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A/O 2024 > BOOK 37 > Flashcards

BOOK 37 Flashcards

1
Q

What is a hazardous material?

A

Any substance or material capable of posing an unreasonable risk to health, safety and property

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2
Q

What are some factors that will determine if a material may be considered hazardous?

A
  • Quantity
  • Concentration
  • Physical or chemical characteristics
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3
Q

When does a hazardous material become a hazardous waste?

A

When it can no longer be used for the purpose it was originally intended for

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4
Q

The Department’s overall responsibility at hazardous materials incidents is described in three main areas:

A

1) Assessment of the incident
2) Notification of the proper agencies
3) Emergency measures to minimize the effect of the hazardous condition on people, the environment and property

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5
Q

The first responder who recognizes a hazardous material incident or incident involving weapons of mass destruction shall establish an _____________ surrounding the incident.

A

Initial isolation zone

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6
Q

What is the Incident Commander’s responsibility at a Hazardous Materials incident?

A
  • Secure the scene
  • Identify the material
  • Quantity of material
  • Threat of contamination, exposure and contaminated individuals
  • Prevent the spread of contaminants
  • Request appropriate Department resources and allied agencies to assist with the mitigation of the incident
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7
Q

What tasks may Hazardous Material Task Forces perform at a hazardous materials incident at the direction of the IC?

A
  • Identification of the substance
  • Hazard assessment
  • Entry into the hazardous environment
  • Containment of the hazard
  • Decontamination procedures
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8
Q

What is the Fire Department’s main responsibility at a hazardous materials incident?

A
  • Assessing the hazard
  • Notifying the proper agency
  • Providing necessary interim measures to minimize the impact of a hazardous condition on people and the environment
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9
Q

What does an LAFD assignment for a confirmed hazardous materials incident include?

A
  • (1) BC
  • (1) HazMat TF (includes Squad)
  • (1) EMS Captain
  • (1) Paramedic RA
  • (1) Paramedic Engine
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10
Q

Once the first responder has arrived on scene, what should one of the initial considerations be?

A

To establish perimeters for the incident

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11
Q

The Initial Isolation Zone should be established using the recommendation of what?

A

The Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG)

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12
Q

What will dictate the location of the Initial Isolation Zone?

A

Topography

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13
Q

What will dictate the size of the Initial Isolation Zone?

A

The physical and chemical properties of the material released

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14
Q

The first responder should use the initial isolation distance recommended in the ERG as the ________ for establishing the isolation area.

A

Minimum. Upon arrival, the Hazardous Materials Task Force may either expand or reduce the Initial Isolation Zone to establish the Exclusion Zone

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15
Q

What is the basic rule of an approach to a hazardous materials response incident?

A

Approach incident from upwind, uphill and upstream

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16
Q

What is the single most important action associated with effective decontamination?

A

Rapid removal of the contaminant from the victim using water streams

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17
Q

What is Emergency Decontamination (also referred to as Gross Decon)?

A

The initial decontamination intended to rapidly remove as much contamination as possible. This process can be initiated by directing victims to remove their clothing down to their undergarments, and showering the victims utilizing the most expeditious process available

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18
Q

What is Mass Decontamination?

A

Is the expansion of the Emergency Decontamination process to accommodate large numbers of contaminated people. Mass Decontamination is indicated when there are too many victims to be handled by a standard HazMat incident assignment

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19
Q

What is Secondary Decontamination?

A

Follows Emergency Decontamination, is a process that includes scrubbing with soap or other solution and thorough rinsing

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20
Q

What is Technical Decontamination?

A

Is the deliberate and precise cleansing using pools, special solutions, monitoring methods, and specially trained personnel. Technical Decontamination is intended for all emergency responders and is ideally performed in a separate area, away from the incident victims.

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21
Q

What is Respiratory Decontamination?

A

Involves moving the victim from the hazardous atmosphere, and may involve oxygen therapy

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22
Q

What is the best PPE for first responders engaged in Decontamination?

A

The Level B ensemble which is provided for every position on each fire suppression company and rescue ambulance

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23
Q

During decontamination, showering time will be incident-specific, but should be between ___ and ___ minutes per person

A

1 and 3 minutes per person

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24
Q

Under ideal conditions, decontamination operations will meet what 5 criteria?

