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A/O 2024 > 2016 Pierce > Flashcards

2016 Pierce Flashcards

1
Q

Danger on the logbook signals an ____________ hazardous situation that, if not avoided, will result in ________ or serious injury

A

imminently
death

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2
Q

What is a WARNING?

A

WARNING signals a potentially hazardous situation that, if not avoided, could result in death or serious injury.

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3
Q

What is a CAUTION with the safety triangle?

A

CAUTION with the safety triangle signals a potentially hazardous situation that, if not avoided, might result in minor or moderate injury.

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4
Q

What is a CAUTION without the safety triangle?

A

CAUTION used without the safety triangle symbol signals a potentially hazardous situation that, if not avoided, might result in property damage.

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5
Q

Keep boom and vehicle _____ away from power lines.

A

10 feet

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6
Q

Tires that are heated through use may have a ____ psi higher rating?

A

15 psi

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7
Q

When should tire pressure be checked?

A

When tires are cold

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8
Q

The four-section steel ladder will extend to a height of ____ or ____ above ground at 75°.

A

100 feet; 105 feet

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9
Q

The tip of the aerial has a _____ lb capacity at full extension, with a ___-mph wind and discharging up to _____ gpm at 100 psi and with the nozzle in any position.

A

500 lb; 50 mph; 1000 gpm

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10
Q

The aerial is equipped with an electrical swivel with ___ collector rings (___ collector rings optional), capable of operation through 360°. Each collector ring is capable of handling a ___-amp load.

A

28; 32; 20-amp

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11
Q

The Heavy-Duty Tiller has an Emergency Pump Unit (EPU) that operates off of the ___________. The EPU is used for limited ladder functions to stow the aerial in case of primary pump failure. The EPU can operate continuously for up to
___________.

A

Truck batteries; 30 minutes

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12
Q

What is the Engine Oil Capacity and Type?

A

44 quarts; 15W-40

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13
Q

What is the Engine Coolant Capacity and Type?

A

65 pt/16.25 gallons; Ethylene Glycol TMC RP-329

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14
Q

What is the capacity of the Engine Coolant Reservoir?

A

6 quarts

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15
Q

What is the total fluid capacity of the Aerial Hydraulic System?

A

320 quarts/80 gallons

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16
Q

What is the capacity of the Hydraulic Reservoir?

A

160 quarts/40 gallons

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17
Q

What is the capacity of the Rotation Gearbox?

A

5 pts/2.4 liters

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18
Q

What is the total capacity of the Chassis Steering System?

A

6 quarts

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19
Q

What is the capacity of the Chassis Steering Fluid Reservoir?

A

4 quarts

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20
Q

What is the total capacity of the Tiller Steering System?

A

14 quarts

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21
Q

What is the capacity of the Tiller Steering Fluid Reservoir?

A

9 quarts

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22
Q

What is the capacity of the Rear Axle?

A

23 quarts

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23
Q

What is the fluid capacity of the Transmission?

A

31 quarts

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24
Q

What is the capacity fo the Fuel Tank?

A

63 gallons

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25
Q

What is the capacity of the DEF Tank?

A

4.5 gallons

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26
Q

Under what conditions do safety belts provide the best restraint?

A
  • The seat back is upright
  • The occupant is sitting upright
  • The lap belt is snug and log on the hips
  • The shoulder belt is snug against the chest
  • The knees are straight forward
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27
Q

The Seat Belt Monitoring System (SBMS) is capable of monitoring up to ____ sensors indicating the status of each seating position in the cab.

A

10

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28
Q

The defroster is _______ BTU and is located ____________.

A

41,000; in the dash panel

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29
Q

There are two ______ BTU (each) heater units.

A

32,000

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30
Q

What is the Racor Indicator?

A

Water in fuel indicator

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31
Q

Jackknife collision warnings activate at ___ and ___ angles.

A

65 degrees and 85 degrees

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32
Q

What does the ignition switch engage?

A

Engages operational power to the chassis

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33
Q

What does the engine start switch engage?

A

Engages starter motor for engine cranking/starting

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34
Q

Windshield wipers should not be run on dry windows for _____________.

A

An extended length of time

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35
Q

How do you activate the washer switch?

A

Press to activate windshield washers

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36
Q

What is the Aerial Master switch?

A

Must be ON to operate the aerial device. Must be OFF to drive the vehicle

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37
Q

The Low Battery illuminates when voltage drops below _____ VDC.

