collision involving a City-owned or a City mileage vehicle that results in a fatality or severe injury
  • Any traffic collision resulting in a fatality or severe injury, which may result in a criminal felony prosecution and which is beyond the scope of the investigating officer’s expertise.
  • Any major unusual traffic occurrence, when requested by the concerned traffic division watch commander and approved by the OIC of TCS
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70
Q

DB10-12: Interviews shall normally be conducted between the hours of ___ am to ___ pm weekdays, unless the investigation is time-sensitive

A

8 am to 5 pm

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71
Q

DB10-12: If management determines that the matter is time-sensitive, and the member is unable to obtain representation within ___ minutes, management reserves the right to detail an available representative of the member’s choice to provide representation to the member.

A

90 minutes

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72
Q

DB10-12: The Preliminary Investigation Packet shall be forwarded “through channels” to Emergency Services Bureau within ___ calendar days

A

14

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73
Q

DB10-12: Collect, complete, and forward the following reports within 14 business days:

A
  • FB-88 Automobile Accident Report
  • FG-84B Witness Card
  • F-150 Accident Report
  • F-80 Requisition: This is required in all accidents including those where there is no damage to Department vehicles/apparatus
  • Investigating agency report
  • Digital photos
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74
Q

DB10-12: The Traffic Hearing is normally conducted by the Administrative Assistant Chief with the following members in attendance:

A
  • Administrative Battalion Chief
  • Battalion Driving Coordinator
  • Member’s Immediate Supervisor
  • The member involved and his/her representative
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75
Q

DB10-12: What are the 4 categories of accidents?

A
  • Category I: An accident in which Fire Department personnel exercised reasonable judgment and precautions, exhibited good apparatus/vehicle operator’s and officer’s skills and observed all state, local and Fire Department statutes, ordinances and rules
  • Category II: An accident which occurred because of inattention to vehicle operator’s and/or officer’s responsibilities or because of misjudgment of clearance in operating apparatus near stationary objects
  • Category III: An accident which occurred because of apparatus/vehicle operator’s misjudgment of clearance from other vehicles, deficiency in defensive driving techniques, or failure to anticipate other vehicle’s movements
  • Category IV: An accident in which Fire Department personnel failed to follow established Department Rules and Regulations, Policies and Procedures
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76
Q

DB11-02: As in the past, all fire stations housing Truck Companies will have the option to respond to EMS incidents with:

A
  • Light Force
  • Truck only
  • 200 series Engine Company only
  • Only exception would be responses to traffic accident dispatches, which require both apparatus
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77
Q

DB11-02: What will Fire Stations housing ALS Light Forces need to do in order to participate in the Modification to the EMS Light Force Response Program?

A

They will need to relocate ALS equipment from one apparatus to another

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78
Q

DB11-02: TRUE OR FALSE: Either the Truck or 200 series Engine’s MDC can be used to update the light force’s status

A

TRUE

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79
Q

DB11-02: If a company decides to respond as 200 series Engine only, who shall be left behind? What shall these members do?

A

Two members who shall be certified to drive and/or tiller the Aerial apparatus left behind. The two members left behind shall maintain radio watch during the duration of the incident. If needed, they shall respond non-emergency

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80
Q

DB11-02: If it is determined that an apparatus that was left behind is actually needed at the incident, the TFC shall request that they respond into the incident via what channel?

A

Via the Division administrative channel, the dispatch channel and/or the assigned tactical frequency

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81
Q

DB11-02: Station Commanders shall ensure that both the Truck and the 200 series Engine apparatus carry the appropriate number of _________, __________, and ___________.

A

Portable radios, breathing apparatus, and brush web gearr

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82
Q

DB11-10: ____ radios will be assigned to the Captain position on every Truck Company and Engine Company

A

Two

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83
Q

DB11-10: What is the additional radio intended to provide company officers with:

A

Intended to provide company officers with increased communication ability and enhanced situational awareness during emergency operations , thereby increasing overall operational safety

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84
Q

DB11-12: The Ready Reserve fleet includes ___ fully equipped Engines, ___ fully equipped BLS Rescue Ambulances, and _______ specialty apparatus

A

21; 26; various

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85
Q

DB11-12: What is a Front-Line apparatus?

A

Apparatus that is normally staffed and equipped on a daily basis

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86
Q

DB11-12: What is a Reserve apparatus?