A

1) First responders will be upwind of the release
2) Runoff will not flow through operational zones
3) Patients will have the least distance to travel
4) Emergency vehicles will have sufficient access
5) Adjacent space will be available for treatment areas

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25
Q

What are some ways in which first-arriving companies can initiate Mass Decontamination?

A

By using fog and spray streams with:

  • Ladder pipes
  • Portable monitors
  • Wagon batteries
  • Discharge gates
  • Hand lines
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26
Q

During decontamination, approximately ___% or more of the contaminants will be removed by removing clothing

A

80%

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27
Q

What is contained in the Decon Bucket (For Civilian Decon)?

A
  • (1) Plastic Bucket (5 gallons)
  • (10) Trash bags, 40”x48”
  • (10) Ziplock bags, 10”x12”x2 mil
  • (2) Foxtail counter brushes
  • (10) Disposable Post Decon Coveralls, XLG
  • (1) Liquid dishwashing soap
  • (10) HazMat Triage Tags
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28
Q

HazMat Triage Tags are constructed of 100% ____________ and are ______________.

A

100% synthetic paper and are completely waterproof

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29
Q

What is the objective of rescue at HazMat incidents?

A

To rapidly extract people from unsafe areas and deliver them for decontamination and treatment, while controlling the associated risks to firefighters

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30
Q

What are the 4 different types of extraction methods?

A

1) Self-Rescue
2) Bystander Rescue
3) Responder Rescue
4) Technical Rescue

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31
Q

What is the primary factor in determining whether the environment is appropriate for structural PPE and SCBA?

A

The viability of the victims.

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32
Q

When the hazardous material is unknown, when are exposure victims considered viable?

A

When they are able to control their movement (standing, sitting, or kneeling), or are able to respond verbally or physically

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33
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The existence of unprotected viable victims is a strong indication that the toxicity of the environment is below that which would impact a firefighter protected by full structural PPE and an SCBA for short exposures

A

TRUE

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34
Q

A successful extraction will minimize the exposure for both the victims and the rescuers, by limiting exposure time and providing immediate decontamination. To accomplish this, what must be in place prior to entry?

A

Decontamination must be available prior to entry

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35
Q

What actions shall first responders take prior to initiating rapid extraction?

A

1) Establish that there are viable victims and a need for extraction operations
2) Establish decontamination. At minimum, a charged hose line in the designated location
3) Establish rapid intervention. A single engine company, following the 2-in 2-out rule, can fulfill the rapid intervention requirement
4) Announce the intent to initiate rapid extraction to IC or incoming companies

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36
Q

What are the (3) exit conditions firefighters could encounter which would require them to immediately leave the rescue site, make appropriate notifications and proceed to decontamination?

A

1) Any signs or symptoms of exposure for any members of an extraction team
2) Encountering an area with ONLY NON-VIABLE victims
3) The first SCBA audible alarm

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37
Q

What is the minimum protection for all HazMat incidents?

A
  • Full structural PPE
  • SCBA
  • Personal dosimeter
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38
Q

What is the most significant route of exposure for HazMat?

A

Inhalation

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39
Q

If the material has not been identified, officers may use Guide ___ as an initial estimate of minimum distances for Initial Isolation

A

Guide 111

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40
Q

What are the two methods of protecting people during a HazMat incidents that are discussed in the ERG?

A

1) Evacuation

2) Sheltering in-place

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41
Q

When is Evacuation preferred over Sheltering in-place?

A
  • Material is flammable
  • When it may take a long time to clear the vapor from the area
  • Buildings cannot be tightly secured against atmospheric incursion
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42
Q

When is Sheltering in-place preferred over Evacuation?

A
  • Where the process of evacuation would expose people to a greater level of risk than leaving them indoors
  • An evacuation cannot be performed
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43
Q

What is the objective for any HazMat emergency?

A

The containment and/or control of the release in a safe and expeditious manner, with the least number of injuries and minimum property damage

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44
Q

The DOT regulates the types of labels and placards that must be attached to hazardous materials transport containers and the vehicles that carry them. DOT placards are diamond-shaped signs (measuring _____ inches on each side) that are required to be affixed on each side and each end of vehicles carrying hazardous materials

A

10-3/4”

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45
Q

DOT labels are __-inch diamonds (or smaller, for cylinders) affixed to non-bulk packages of hazardous materials

A

4-inch

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46
Q

What are NFPA placards used for?