A

11.9

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38
Q

Fast idle activates when voltage drops below _____ VDC.

A

12.8

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39
Q

The Vehicle Data Recorder (VDR) is capable of reading and stirring the most recent ____ hours of vehicle information.

A

100 hours

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40
Q

The VDR is capable of operating in a voltage range form ____ VDC to ____ VDC and will continue operation upon termination of power or at voltages below 8 VDC for ra minimum of 10ms.

A

8 VDC to 16 VDC

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41
Q

What is the VDR capable of recording?

A
  • Vehicle Speed
  • Acceleration
  • Deceleration
  • Engine speed
  • Engine Throttle Position
  • ABS Events
  • Seat Occupied Status
  • Seat Belt Buckled Status
  • Master Optical Warning Device Switch
  • Time
  • Date
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42
Q

The Tiller Cab Dome Light has a clear lens for _________ and a red lens to be used __________.

A

Clear lens for normal lighting; Red lens to be used to reduce drive distraction at night

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43
Q

How do you use the Tiller Cab Steering Column Adjustment Lever?

A

PUSH lever to telescope steering wheel IN and OUT. PULL lever to tilt steering column FRONT AND BACK

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44
Q

The EPU should be used only under what condition?

A

The main system hydraulic pump is not operating

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45
Q

DO NOT run the EPU for more than ______ without allowing at least _____ for cooling down.

A

30 minutes; 30 minutes

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46
Q

The EPU should only be activated after ___________.

A

The desired function is selected

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47
Q

What does the DC Lights Switch (12-volt) energize?

A

When activated, switch energizes the two spot lights located on each side of the ladder tip and the lower tracking lights

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48
Q

What does the AC Lights Switch energize?

A

When activated, energizes AC power at the tip

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49
Q

The system standby pressure (bias) on the Hydraulic System Pressure Gauge is ___ psi (+/-10 psi). The maximum system pressure is ____ psi.

A

350; 3,000

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50
Q

What is the rated vertical height of the aerial ladder?

A

100 feet

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51
Q

What is the rated horizontal reach of the aerial ladder at 0 degrees?

A

95’1”

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52
Q

What is the rated horizontal reach of the aerial ladder at 45 degrees?

A

66’9”

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53
Q

What is the rated horizontal reach of the aerial ladder at 75 degrees?

A

23’11”

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54
Q

The 100’ Ice Condition Load Chart Isi based upon continuous 360 degrees rotation and aerial at any extension with ____ of ice build-up.

A

0.25 inches of ice build up

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55
Q

To be sure that the vehicle is safe to operate, conduct a pre-trip inspection at the beginning of every work period. Perform a pre-trip inspection to find problems that could cause a crash or breakdown. Although the inspection can be completed by a single individual, it is most effectively accomplished with ____.

A

Two

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56
Q

What is the most important and obvious reason for inspecting regularly?

A

Safety

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57
Q

The cab should not be raised until the air conditioner has been shut-off and the truck has sat with the battery switch ON for at least _________. This will allow the water to be pumped out of the air conditioner unit. Failure to do so will result in water condensation dripping out through the openings in the evaporator cover when the cab is lowered after service.

A

30 minutes

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58
Q

What should you do before tilting the cab?

A
  • Vehicle is on a flat and level surface
  • Engine is off
  • Transmission is in N
  • Parking brakes are set
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59
Q

Once the cab is raised, verify the stay arm is positioned securely in the stay arm pocket before proceeding and turn the control switch to the LOWER position and depress the tether switch until _______________.

A

Until the top of the stay arm is inside the stay arm pocket and the cab is lightly resting on the stay arm

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60
Q

What must be on in order to raise the cab?

A

The battery and ignition switch

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61
Q

When lowering the cab, continue to depress the tether switch for at least _____ after the cab comes to a rest.

A

5 seconds

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62
Q

When performing the Manual Pump Operation, operate the hand pump _____ for the first few strokes.

A

Rapidly. This will ensure that the fluid flows rapidly enough to close the internal system bypass valve

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63
Q

What type of alternator does the 2016 Pierce have?

A

C.E. Niehoff Model C531 360 amp alternator

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64
Q

Start-up of the alternator is delayed until what?

A

Until the engine oil pressure reaches operating levels

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65
Q

Batteries give off _______ gas that is highly explosive.

A

Hydrogen

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66
Q

Always wear ______ and ______ when working on or around batteries.