A

Apparatus that is not equipped or staffed. Reserve apparatus is maintained on a stand-by basis to temporarily replace front line apparatus that have been placed out-of-service for repair

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87
Q

DB11-12: What is a Relief apparatus?

A

A apparatus that takes the place of a front-line apparatus on a temporary basis using staffing and equipment from the Front-line apparatus. When operating in Relief, the Reserve apparatus takes on the radio designation of the apparatus replaced

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88
Q

DB11-12: What is a Ready Reserve?

A

Apparatus that is equipped, but not normally staffed. Ready Reserve apparatus include Rescue Ambulances, Engines, USAR apparatus, HazMat apparatus, Brush Patrols, Foam Tenders, and many other apparatus

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89
Q

DB11-12: What is a Change-Over?

A

Change-Over is the process of taking equipment from a Front-line apparatus and moving it to a Reserve apparatus, or vice-versa

90
Q

DB11-12: What is Surge Capacity?

A

Surge Capacity is detailing or hiring members to staff Ready Reserve apparatus in order to augment field resources

91
Q

DB11-12: What is an In-and-Out Repair?

A

An In-and-Out Repair is a repair made on an apparatus that is expected to be completed within no more than 8 hours

92
Q

DB11-12: Portable hand-held radios for Ready Reserve apparatus shall be stored where?

A

Portable hand-held radios shall be stored in a pelican case provided by Fire Communication and Dispatch Support Section

93
Q

DB11-12: Electronic equipment for Ready Reserve apparatus, including the pelican case containing hand-held radios, ePCR, defibrillator and cell phone shall be stored where?

A

Shall be stored in a secure location within the Fire Station, as designated by the Station Commander

94
Q

DB11-12: What shall be attached to the steering wheel of Ready Reserve Apparatus?

A

A storage location identification tag, identifying the secure location within the Fire Station where this equipment is stored, shall be attached to the apparatus steering wheel to enable members assigned to augment staffing to know where to obtain assigned equipment

95
Q

DB11-12: Ready Reserve apparatus may be used for a maximum of ______ to replace Front-line apparatus that have been placed out-of-service for mechanical repairs.

A

Maximum of 8 hours. Front-line apparatus that cannot be repaired within 8 hours shall be replaced by “Change-Over” into a Reserve apparatus

96
Q

DB11-12: Who shall Station Commanders notify anytime a Ready Reserve apparatus is activated?

A

Station Commanders shall notify their Administrative Battalion Commander and OCD. They shall also update ATS to reflect the actual location and apparatus availability

97
Q

DB11-12: MFC shall not allow more than a total of ___ companies to be either NAV and/or CAV

A

Not allow more than a total of 15 companies

98
Q

DB11-12: MFC shall not allow more than a total of ___ BLS and ___ ALS Rescue Ambulances to be either NAV and/or CAV..

A

8 BLS and 8 ALS

99
Q

DB11-12: What shall members bringing an ALS or BLS Rescue Ambulance to the Valley or Metro shops for in-and-out repairs do?

A

Members will staff a Ready Reserve Ambulance while their Front line apparatus is being repaired

100
Q

DB11-12: Anytime the Department augments staffing levels, scheduled in-and-out repairs shall be cancelled unless what?

A

Shall be cancelled unless the repair, if not made, would require that the apparatus be placed out-of-service

101
Q

DB11-14: The Automatic Alarm Reduction Program consist of ___ elements.

A

Consists of 3 elements

102
Q

DB11-14: What are the 3 elements of the Automatic Alarm ReductionProgram?

A

1) Provides OCD with the authorization to cancel resources responding to AA incidents when a second call is received from a legitimate alarm monitoring company stating that the alarm is false
2) Track AA reported by alarm monitoring companies. Repeat offenders will receive a visit and inspection by a FPB inspector
3) Identify the alarm monitoring companies that are abusing the 911 system.

103
Q

DB11-14: If a company responds to an AA that is determined to be a law enforcement alarm and there is no other additional alarm activated that required Fire Department action, what should the responding officer do?

A

The responding officer should provide the following information to the on-duty OCD Battalion, during normal business hours or via Department e-mail:

  • Incident time
  • Incident date
  • Incident number
  • Brief description of what was encountered
104
Q

DB11-17: An engine company, light force/truck company, or BLS Rescue Ambulance shall remain on scene until the following tasks are accomplished:

A
  • A full ALS patient assessment by a Department paramedic is completed
  • The patient is secured in the back of the Rescue Ambulance in preparation for transport
  • A re-assessment of the patient is completed by a Department paramedic
  • A hospital destination is confirmed
  • The need for additional personnel in the back of the ambulance and/or the need for a driver are determined unnecessary
105
Q

DB13-03: TRUE OR FALSE: The Los Angeles Department of Water and Power (DWP) has agreed to reimburse the LAFD for incidents where our resources are required to standby pending DWP arrival.