A

This placarding system is not used in transportation, but is mandated by Los Angeles City ordinance on fixed facilities

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47
Q

The BP-8 Computer Listing of Inventory is maintained on site for not less than ________.

A

3 years

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48
Q

What are High Hazard Facilities?

A

Formerly referred to as Target Hazard Occupancies, these are businesses within the City of Los Angeles that use quantities of specific materials listed by the state as commonly encountered high hazard chemicals. The materials of concern include: ammonia, chlorine, sulfur dioxide, hydrogen sulfide, ethylene oxide, hydrochloric acid & hydrogen chloride, methyl chloride, nitric acid, dimethyl sulfide, formaldehyde, chloroform, hydrogen fluoride and hydrofluoric acid, propylene oxide, phosgene, vinyl acetate, and phosphorus oxychloride.

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49
Q

What are some typical methods of containment for first responders?

A
  • Dike
  • Dam
  • Divert
  • Disperse
  • Dilute
  • Cover
  • Foam
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50
Q

There are ____ types of dams used for containment.

A

Two types

1) Simple dam
2) Complex dam

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51
Q

There are ____ types of complex dams.

A

Two types

1) Overflow
2) Underflow

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52
Q

When is an Underflow dam used?

A

When a material is lighter than water and will float

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53
Q

When is an Overflow dam used?

A

When a material is heavier than water and will sink

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54
Q

The Draeger Emergency Escape Mask filter provides a minimum of ____ minutes protection time against chemical warfare agents.

A

15-minutes

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55
Q

Whenever the Department is notified of a Homeland Security Advisory System threat level of “HIGH” (ORANGE/LEVEL 4) or greater, and at such other times determined by the Department’s Administration, the PEK/Mini-Radiac shall be worn when ___________________.

A

Dispatched on all incidents

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56
Q

Whenever the Department is notified of a Homeland Security Advisory System threat level of “SEVERE” (RED/LEVEL 5) or greater, and at such other times determined by the Department’s Administration, the following policy shall be in effect. Mini-Radiacs shall be worn during what 4 circumstances?

A

1) On any incident
2) When out of quarters
3) When away from apparatus
4) When in an enclosed space/building

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57
Q

The HazMat Incident Command System divided the incident scene into three zones. What are they?

A

1) Exclusion Zone (Hot Zone)
2) Contamination Reduction Zone
3) Support Zone

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58
Q

What is the Exclusion Zone?

A

Area or space closest to the spill or release. The boundaries of this zone will be adjusted from the Initial Isolation Zone established by the first responder. Entry into this Zone may require special personal protective equipment such as fully encapsulated suits. All entry and egress are through Access Control Points

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59
Q

The line surround the Exclusion Zone is the “Hot Line.” Who establishes this line?

A

HazMat TF personnel with the approval of the IC

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60
Q

What is the Contamination Reduction Zone?

A

Area or space immediately outside the Exclusion Zone

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61
Q

The line surrounding the Contamination Reduction

Zone is the “Perimeter Control Line.” Who establishes this line?

A

The first responder

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62
Q

What are some of the operations that take place within the Contamination Reduction Zone?

A
  • Contamination Reduction Corridors (CRC)
  • Preparation Area for Entry Teams
  • Technical Support Functions
  • Access Control Points
  • Decontamination Areas for civilians (gross, secondary)
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63
Q

What is the Support Zone?

A

Area outside the Contamination Reduction Zone. A line may be established outside this Zone for control of civilian traffic using fire line tape. All functions not part of the Hazardous Materials Group are located in this Zone

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64
Q

Ideally, a minimum distance of ____ should be used for the depth of the Contamination Reduction Zone

A

100’. This distance will allow the Hazardous Materials Task Force enough room to conduct their operations

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65
Q

What is the initial consideration of first-arriving HazMat TF personnel?

A

The location of the Perimeter Control Line and the Hot line

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66
Q

What is the minimum equipment carried by the Entry Team?

A
  • Radiological meters
  • Multi-gas/atmosphere monitoring meter
  • pH paper
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67
Q

What are the three different sizes of Chlorine patch kits?

A
  • “A” kit for 150 lb cylinders
  • “B” kit for 1 ton cylinders
  • “C” kit for railroad cars
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68
Q

What are the 5 Threat Conditions of the Homeland Security Advisory System?

A
  • Severe: Red
  • High: Orange
  • Elevated: Yellow
  • Guarded: Blue
  • Low: Green
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69
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Threat Conditions may be assigned for the entire nation, or they may be set for a particular geographic area or industrial sector

A

TRUE

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70
Q

What will the assignment of a Threat Condition prompt?