A

Safety googles and protective clothing

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67
Q

Whenever disconnecting battery terminals, always disconnect the ground terminal ______. When reconnecting, always connect the ground terminal _____.

A

First; Last

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68
Q

A typical automotive battery contains _______ and ________.

A

Lead and sulfuric acid

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69
Q

The standard battery offerings supplied with the Pierce Custom Chassis are of the ___________ design.

A

Maintenance-free

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70
Q

What should you use to remove corrosion and for cleaning the top of the batteries?

A

Use hot water and baking soda

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71
Q

When looking at the NEWMAR EVM 12-2 Battery Charger/Monitor, at full charge, all _____ bars illuminate green to indicate battery voltage of 13 + volts.

A

Five

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72
Q

When looking at the NEWMAR EVM 12-2 Battery Charger/Monitor, as the battery discharges, green bars extinguish one at a time until _____ remain lit to indicate a battery voltage of _____ volts. It the state of charge drops further, green bars turn _________ in color and extinguish until one red bar remains.

A

Three; 12.4 volts; orange/yellow

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73
Q

When looking at the NEWMAR EVM 12-2 Battery Charger/Monitor, the red bar will flash to indicate charge has dropped to _____ volts or below.

A

11.2 volts

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74
Q

When looking at the NEWMAR EVM 12-2 Battery Charger/Monitor, all five bars will flash red to indicate over voltage condition if battery voltage gets to _____ volts or above.

A

15 volts

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75
Q

The charger will enter sleep mode after ______ if the charger and/or the vehicle is off and either battery voltage is below ____ volts. The meter automatically comes out of sleep mode if either battery voltage is above 13 volts.

A

48 hours; 13

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76
Q

When in sleep mode, the LED lights will blink every ______.

A

2-3 seconds

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77
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Never turn the battery switch off while the engine is running or damage to the alternator may result.

A

TRUE

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78
Q

What will happen when the level in the fuel tank has dropped to the 1/8th tank mark?

A
  • Light in fuel gauge comes on steady
  • Amber caution light in indicator bank comes on steady
  • LCD display CAUTION text will flash with LOW FUEL LEVEL message
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79
Q

What will happen when the level in the fuel tank has dropped to the 1/32nd tank mark?

A
  • Red warning light in indicator bank comes on steady
  • LCD display WARNING text will flash with VERY LOW FUEL LEVEL
  • Caution alarm will chime
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80
Q

The turn signal switch is located on the left side of the steering column and is ________. In addition to operating the turn signals, this switch also operates the ________.

A

Self-cancelling; high beam headlights

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81
Q

How do you active the high beams?

A

Accomplished by pulling on the lever until it clicks.

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82
Q

How do you activate the turn signals?

A

Raise or depress the lever to operate the turn signal lights.

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83
Q

How do you activate Headlight flash to pass?

A

Pull on the switch lever to flash the headlights with the headlight switch turned off. Pull on the lever gently so that it does not travel to the click position to flash the high beams when the headlights are switched off.

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84
Q

What are the warning lights that are standard on the Pierce Custom Chassis?

A
  • Engine oil pressure
  • Transmission oil temperature
  • Coolant level
  • Air brake pressure - front and rear
  • Engine coolant temperature
  • Engine air intake restriction
  • Voltage level
  • Fuel level low
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85
Q

The hazard flashers will operate with the ___________ and _____________ in the ON position.

A

Battery master switch and ignition switch

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86
Q

Pierce Custom Chassis are equipped with an ignition switch and a starter switch. The ignition switch engages _____________. The starter switches ________________.

A

Operational power to the chassis; Engages the starter motor for cranking

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87
Q

Loads will shed when voltage drops to the shed point for a minimum of _______. Once shed, the load will remain off for a minimum of ______, and will not unshed until the unshed voltage is achieved for a minimum of _______.

A

1 minute; 5 minutes; 1 minute

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88
Q

Loads only shed if _________ and ___________.

A

The parking brake is set and the Load Manager Enable input is achieved

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89
Q

Fast Idle is activated whenever system voltage is reduced to ______ for at least ______. Fast Idle remains on for a minimum of ______ and until _______ is achieved.

A

12.8 volts for at least 1 minute; 10 minutes and until 13.0 volts is achieved

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90
Q

Direct exposure of the vehicle to extreme high temperatures can cause damage to what?