A

TRUE

106
Q

DB13-03: All LAFD resources responding to and standing by for DWP shall record the standby information in ______________.

A

In the fire station journal (F-2)

107
Q

DB13-03: When addressing MFC via radio, Inspectors shall use their ______________.

A

Bureau ID designation

108
Q

DB13-04: What is a Vacant Building?

A

A vacant building is a building that may be empty or unoccupied, but there exists an owner with an expressed interest in the building

109
Q

DB13-04: What is an Abandoned Building?

A

An abandoned building is a building where there is no clear owner/landlord or responsible party that can be easily reached. These buildings are not often secured, poorly maintained, dilapidated, and in a dangerous condition

110
Q

DB13-04: According to the NFPA, there are approximately _______ structure fires that occur in vacant and abandoned buildings every year in the US.

A

Approximately 31,000. These fires result in an average of 4,500 firefighter injuries annually

111
Q

DB13-04: Who shall Fire Department members notify if they discover a vacant/abandoned property that presents a danger to firefighters?

A

Shall notify the Floor Captain at Metro Fire Command (MFC)

112
Q

DB13-04: The Fire Department will place these ___x___ placards on at least ___ sides of the structure to alert incoming fire companies. The Fire Department will provide and install these placards at no cost to the property owner

A

24”x30” placard; at least 2 sides of the structure

113
Q

DB13-04: Vacant building placards can be obtained ______________.

A

At both Division Offices

114
Q

DB13-04: Where shall vacant building placards be located?

A

Placards shall be applied on the front of the structure and be visible from the street. Additional placards shall be applied to the side of each entrance to the structure and on penthouses

115
Q

DB13-04: What is the vacant building placard size and color?

A

Placards shall be 24 inches by 30 inches (610mm by 762mm) minimum in size with a red background, white reflective stripes and a white reflective border with 6 inches for hazard identification symbols. The stripes and border shall have a 2-inch (51mm) minimum stroke

116
Q

DB13-04: A placard that is solid red indicates what?

A

This symbol shall mean that the structure had normal structural conditions at the time of marking (NOT TO BE USED BY LAFD)

117
Q

DB13-04: A placard with a single diagonal line indicates what?

A

Hazardous Building: This symbol shall mean that structural or interior hazards exist and interior fire fighting or rescue operations should be conducted with caution

118
Q

DB13-04: A placard with two opposing diagonal lines indicates what?

A

Dangerous building: This symbol shall mean that structural or interior hazards exist to a degree that consideration should be given to limit fire fighting to exterior operations only, with entry only occurring for known life hazards

119
Q

DB13-04: “R/O” on a vacant building placard means what?

A

Roof open

120
Q

DB13-04: “S/M” on a vacant building placard means what?

A

Stairs, steps, and landings missing

121
Q

DB13-04: “F/E” on a vacant building placard mean what?

A

Avoid fire escapes

122
Q

DB13-04: “H/F” on a vacant building placard means what?

A

Hole in floor

123
Q

DB13-05: Distracted driving is any activity that diverts a person’s attention away from the primary task of driving. There are ____ major types of distraction.

A

3 major types of distraction

1) Eyes off the road (visual)
2) Mind off the road (cognitive)
3) Hands off the wheel (manual)

124
Q

DB14-02: Effective February 9, 2014 at 0800 hours, TAC ____ will be used as the default Aircraft Rescue Firefighting (ARFF) Group channel at aircraft incidents occurring on or around LAX

A

TAC 2. The use of the FIREMARS international channel for ARFF Group communications shall be discontinued

125
Q

DB14-04: NFPA 704 placards identifies the hazards of a material in terms of 3 principal categories. What are they?

A
  • Health (LEFT)
  • Flammability (TOP)
  • Reactivity (RIGHT)
126
Q

DB14-04: The fourth space at the bottom of a NFPA 704 placard is used for special hazards. If multiple hazards exist how shall it be labeled?

A

If multiple hazards exist, the two worst hazards will be indicated in the special hazard space. The symbols shall be stacked with the most severe hazard positioned on top and the second most severe hazard directly below

127
Q

DB14-04: What does an “A” in the bottom fourth space of a NFPA 704 placard indicate?