A

It will prompt the implementation of an appropriate set of Protective Actions. Protective Actions are the specific steps taken to reduce vulnerability or increase the ability to respond during a period of heightened alert.

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71
Q

What does CBRNE stand for?

A
  • Chemical
  • Biological
  • Radiological
  • Nuclear
  • Explosive
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72
Q

What does SLUDGEM stand for?

A
  • Salivation
  • Lacrimation
  • Urination
  • Defecation
  • Gastrointestinal
  • Emesis
  • Muscle twitching
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73
Q

Biological agents are generally split into how many categories?

A
  • Bacteria and rickettsia
  • Viruses
  • Toxins
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74
Q

______ are the weapon of choice for terrorist.

A

Bombs

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75
Q

Once on scene, what should you do to keep a close watch on wind condition?

A

Place a short length of fire line tape or other suitable material on the apparatus antennae

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76
Q

What are the basic rules of a hazardous materials response?

A

Dictate an approach to an incidents from upwind, uphill, upstream

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77
Q

What is decontamination intended to do?

A

Decontamination is intended to limit the effect of hazardous materials on victims of exposure and prevent the spread of contaminants beyond the contaminated area

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78
Q

Prior to initiating decontamination, what should first responders do?

A

First responders should triage patients by attempting to separate symptomatic from asymptomatic patients. This assessment will serve to identify those people who need immediate decontamination

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79
Q

Under ideal conditions, what 5 conditions will decontamination operations meet?

A

1) First responders will be upwind of the release
2) Runoff will not flow thought operational zones
3) Patients will have the least distance to travel
4) Emergency vehicles will have sufficient access
5) Adjacent space will be available for treatment areas

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80
Q

Give each civilian entering ________________ a HazMat Triage Tag.

A

Secondary decon

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81
Q

What is the objective of rescue at HazMat incidents?

A

The objective of rescue at HazMat incidents is to rapidly extract people from unsafe areas and deliver them for decontamination and treatment, while controlling the associated risks to firefighters

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82
Q

What is the term used to describe actions directed at retrieving civilian exposure victims?

A

Rapid extraction

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83
Q

One of the disadvantages of the ERG, is that the evacuation table is only good for the first _____.

A

30 minutes

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84
Q

DOT Placard: Orange

A

Explosive

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85
Q

DOT Placard: Red

A

Flammable/Combustible

86
Q

DOT Placard: Red with a white band in the center

A

Dangerous

87
Q

DOT Placard: Green

A

Non-Flammable Gas

88
Q

DOT Placard: White over Red

A

Spontaneously Combustible

89
Q

DOT Placard: White

A

Poisonous Material

90
Q

The minimum protection for all hazardous materials incidents consists of what?

A
  • Full structural PPE
  • SCBA
  • Personal Dosimeter
91
Q

DOT Placard: White with vertical Red Stripes

A

Flammable Solid

92
Q

DOT Placard: Yellow

A

Oxidizer (including oxygen) or Organic Peroxide

93
Q

DOT Placard: Yellow over white

A

Radioactive Material

94
Q

DOT Placard: White over black

A

Corrosive Material

95
Q

DOT Placard: Blue

A

Dangerous when wet

96
Q

DOT Placard: Black stripes over white

A

Miscellaneous Hazardous Materials

97
Q

The Fire Departments main responsibility at a HazMat incident is what?

A

Centers on 1) Assessing the hazard, 2) Notifying the proper agency and 3) Providing necessary interim measures to minimize the impact of a hazardous condition on people and the environment

98
Q

What are the 3 immediate concerns of a HazMat incident?

A

1) To protect life and safety
2) To reduce, diminish or lessen the danger or spread of hazardous materials
3) To prevent the situation from becoming worse

99
Q

What is the Safe Refuge Area?

A

The Safe Refuge Area is an area for the assembly of civilian personnel who were witnesses to the hazardous materials incident or who were on site at the time of the spill. This assemblage of individuals will assist the IC in collecting intelligence information, help to reduce confusion at the incident and provide for the separation of contaminated persons from the non-contaminated.

100
Q

At a HazMat incident, where is the Safe Refuge Area located?

A

The Safe Refuge Area should be located inside the Exclusion Zone, adjacent to the Exclusion Zone Control Line.