A
  • Electrical System
  • Rubber seals and gaskets
  • Plastic components
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91
Q

Diesel engines consume as much as ____ cubic feet of clean air every minute when operating under full load.

A

1,200 cubic feet of clean air

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92
Q

What does the Power Inverter do?

A

The Samlex power inverter converts low voltage DC power from the chassis batteries to standard 115 volt AC power

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93
Q

The total power output rating for the power inverter is ________.

A

1,125 watts

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94
Q

The power inverter output power is displayed by a __-bar gradually increasing graph to depict output power level.

A

14-bar

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95
Q

The inverter will shut down during an overload situation. Remove the overload, turn the remote control power switch to OFF and wait for at least ______ before switching the inverter remote control switch to ON again.

A

Three minutes

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96
Q

What model ONAN is used on the 16 Pierce?

A

Cummins ONAN model HDKAL-1B

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97
Q

What is the ONAN generator used to power?

A
  • Electrical outlets
  • 110-volt lighting
  • Cord reel
  • Vehicle mounted battery charger
98
Q

Where can the generator be accessed?

A

By the driver’s side or passenger side rear-mounted tractor compartments, or by the rear-mounted tractor access doors and floor gate

99
Q

Where are controls for the ONAN located?

A
  • Tractor dashboard
  • The driver’s side rear tractor compartment
  • Generator mounted control panel
100
Q

If the generator is being run continuously, check for fuel, exhaust, oil and coolant leaks every _______.

A

8 hours

101
Q

Preheat times longer than ______ can damage the glow plugs.

A

20 seconds

102
Q

How long should you preheat the ONAN?

A
  • 10 seconds: above 50 degrees F
  • 15 seconds: 0 to 50 degrees
    F
  • 20 seconds: below 0 degrees F
103
Q

When starting the ONAN, do not crank the engine for more than _______ at a time. Damage to the starter can result. Wait _____ before attempting to start again.

A

15 seconds; 2 minutes

104
Q

Connect loads once the generator has warmed up for _________.

A

A few minutes

105
Q

Allow the generator to cool down by running at no load for __________ before stopping.

A

Three to five minutes

106
Q

What can affect the generator power output?

A

Temperature and elevation

107
Q

Why is it necessary to keep no-load operations of the ONAN to a minimum?

A

During no-load operations, combustion chamber temperatures drop below optimum operating temperatures. This can prevent complete combustion of fuel, resulting in white smoke and slobbering. Always have some load connected when the generator is run for long periods.

108
Q

If the generator is used infrequently, run the generator at approximately ____ rated power for ______ every week.

A

1/2 rated power for one hour every week. This will result in better starting, longer engine life and increased reliability by driving out moisture, re-lubricating the engine, burning off fuel before it becomes stale, and removing oxides from electrical contacts. One longer period where the engine and generator warm up thoroughly is better than several short periods.

109
Q

Change the oil and oil filter of the ONAN after the first ______ of operation.

A

First 50 hours

110
Q

A _____________ is a special exhaust canister which has replaced the typical muffler. This canister contains a Diesel Oxidation Catalyst (DOC) and a Diesel Particulate Filter (DPF).

A

After Treatment Device (ATD)

111
Q

The Selective Catalyst Reduction (SCR) device is a catalytic converter that uses vaporized diesel exhaust fluid (DEF) to reduce _________ emissions created during the combustion process.

A

Nitrogen oxide (NOx)

112
Q

What are the different names of Diesel Exhaust Fluid?

A
  • DEF
  • Urea
  • Ad-blue
113
Q

What is DEF?

A

A solution of 32.5% urea and 67.5% deionized water, which breaks down into ammonia (NH3) during a chemical reaction in a decomposition reactor through a process known as hydrolysis

114
Q

What does the Amber Check Engine light indicate?

A

The amber Check Engine, or Engine Warning, light indicates a non-critical system fault with the engine has occurred. The operator can drive the vehicle to the end of their shift and call service to remedy the problem.

115
Q

What does the Red Stop Engine light indicate?

A

The red Stop Engine light indicates a serious engine fault that may result in engine damage has occurred and the vehicle should be shut down as soon as it is safe to do so. The engine should remain shut down until serviced by an authorized Cummins dealer.

116
Q

When does the Malfunction Indicator (MIL) light illuminate?

A

The Malfunction Indicator (MIL) light (ISX 15 2010 EPA, 2013 EPA & later engines only) illuminates when a fault has occurred on an emission related component. The engine and aftertreatment system should be diagnosed and serviced at the next available opportunity.