A

Industrial/commercial buildings, which have received “conditional use” approval for residential occupancy by artist/artisans, will be identified with an “A”

128
Q

DB14-04: What does an “W” in the bottom fourth space of a NFPA 704 placard indicate?

A

“W” is the recommended symbol to indicate unusual reactivity with water and to alert firefighting personnel of the possible hazard of using water

129
Q

DB14-04: What does an “M” in the bottom fourth space of a NFPA 704 placard indicate?

A

Combustible metals (titanium, magnesium, zirconium and aluminum) shall be indicated with an “M” in the fourth space if the quantities or the physical state satisfy the LAFD criteria for placarding (occupancies that exceed 500 lbs of combustible metals or that process or store 500 lbs or less of combustible metals that are in the form of dusts, chips, powers, turnings or ribbons

130
Q

DB14-04: What does an “JM” in the bottom fourth space of a NFPA 704 placard indicate?

A

Businesses involved in jewelry manufacturing often use quantities of hazardous materials that are under the exempt amounts. However, when there are multiple jewelry businesses within a single building, their combined quantities generally exceed the exempt amounts in Division 4 of the Los Angeles Fire Code. Because of the collective potential hazard within these buildings, these jewelry businesses, including the manufacturers that are over the exempt amounts shall be indicated with a “JM”

131
Q

DB14-04: What does an “FW” in the bottom fourth space of a NFPA 704 placard indicate?

A

Agricultural/wildlife “exempt fireworks” shall be indicated with an “FW” in the fourth space for any quantities that are stored

132
Q

DB14-04: What does an “LW” in the bottom fourth space of a NFPA 704 placard indicate?

A

Occupancies where excessive moisture or smoke will severely affect the value of the building or contents shall be indicated with a “LW” (Limited Water)

133
Q

DB14-04: When is the “LW” used?

A

The “LW” symbol is only used upon request of the occupancy and approved by the Fire Chief

134
Q

DB14-04: What does an “C” in the bottom fourth space of a NFPA 704 placard indicate?

A

Substances that need to be contained (such as PCBs) to avert further environmental damage will be indicated with a “C”

135
Q

DB14-04: Where shall the location of NFPA 704 warning placards be?

A
  • At the entrance to any building where hazardous materials are stored, processed, or used, and at such other locations as may be required by the Fire Chief
  • At the main entrance to any area outside a building where hazardous materials are stored, processed or used
  • Every aboveground tank used for the storage of hazardous materials shall be posted with warning placards on at least two sides of any such container
136
Q

DB14-04: The degree of hazard ranges from ___ to ___, with ___ indicating no special hazard and ___ indicating a severe hazard.

A

0; 4

137
Q

DB14-05: What is the Recovery Emergency Disaster Handbook (REDH) designed to provide?

A

The REDH is designed to provide businesses, property owners, and resident’s valuable information and instructions to assist them in recovering from the effects of a devastating incident such as fire, flood, building collapse, or other disaster

138
Q

DB14-05: The REDH will be made available through __________ and __________ Commanders.

A

Battalion and Division Commanders. Additional stock will be maintained and is available for distribution via the Disaster Preparedness Section (DPS)

139
Q

DB14-05: The REDH is designed to be carried where?

A

Designed to be carried on a Fire Apparatus

140
Q

DB14-05: TRUE OR FALSE: The REDH is free to affected parties.

A

TRUE

141
Q

DB14-05: Standard versions of the REDH are available for purchase for community groups and individuals wishing to obtain the handbook as a future reference source. The cost per REDH is ______ per copy

A

$6.00 per copy

142
Q

DB14-12: This new directive addresses the City to cut its water use by _____ over five years, ordering City departments to cut lawn watering to ___ days a week.

A

20%; cut lawn watering to 2 days a week

143
Q

DB15-11: On what day did the Los Angeles Fire Department (LAFD) formally adopt the hailing term “MAYDAY?”

A

January 5, 2014

144
Q

DB15-11: What is the term Mayday used to announce?

A

Mayday is a term used to announce and declare when a firefighter is in a life threatening situation

145
Q

DB15-11: Activities that present a significant risk to the safety of members shall be limited to what?

A

Shall be limited to situations where there is a potential to save endangered lives

146
Q

DB15-11: What does declaring a firefighter emergency early allow?