101
Q

At a HazMat incident, there a a minimum of ____ Entry Teams and a Monitor who report to the Entry Team Leader.

A

2 Entry Teams

102
Q

Statistically, the most significant route of exposure for hazardous materials continues to be ______________.

A

Inhalation

103
Q

During extraction operations at a HazMat incident, what part of responders is at the most risk to becoming contaminated?

A

The responders’ feet and hands

104
Q

For HazMat incidents, turnout boots must be _________.

A

Must be rubber, which prevents absorption and provides some measure of chemical resistance. Leather footwear and gloves represent a grave risk of absorption and continuous exposure to the wearer

105
Q

Alpha radiation represents a risk only if ___________ or ____________.

A

Inhaled or ingested. Donning an SCBA eliminates this route of exposure

106
Q

At the scene of a HazMat incident, who is responsible for evacuating those areas where no special protective clothing or equipment is required?

A

LAPD

107
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The Level B splash suits provided for performing decontamination do not enable firefighters to enter hazardous zones, and shall not be worn for that purpose.

A

TRUE

108
Q

If the material at a HazMat incident has not been identified, officers may use Guide _____ as an initial estimate of minimum distances.

A

Guide 111

109
Q

At a HazMat Incident where the material is unknown, or the officer has doubts about the minimum distance to employ, an attempt should be made to contact who?

A

To contact the Hazardous Materials Task Force (HMTF) on the incident tactical channel to obtain guidance.

110
Q

The ERG contains a discussion of the two methods of protecting people during a HazMat Incident, what are they?

A
  • Evacuation

- Sheltering in-place

111
Q

The ERG contains a discussion of the two methods of protecting people during a HazMat Incident, what are they?

A
  • Evacuation

- Sheltering in-place

112
Q

When is evacuation preferred?

A

Evacuation is preferred where the material is flammable, it may take a long time to clear the vapor from the area, or buildings cannot be tightly secured against atmospheric incursion

113
Q

When is sheltering in-place preferred?

A

Sheltering in-place is indicated where the process of evacuation would expose people to a greater level of risk than leaving them indoors, or an evacuation cannot be performed.

114
Q

What is the objective of any HazMat Incident?

A

The objective for any hazardous materials emergency is the containment and/or control of the release in a safe and expeditious manner, with the least number of injuries and a minimum of property damage

115
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: At a hazardous materials incident, it is vital to keep emergency personnel out of the hazardous area until products are identified and hazards are assessed.

A

TRUE

116
Q

DOT placards are __________-shaped signs (_________ in size) that are required to be affixed on each side and each end of vehicles carrying hazardous materials.

A

Diamond-shaped signs (10-3/4”x10-3/4”)

117
Q

What size are DOT labels?

A

DOT labels are 4-inch diamonds (or smaller, for cylinders) affixed to non-bulk packages of hazardous materials

118
Q

How many digits is the UN identification number?

A

4 digits

119
Q

What are NFPA 704 placards?

A

The NFPA developed a placarding system for fixed facilities to indicate the dangers associated with various hazardous materials found at a location

120
Q

Are NFPA placards used for transportation?

A

No, the NFPA placarding system is not used in transportation

121
Q

The NFPA diamond is divided into _____ color-coded quadrants.

A

4 color coded quadrants

122
Q

What are the 3 items that may be found in the Special Hazards quadrant of the NFPA 704 placard that are not recognized by the NFPA?

A
  • ALK: alkaline
  • ACID: acidic materials
  • A: artisans (occupied)
123
Q

The Emergency Response Guidebook was formerly called _______________________.

A

The North American Emergency Response Guidebook - NAERG

124
Q

A disadvantage of the ERG is that the evacuation table is only good for the ___________.

A

For the first 30 minutes

125
Q

What is a MSDS?

A

Material Safety Data Sheet. The owner or manager of a facility is required to keep an MSDS for all hazardous materials (above an established quantity) handled or stored at the facility.

126
Q

When should first responders access the MSDS?

A

First responders should access the MSDS during pre-incident planning

127
Q

What is contained on the MSDS?

A
  • Physical and chemical properties of the material
  • Hazards associated with the material
  • Basic directions for response actions
128
Q

What is a BP-8?

A

The BP-8 Computer Listing of Inventory Submitted lists the inventory of all hazardous materials at a business. The inventory list in maintained on site for not less than 3 years, and is available to Fire Department members upon request

129
Q

The BP-8 inventory list is maintained on site for not less than ______.