117
Q

What should the Apparatus Operator do if the MIL and Stop Engine Lamp illuminate together?

A

If the MIL and Stop Engine Lamp illuminate together, the vehicle should be stopped as soon as it is safe to do so. The vehicle should be serviced by an authorized Cummins dealer.

118
Q

What does it mean when the DPF light is on solid?

A

On solid (low to medium levels of particulate build up). The vehicle requires regeneration but should be able to complete its mission before a regen is performed.

119
Q

You may initiate a DPF regeneration by switching to a more challenging duty cycle (such as highway driving for at least _________ or pumping) OR perform a parked regeneration.

A

20 minutes

120
Q

What does it mean when the DPF light is flashing?

A

Flashing (medium to high levels of particulate build up). The vehicle requires a regeneration as soon as possible.

121
Q

What does it mean when the DPF light is flashing with an amber Check Engine light?

A

Flashing with amber Check Engine light (high level of particulate build up). A DPF regeneration is required immediately.
*An automatic regeneration will not initiate. The operator must perform a parked regeneration

122
Q

What does it mean when the DPF light is flashing with an amber Check Engine and a Stop Engine light?

A

As soon as it is safe to do so, the vehicle should be stopped and remain shut down until serviced by an authorized Cummins dealer.

123
Q

What does the High Exhaust System Temperature (HEST) light indicate?

A

Indicates an active regeneration has been initiated and exhaust system temperatures are elevated above normal levels

124
Q

When will the HEST light remain on until?

A

Will remain on until exhaust temperatures have dropped below 977 degrees F

125
Q

If the HEST light is ON and the vehicle speed has dropped below the threshold of ___ miles per hour, the light will remain ON until the vehicle speed increases ~_ mph back above the speed threshold and the regeneration process finishes.

A

5 mph; 3 mph

126
Q

When does Passive Regeneration occur?

A

Passive regeneration can occur during normal engine operation, typically at higher engine speeds (i.e. highway driving) and/or high loads, when exhaust temperatures naturally get high enough to oxidize the soot in the DPF

127
Q

When does Active Regeneration occur?

A

Active Regeneration can happen while the truck is being driven, when in stationary truck operations, or during pumping operations.

128
Q

If a parked regeneration is attempted, and the engine speed does not increase, contact your __________ for assistance.

A

Cummins dealer

129
Q

What is the Parked Regeneration RPM?

A

900 RPM

130
Q

When performing a Parked Regeneration, clear exhaust outlet areas ___ feet of any items, gasses, vapors that can melt, burn or explode

A

5 feet

131
Q

If performing a parked regeneration indoors, exhaust discharge pipe must be rated at least _______.

A

1,500 degrees F

132
Q

To perform a parked regeneration, with the engine running, press and hold the vehicle’s regeneration switch for _________.

A

Several seconds

133
Q

Parked Regeneration may take _________ or more, depending on soot level.

A

20-40 minutes

134
Q

After Parked Regeneration, exhaust temperatures stay high at least _____ minutes after completion.

A

3-5 minutes

135
Q

How can you stop a regeneration before completion?

A
  • Depress throttle pedal
  • Release Parking Brake
  • Press the Regeneration Inhibit Switch
136
Q

After completion of regeneration, the HEST light will remain illuminated until the exhaust outlet temperature is below ______ or the vehicle speed exceeds _____.

A

977 degrees F; 5 mph

137
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Inhibiting or suspending regeneration too frequently can result in exhaust restriction, higher fuel consumption, and engine performance loss due to soot build-up in the DPF.

A

TRUE

138
Q

The maintenance interval of the DPF is ________________ miles, or up to ______ hours, which is dependent on duty cycle, type of oil used, and oil consumption rate.

A

200,000-400,000; 6,750

139
Q

When no DEF Level Low light is presents, DEF levels are between full and ______.

A

38%

140
Q

When DEF Level Low light is on solid, DEF level are between ______ and ______.

A

38% and 12%

141
Q

When DEF Level Low light is flashing, DEF level are below ______.

A

12%

142
Q

When DEF Level Low light is flashing and a Check Engine light is present, DEF level are below ______.

A

5% (1/4 gallon remaining)

143
Q

When DEF Level Low light is flashing, a Check Engine light is present and MIL light is solid, DEF tank is ________.