A

It allows a member to initiate self-rescue actions and provide the rescue personnel with the necessary advance notice to locate the member and render assistance

147
Q

DB15-11: “Mayday, Mayday, Mayday” shall be initiated on the _______ by a member when his/her life is in danger and the situation cannot be corrected in _________..

A

On the Incident Tactical Channel; 30 seconds

148
Q

DB15-11: If after ____ “Mayday” attempts the member does not receive acknowledgement on the incident tactical channel, he/she shall do what?

A

He/she shall activate the Emergency Alert Button (EAB) and declare the “Mayday” again verbally

149
Q

DB15-11: What situations require the immediate initiation of a “Mayday” call?

A
  • Injured and/or Disabled (FF DOWN)
  • Separated from Crew/Lost (FF MISSING)
  • Trapped, pinned and/or entangled in debris (FF TRAPPED)
  • Malfunction of SCBA or activation of a Low Air Alarm in an IDLH and unable to reach an exit safely
  • Any life threatening condition that cannot be resolved in 30 seconds
150
Q

DB15-11: What does GRABLIVES stand for?

A
  • Gauge
  • Radio
  • Activate PASS
  • Breathing
  • Low
  • Illuminate
  • Volume, Make noise
  • Exit
  • Shield airway
151
Q

DB15-11: When Illuminating while performing GRABLIVES, the member in distress shall point the light at a ____ angle and shine it outward where a rescuer may see it.

A

45 degree angle

152
Q

DB15-11: When a Mayday occurs, the IC shall initiate Emergency Traffic Tones for ________.

A

3 seconds

153
Q

DB15-11: What shall be conducted after a Mayday situation?

A

A personnel accountability report (PAR) and company accountability report (CAR) shall be conducted to assure all members and companies are accounted for at the incident or in a specific Branch, Division or Group

154
Q

DB15-11: In the event of an extraordinary hazard, or a sudden change in conditions that creates an imminent danger to personnel, members can communicate this information by using _____________ on the radio to identify the situation.

A

“EMERGENCY TRAFFIC”

155
Q

DB15-19: All “request for entry” of downtown high rise buildings shall be made by the Station Commander ________ in advance

A

24 in advance

156
Q

DB15-19: Who shall be notified prior to any request being forwarded to a facility for training purposes?

A

The Battalion Commanders responsible for the fire suppression activities in the geographic area of the training location

157
Q

DB15-19: Who shall a “request for entry” be directed to?

A

All request shall be directed to the Security Director of the property and when a facility does not have a Security Director, the Building Manager shall be contacted

158
Q

DB15-19: Why was DB15-19 written?

A

Because of fire resources arriving unannounced to some downtown high-profile, high-risk, target buildings/facilities for the purpose of training and that this practice has a negative impact on the communication and partnership with these buildings

159
Q

DB15-19: When submitting a “request for entry,” what shall be included in the request?

A
  • Nature of the visit
  • Number of personnel participating
  • Time of arrival
  • Duration of visit
160
Q

DB15-19: Upon arrival to the facility to be used for training, the Commanding Officer should enter through the main entrance with no more than ____ members and coordinate the entry of his/her company.

A

No more than 2 members

161
Q

DB15-19: Upon arrival to the facility to be used for training, what shall the Company Officer provide the security personnel with?

A
  • A written roster of the LAFD personnel participating

- A statement of intent

162
Q

DB15-19: All persons participating in the training at a pre-planned facility shall have what when entering the facilities?

A
  • Their California Driver License

- Their LAFD identification badge

163
Q

DB15-19: Questions regarding training request for Downtown High Rises should be directed to who?

A

Either the respective Operations Bureau Commander or the Fire Prevention Bureau office

164
Q

DB16-09: What is the SAVE Card Program?

A

The Supplying Aid to Victims of Emergency Card Program gives first responders the opportunity to offer financial relief to victims of natural disasters where property damages are a minimum of 25%. The card operates similar to a common credit/debit/gift card

165
Q

DB16-09: Who is the SAVE Card Coordinator?

A

The Assistant Bureau Commander- Operations South Bureau (CM 32). This office is designated as the LAFDs point of contact and coordinator for card distribution, issuance and control

166
Q

DB16-09: Battalion Commanders shall store SAVE Cards where?

A

Shall store SAVE Cards in a secure location that provides accessibility when issuance of a SAVE card is appropriate

167
Q

DB16-09: What percentage of property loss if the benchmark created to determine when the issuance of a SAVE Card is appropriate?