A

Not less than 3 years

130
Q

What are High Hazard Facilities?

A

Formerly referred to as Target Hazard Occupancies, these businesses within the City of Los Angeles that use quantities of specific materials listed by the state as commonly encountered high hazard chemicals.

131
Q

What must be done before any containment actions can be initiated?

A

A hazard assessment

132
Q

Typical methods of containment for first responders include:

A
  • Dike
  • Dam
  • Divert
  • Disperse
  • Dilute
  • Cover
  • Foam
133
Q

_________ is a simple containment method that is often overlooked. This containment process involves covering the material to stop the spread.

A

Covering

134
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Turnouts do not provide protection from materials that can be absorbed through the skin

A

TRUE

135
Q

What are Mark-I Auto Injectors used for?

A

Used to counter the effects of nerve agent exposure

136
Q

The Draeger Emergency Escape Mask filter provides a minimum of _______ protection time against chemical warfare agents.

A

15 minute

137
Q

Can the Draeger Emergency Escape Mask be used in oxygen deficient atmospheres?

A

No

138
Q

The Mini-Radiac shall be worn by all members responding to what incidents?

A
  • Any reported explosion
  • Any incident where radiation is expected to be present
  • Any incident of suspicious nature
  • Any Bravo Tango incident in which the LAFD is supporting LAPD operations
  • Any incident involving known radiation
139
Q

The Level “B” Protective Suit is to be used by first responders engaged in ______________.

A

Engaged in decontamination activities

140
Q

The Level “B” Protective Suit has how many layers of gloves?

A

3 layers

1) Latex inner gloves
2) Silver 4-H gloves
3) Green Nitrile gloves

141
Q

Which operational level responds to a hazardous materials incident in a defensive fashion within existing resources and capabilities to contain the release from a safe distance, to keep it from spreading and to prevent exposures to nearby persons, property or environment?

A

First Responder Operational

142
Q

__________________ are individuals who respond to releases or potential releases for the purpose of stopping the release. They assume a more aggressive role than a first responder at the operations level in that they will approach the point of release in order to plug, patch, or otherwise stop the release of a hazardous substance.

A

Hazardous materials technicians

143
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The management of a hazardous materials incident is legally a federal, state, county/city and private industry partnership

A

TRUE

144
Q

What are the immediate concerns of a hazardous material incident?

A
  • To protect life and property
  • To reduce, diminish or lessen the danger or spread of a hazardous material
  • To prevent the situation from becoming worse
145
Q

The __________ of the incident will dictate the location of the Initial Isolation Zone.

A

Topography

146
Q

The ___________ of the materials released will determine the size of the Isolation Zone.

A

Physical and chemical properties

147
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: A product that is producing vapor will generally require a larger isolation area due to the ability of the product to travel either in the air or along the ground.

A

TRUE

148
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: A smaller isolation area may be possible for a liquid released.

A

TRUE, provided that the run-off is contained in a fixed area

149
Q

Upon arrival, the Hazardous Materials Task Force may either ______________ the Initial Isolation Zone to establish the Exclusion Zone.

A

Either expand or reduce

150
Q

What should first responders do with all civilians who have been exposed to a hazardous material?

A

First responders should make every effort to contain all civilians who have been exposed to a hazardous material

151
Q

Where should a Safe Refuge Area be established?

A

Within the outer-most perimeter of the isolation area to contain those people who have been exposed

152
Q

What is the Initial Isolation Distance?

A

Is a distance within which all persons should be considered for evacuation in all directions from the actual spill/leak source. It is a distance (radius) which defines a circle (Initial Isolation Zone) within which persons may be exposed to dangerous concentrations upwind of the source and may be exposed to life threatening concentrations downwind of the source

153
Q

How should all apparatus be placed at a Hazardous Materials incident?

A

All apparatus should be placed for ease of egress in the event of a change in wind direction

154
Q

____________ provide the first responder with an opportunity to view the scene from a safe distance

A

Binoculars

155
Q

_______________ is intended to limit the effect of hazardous materials on victims of exposure and prevent the spread of contaminants beyond the contaminated area

A

Decontamination

156
Q

What is the order of priority for decontaminating victims?

A
  • Victims who were closest to the point of release and report the were exposed, and have either serious medical symptoms or evidence of chemical agent on their clothing or skin should go through decontamination first
  • The next priority will be those who were not as close to the point of release and may not have evidence of chemical agent on their clothing or skin, but are symptomatic
  • People who are asymptomatic may not receive decontamination, and may be moved directly to a Safe Refuge Area where they will be monitored
157
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: People who are asymptomatic may not receive decontamination

A

TRUE

158
Q

_______________, follows Emergency Decon, and is a process that includes scrubbing with soap or other solution and thorough rinsing.

A

Secondary Decontamination

159
Q

Who is Technical Decontamination intended for?

A

Technical Decontamination is intended for all emergency responders

160
Q

______________ involves moving the victim from the hazardous atmosphere, and may involve oxygen therapy.

A

Respiratory Decontamination

161
Q

When setting up Emergency Decontamination, establish hose lines or appliances to provide _______________.

A

High-volume fog spray

162
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: If Emergency Decontamination involves large numbers of victims (Mass Decon), having patients remove their outer garments may not be achievable during this step.

A

TRUE

163
Q

What are three reasons used to convince patients who refuse to remove clothing to disrobe?

A
  • The spray may force chemical agents through the clothing onto the skin
  • Showing skin directly is more effective due to water pressure and dilution
  • Rinsing clothing will result in a higher concentration of the chemical agent within the showering area, thereby increasing the chance of contamination spread through personal contact and shower water runoff
164
Q

After Gross Decon, where will patients be moved?

A

Patients will be moved from Gross Decon to the Safe Refuge Area where they will be evaluated and prioritized for further decontamination. Patients requiring further decontamination will then be passed to Secondary Decontamination

165
Q

If engine companies are positioned to form a corridor, how should they be positioned?

A

They should be facing opposite directions so that the panels are on the outside

166
Q

For decontamination, if possible, engines should pump in ______ in order to ______.

A

Pump in volume to limit pressure

167
Q

For decontamination, all appliances should be supplied by ______ pressure, and nozzles adjusted to a ___________.

A

Low pressure, and nozzles adjusted to a wide fog pattern

168
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: All exposed victims will receive Secondary Decontamination prior to medical triage or transport.

A

TRUE

169
Q

What is the size of the trash bags contained in the Decon Bucket?

A

40” x 48”

170
Q

What is the size of the Ziplock bags contained in the Decon Bucket?

A

10’ x 12’ x 2 mil

171
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The HazMat Triage rage will accept ballpoint pens when wet.

A

TRUE, it is constructed of 100% synthetic paper and is completely waterproof

172
Q

Which type of extraction method represents the least risk to the first responder? The most?

A
  • Self-rescue or bystander rescue represent the least risk

- Technical rescue represents the most risk

173
Q

What is the primary factor in determining whether the environment is appropriate for structural PPE and SCBA?

A

The viability of the victims

174
Q

If the hazardous material is unknown, when are exposure victims considered viable?

A

When they are able to control their movement (standing, sitting, or kneeling), or are able to respond verbally or physically

175
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The existence of unprotected viable victims is a strong indication that the toxicity of the environment is below that which would impact a firefighter protected by full structural PPE and an SCBA for short exposure.

A

TRUE

176
Q

Prior to initiating rapid extraction, first responders shall take the following actions:

A
  • Establish that there are viable victims and a need for extraction operations
  • Establish decontamination
  • Establish rapid intervention
  • Announce the intent to initiate rapid extraction
  • Maintain continuous communications during extraction efforts
177
Q

When establishing decontamination prior to rapid extraction, what is the minimum?

A

At minimum, a charged hose line in the designated location

178
Q

Upon completion of the extraction mission, first responders shall:

A
  • Proceed through decontamination
  • Consider PPE used during extraction as contaminated
  • Be examined by ALS personnel for post-entry symptoms and vitals
  • Proceed to Rehab
179
Q

Upon completion of the extraction mission, first responders shall be examined by who?

A

By ALS personnel for post-entry symptoms and vitals

180
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Although structural PPE is not designed to be chemically resistant, it can provide a level of protection sufficient to allow firefighters to perform extraction of viable victims present in a chemical, biological and radiological environment.

A

TRUE

181
Q

Other than the rescue and decontamination of exposure victims, what is the most difficult task that first responders may face at a Hazardous Materials incident?