A

25% property loss. This assessment does no include structural damage but merely the personal contents of the household.

168
Q

DB16-09: How many SAVE Cards can be issued per dwelling?

A

One SAVE Card shall be issued per dwelling, not per individual in a dwelling. However, it is acceptable to issue more than one SAVE Card per dwelling, for the same incident, if an IC determines that a dwelling contains or than on Head of Household

169
Q

DB16-09: TRUE OR FALSE: One dwelling may contain more than one Head of Household.

A

TRUE. Head of Household is defined as a person who is responsible for himself or herself, and/or their family and/or their dependents

170
Q

DB16-09: Are businesses eligible to receive SAVE Cards?

A

No

171
Q

DB16-09: How is a SAVE Card activated?

A

The on-scene Battalion Commander issuing the SAVE Card shall activate the card by contacting the Bureau Commander that has jurisdiction over the incident. The Bureau Commanders shall follow the SAVE Card activation guidelines distributed with each SAVE Card

172
Q

DB16-09: Who should issue the SAVE Card to the victim(s)?

A

The initial on-scene fire company that responded to the incident and/or first in district fire company should issue the SAVE Card to the victim(s)

173
Q

DB17-03: What is the purpose of the Social Media Policy?

A

The purpose of the Social Media Policy is to establish general standards and responsibilities governing acceptable uses of social media by authorized members on behalf of the LAFD

174
Q

DB17-03: No Department employee may establish a social media account in the name of or on behalf of the Department, a Bureau or subdivision unless:

A
  • The employee first completes a “Social Media Request Form”
  • The Public Information Director, the Social Media Director, the Chief of Staff, and the user’s Bureau or Section Chief have each approved the creation of said account
  • All information to be poster on the account is approved in accordance with this policy
175
Q

DB17-03: TRUE OR FALSE: Department employees have no right to privacy respecting their use of social media or personal social media accounts, or the content of such accounts, when accessed by means of City information systems.

A

TRUE

176
Q

DB17-03: If a Department employee is not an authorized social media user, any user profile, biography, or posting on a personal social media account that identifies that person as a Department employee must include a qualifying statement in substantially the following form:

A

“The views I express on this site are my own and do not reflect any official view or position of the Los Angeles Fire Department

177
Q

DB17-04: What should you do if you suspect Human Trafficking of a minor?

A
  • Provide for safety of LAFD and victim
  • Landline MFC to send LAPD
  • Notify LAPDs HTU
  • Ensure you check the Suspected Human Trafficking (HT) Box on the ePCR under “Mechanism of Injury”
  • Notify supervisor via email prior to end of shift
178
Q

DB17-10: Proposition ___ is a state initiative, commonly known as the Adult Use of Marijuana Act, that was passed by California voters on November 8, 2016

A

Proposition 64

179
Q

DB17-10: Does Proposition 64 change the obligations of City employees to maintain a drug and alcohol free workplace?

A

No, the new law does not change the obligations of City employees to maintain a drug and alcohol free workplace nor does it prevent departments from applying zero tolerance or similar drug policies to maintain a drug and alcohol free workplace

180
Q

DB17-10: What are the physical changes that occur while using marijuana?

A
  • Bloodshot eyes
  • Fast heart rate
  • Sleepy, lethargic
  • Lack of coordination
  • Increase cravings for snacks
181
Q

DB18-01: What is an After Action Review (AAR)?

A

An After Action Review is a structured process to capture the lessons learned from challenges, successes and failures with the goal of improving future performance.

182
Q

DB18-01: Who were AAR’s developed by?

A

AAR’s were developed by the US Army to capture lessons learned and improve performance

183
Q

DB18-01: The LAFD has adopted the AAR as an ________ and as a ________ process, following any all-hazard incident or training exercise and should be conducted at the end of the incident or event.

A

An informal and as a formal process

184
Q

DB18-01: What will AARs focus on capturing?

A

The AAR will focus on capturing lessons learned and identify safety concerns, training needs, equipment issues and policy, procedure and guideline reviews

185
Q

DB18-01: Informal AARs are required for incidents reaching the deployment of a _______________.

A

Greater Alarm

186
Q

DB18-01: What does a Formal AAR consist of?

A

Formal AARs will consist of Bureau level review or higher AAR accompanied by an After Action Review Report (AARR). The deployment of a Serious Incident Review Team (SIRT) to construct a Blue Sheet and Green Sheet or Final Report, is also considered formal and will require specific timelines for completion

187
Q

DB18-01: Any all-hazard incidents reaching the level of a Major Emergency or Multi-Operation Periods will be required to conduct a formal AAR no later than ___ hours after the incident or training exercise.