A

Evacuation

182
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The Level B splash suits provided for performing decontamination do not enable firefighters to enter hazardous zones, and shall not be worn for that purpose

A

TRUE

183
Q

Certain listings found in the blue and yellow pages of the ERG may be highlighted. These highlighted entries identify those materials that qualify as _____________.

A

Toxic Inhalation Hazard (TIH) materials

184
Q

What is a small spill?

A

200 liters or less, approximately equivalent to a 55-gallon drum

185
Q

What is a large spill?

A

Greater than 200 liters or a 55-gallon drum

186
Q

___________ regulated the types of labels and placards that must be attached to hazardous materials transport containers and the vehicles that carry them.

A

The DOT

187
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The 4-digit UN identification number may replace the descriptive text in the center of the placard for bulk shipments of hazardous materials. However, the UN identification number cannot replace the DANGEROUS placard or the class name for RADIOACTIVE materials or any class of EXPLOSIVE.

A

TRUE

188
Q

What are the two ways in which a UN identification number can be used?

A

It can be incorporated into a DOT placard, or posted on a separate orange panel next to the placard

189
Q

______________ has developed a placarding system for fixed facilities to indicate the dangers associated with various hazardous materials found at a location.

A

The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)

190
Q

Since different hazardous material may be stored together, displayed NFPA 704 numbers often represent ___________________.

A

A cumulative hazard rating

191
Q

Highlighted entries in the yellow and blue-bordered pages in the ERG contain additional information in the _________-bordered pages in the back of the book. These pages describe isolation distances and protective actions that should be taken immediately

A

Green-bordered

192
Q

___________-bordered pages contain information on basic hazards and suggested response actions.

A

Orange

193
Q

If possible, and it time allows, first responders should confirm actions recommended by the ERG with who?

A

With the Hazardous Materials Task Force

194
Q

Packing Group I, II or III - based on the degree of danger represented by the material. I = _____________, II = ____________, and III = ____________.

A 
I = great danger
II = medium danger
III = minor danger
195
Q

The type of shipping papers required for hazardous material varies depending on what?

A

The mode of transportation

196
Q

What will Material Safety Data Sheets provide information about?

A
  • Physical and chemical properties of the materials
  • Hazards associated with the material
  • Basic direction for response actions
197
Q

What must take place before any containment actions can be initiated at a Hazardous Material Incident?

A

A hazard assessment must be done. First responders must utilize shipping papers, MSDS, the ERG and/or information from the responding Hazardous Materials Task Force to complete this task

198
Q

_______ are barriers across a waterway or between two objects intended to hold back flowing water or material

A

Dams

199
Q

A complex dam is also known as a __________________.

A

Separation dam

200
Q

A _________ is a bank constructed to control or confine a liquid.

A

Dike

201
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: A dike can be created using either an absorbent or a non-absorbent material.

A

TRUE

202
Q

Normally , dikes are used for spills involving _________ quantities of materials.

A

Small quantities

203
Q

What is the disperse method of containment?

A

Dispersing airborne hazardous materials is a defensive action which uses heavy spray streams to direct or knock down a material. Care must be taken to ensure that this action does not create a larger problem

204
Q

What is the diverting method of containment?

A

Diverting is moving material to a less environmentally sensitive locale, and then isolating the area

205
Q

This is an effective tactic for incidents involving slowly leaking liquids that have low volatility.

A

Diverting

206
Q

The Draeger Emergency Escape Mask protects against ________________.

A

Nuclear, Biological and Chemical (NBC) warfare agents

207
Q

The Draeger Emergency Escape Mask filter provides a minimum of ____ minutes protection time against chemical warfare agents.

A

15-minutes

208
Q

Can the Draeger Emergency Escape Mask be used in oxygen-deficient atmospheres?

A

No

209
Q

While donning the Level “B” Protective Suit, it is recommended that __________ be used since these operations are difficult under ideal conditions and almost impossible to accomplish alone.

A

That the buddy system

210
Q

What are Zumro Tents?

A

They are housed at Hazardous Materials Task Force stations and on the Hazardous Material Tender. The provide size shower stalls for mass Decon

211
Q

The Zumro Tents provides ___ shower stalls for mass decon.

A

6 shower stalls

212
Q

What is the normal dispatch for a chemical investigation?

A

1 fire company for most investigations. Companies dispatched to chemical investigations should not hesitate to request the Squad or the Hazardous Materials Task Force if the situation warrants or they are unsure

A/O 2024 (33 decks)

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