A

72 hours

188
Q

DB18-01: What are the 8 categories the After Actions Review Report (AARR) should be divided into?

A
  • Summary
  • Challenges
  • Successes
  • Failures
  • Lessons Learned
  • Injuries
  • Safety Issues for Review
  • Reference Material
189
Q

DB18-01: What is the key to the AARR?

A

The key to the AARR is the spirit in which it is presented. The environment and climate surrounding this process must be one in which Department members and leaders openly and honestly discuss emergency incidents and training exercises and record this information to improve organizational performance

190
Q

DB18-01: What is the Blue Sheet utilized for?

A

It is a Preliminary Summary Report. The Blue Sheet is utilized for review of serious injury, near miss, and/or fatalities and shall be normally prepared within 72 hours after the Serious Incident Review Team’s (SIRT) arrival at the incident or training site

191
Q

DB18-01: The Blue Sheet shall be normally prepared within ______ after the Serious Incident Review Team’s arrival at the incident or training site.

A

72 hours

192
Q

DB18-01: What will a Blue Sheet provide?

A
  • Overview of the incident, accident or training event
  • Factual information to eliminate false rumors
  • Identify and mitigate immediate safety hazards or concerns
193
Q

DB18-01: What is the Green Sheet utilized for?

A

It is a Informational Summary Report. The Green Sheet is an Informational Summary Report utilized for review of a serious injury, near miss, and/or fatality and shall be normally prepared within 30 days of the SIRT’s arrival to the incident or training site unless otherwise directed

194
Q

DB18-01: The Green Sheet shall normally be prepared within ________ of the SIRT’s arrival to the incident or training site unless otherwise directed.

A

30 calendar days

195
Q

DB18-01: What is the definition of a Serious Injury?

A

Inpatient hospitalization requiring admission. A loss of a body part. A serious, permanent disfigurement

196
Q

DB18-01: What is the definition of a Near Miss?

A

An event that occurs in the work or training environment and reasonably could have, but did not, result in a death or serious injury due to good fortune and/or proper operation of safety devices or equipment

197
Q

DB18-01: What is a Serious Incident Review Team?

A

The SIRT is an investigative body that will be charged with confidentially assembling an unbiased factual report based on the collection of evidence and interview of witnesses following a serious injury, near miss, and/or fatality

198
Q

DB18-01: What is a Safety Stand Down?

A

A Safety Stand Down (SSD) is an event directed by the Fire Chief designated for a period of time to include all platoons, to promote awareness, and focus attention on safety

199
Q

DB18-01: Any incident or training event requiring a formal AARR shall have all associated record/documents maintained in the corresponding Bureau Office for a minimum retention of ______.

A

5 years

200
Q

DB18-04: What is Workplace Violence?

A

Workplace violence is violence or the threat of violence against workers. This includes any type of behavior or incident in which an individual is intimidated, threatened, physically or verbally harassed, assaulted, injured, or killed at the place of work. Workplace violence can occur at or outside the workplace and is one of the leading causes of job-related deaths.

201
Q

DB18-04: There are ____ workplace violence types as defined by the California Code of Regulations.

A

4 workplace violence types

  • Type 1 Violence: Workplace violence committed by a person who has no legitimate business at the work site, and includes violent acts by anyone who enters the workplace with the intent to commit a crime
  • Type 2 Violence: Workplace violence directed at employees by customers, clients, patients, students, inmates, or visitors or other individuals accompanying a patient.
  • Type 3 Violence: Workplace violence against an employee by a present or former employee, supervisor, or manager
  • Type 4 Violence: Workplace violence committed in the workplace by someone who does not work there, but has or is known to have had a personal relationship with an employee
202
Q

DB18-07: Though major injury or fatalities during training evolutions are preventable, the United States Fire Administration (USFA) reports that approximately ____ of all annual line-of-duty deaths were training related.

A

11%

203
Q

DB18-07: What is the leading cause of training related deaths?

A

Heart attacks followed by traumatic injury

204
Q

DB18-11: TRUE OR FALSE: When a member sustains a burn (electrical, thermal, chemical or radiation) while on duty, NO MATTER HOW MINOR, an ALS resource shall medically evaluate that member.

A

TRUE

205
Q

DB18-11: What shall happen anytime a member sustains a burn?

A
  • ALS resource shall evaluate that member
  • A request for an EMS Captain through Metro
  • Subsequent transport of the member sustaining a burn injury shall be consistent with LA County Pre-Hospital Care Policy
  • Immediate verbal notification to MLU shall be completed as soon as possible
206
Q

DB18-14: The United Stated DEA has estimated that as little as ___ to ___ milligrams of illicit fentanyl may be enough to cause respiratory depression, respiratory arrest, and/or possible death.

A

2 to 3 milligrams. By comparison, this equates to roughly 5 to 7 individual grains of table salt

207
Q

DB18-14: Illicit fentanyl is a synthetic opioid drug estimated to be ____ times more potent that morphine and ____ times more potent than heroin.

A

100 times more potent than morphine and 50 time more potent that heroin

208
Q

DB18-14: What is the minimum PPE that should be worn when attending to a patient with signs or symptoms of opioid overdose?

A
  • Nitrile gloves
  • Eye protection
  • P-100 mask
209
Q

DB18-14: What is the Devon procedure for removing potential fentanyl residue?

A

Extra diligence for deconning equipment, apparatus, exposed skin, and clothing is required to ensure the removal of any potential fentanyl residue. Hand sanitizers SHOULD NOT be used as they may contain alcohol which can increase the absorption of fentanyl through the skin. Copious amounts of soap and water are recommended in lieu of sanitizers

210
Q

DB19-01: TRUE OR FALSE: Dual-function FFPMs assigned to a rotational assignment who meet rotational eligibility criteria do not have the option to not rotate onto the Fire Resource.

A

TRUE. Nothing in this policy precludes the Department from detailing a member from their shift on the Assessment Resource, consistent with the needs of the Department

211
Q

DB19-02: What is the different between portable and mobile radios?

A

Portable refers to handheld radios while mobile refers to apparatus-mounted radios

212
Q

DB19-01: TRUE OR FALSE: Dual-function FFPMs assigned to a rotational assignment who meet rotational eligibility criteria do not have the option to not rotate onto the Fire Resource.

A

TRUE. Nothing in this policy precludes the Department from detailing a member from their shift on the Assessment Resource, consistent with the needs of the Department

213
Q

DB19-02: What is the different between portable and mobile radios?

A

Portable refers to handheld radios while mobile refers to apparatus-mounted radios

214
Q

DB19-03: What are some goals of the Cadet Program?

A
  • Introduce young men and women, ages 14 through 21, to the fire service as a potential career choice
  • Reflect the diversity of Los Angeles by recruiting youth within the geographic boundaries of the City
  • Provide youth with life skills and character development to prepare them to be successful and productive citizens with access to LAFD members as positive role models
  • Create accountability with a metric-based system
  • Improve Department community relations efforts by providing a successful youth development program
  • Provide opportunities for youth to serve their communities
215
Q

DB19-03: The LAFD currently has ____ youth programs supported by the Firefighter Recruitment Section (FRS).

A

4 youth programs

216
Q

DB19-03: What are some goals of the Cadet Program?

A
  • Introduce young men and women, ages 14 through 21, to the fire service as a potential career choice
  • Reflect the diversity of Los Angeles by recruiting youth within the geographic boundaries of the City
  • Provide youth with life skills and character development to prepare them to be successful and productive citizens with access to LAFD members as positive role models
  • Create accountability with a metric-based system
  • Improve Department community relations efforts by providing a successful youth development program
  • Provide opportunities for youth to serve their communities
217
Q

DB19-03: Where can youth that are interested in joining the Cadet Program be required to sign up?

A

Sign up at joinlafd.org under the “Youth Programs” tab

218
Q

DB19-03: The Cadet Training Program consists of _____ levels of certification which will encompass progressive classroom, physical fitness, and manipulative skills training.

A

4 levels of certification

  • Level I: Cadet Trainee
  • Level II: Engine Ride-Along Certified
  • Level III: Truck Ride-Along Certified
  • Level IV: Cadet Academy Graduate
219
Q

DB19-3: Skin absorption increases by ____% for every ___ degrees increase
in skin temperature.

A

400% for every 5 degree increase in skin temperature

220
Q

DB19/13: What is the most permeable piece of PPE?

A

The hood

221
Q

DB19-13: What are the two tools for changing firefighter behavior regarding PPE?

A

1) Support a firefighter’s individual will

2) Leading by example never goes out of style

A/O 2024 (33 decks)

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