A

Empty and system can no longer maintain DEF pressure

144
Q

When DEF Level Low light is flashing, a Check Engine light is present, MIL light is solid and red Stop Engine light is solid, DEF tank is ________.

A

Empty and ignored

145
Q

Diesel engine starting motors require a significant amount of current during the starting process. Keep all unnecessary electronic loads turned ____ while starting the engine.

A

OFF

146
Q

If the engine does not start within _________, release the starter buttons and allow the starter motor to cool for __________ before attempting to start the engine again.

A

15 seconds; 60 seconds

147
Q

What are some of the detrimental effects that excessive idling can have on the engine?

A
  • Fuel dilution of the lubricating oil
  • Unburned fuel passing through to the exhaust system
  • Carbon build-up in the cylinder
  • Cylinder head valve sticking
  • Smoking
  • Reduced performance
148
Q

If it is necessary to idle the engine for more than _______, the fast idle switch should be activated to increase the engine speed to at least ________.

A

5 minutes; 1,000 rpm

149
Q

When stopping the engine, allow engine to idle for _________.

A

3 to 5 minutes

150
Q

Before using jumper cables, make sure the booster vehicle also has a ______________.

A

Negative ground system

151
Q

To avoid damage to vehicle electronic components, voltage supplied to a vehicle’s electrical system must not exceed _______.

A

16.0 volts

152
Q

A diesel truck engine may consume over _____ gallons of air for every gallon of fuel that it burns.

A

12,500

153
Q

EF fluid should be stored at temperatures between _________ and has a minimum shelf life of ________.

A

10°F - 90°F; 12 months

154
Q

DEF will freeze around _______.

A

11 degrees F

155
Q

What are the cold weather guidelines?

A
  • Avoid extended idling (beyond 10 minutes) whenever possible
  • Maintain a minimum of 1250 rpm idle by use of the hand throttle or high idle system. Always make sure that parking brake is applied and transmission is in neutral before applying hand throttle.
  • Maintain engine cooling system
156
Q

What does the Hold Override Button do?

A

Unlocks shift lever to allow shifting into R (Reverse), N (Neutral) or D (Drive)

157
Q

Pressing the Display Mode/Diagnostics Button will display what?

A
  • Oil level
  • Oil Life Monitor
  • Filter Life Monitor
  • Transmission Health Monitor
  • Diagnostics Code
158
Q

Whenever it becomes necessary to leave the vehicle, even momentarily, while the engine is running, what should you do?

A
  • Place the transmission in Neutral
  • Set the Parking Brake
  • Chock the wheels
159
Q

What should you do when shifting between Reverse, Neutral and Drive?

A

Apply the service brake

160
Q

Do not idle in gear (reverse or forward drive gears) for longer than _______. Extended idling in gear can cause transmission damage.

A

5 minutes

161
Q

Maximum sump operating temperature is ______.

A

250 degrees F

162
Q

If service brakes are required to supplement retardation, apply the brakes in short durations of __________ rather than a continuous application. This will minimize heat buildup and reduce the possibility of brake fade.

A

5 to 10 seconds

163
Q

Use extreme caution when operating the vehicle with either air brake section charged to less than _______, or property damage or personal injury could result.

A

60 psi

164
Q

The indicator light will light and the alarm will sound any time the ignition switch is set to the run position and the pressure in either section is less than approximately _____.

A

60 psi

165
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The quick buildup feature allows the pressure to be built up in the rear brake section first to enable release of the parking brakes before the pressure in the front section is adequately charged

A

TRUE

166
Q

What does the Antilock Braking System do?

A

The antilock braking system automatically applies and releases the brakes during low traction or panic brake applications to minimize the stopping distance and improve steering control. ABS will prevent wheel lock-up at all times.

167
Q

If air pressure is reduced to approximately ______ in both systems, the spring brake valve will automatically apply.

A

40 psi

168
Q

The auxiliary front wheel lock feature uses air brake system pressure to keep the front brakes applied. It should be used only with the ____________ and ________________.

A

Engine running and a qualified attendant present at all times

169
Q

What must be engaged before the auxiliary front wheel lock will function?

A

The parking brake

170
Q

The compression brake (Jake Brake® or equivalent) is an electronically actuated mechanical system added to the __________.

A

Engine valve train

171
Q

The area where the ground pads make contact with the ground must be firm and capable of supporting _____. DO NOT set up over manhole covers, storm drains, or underground parking facilities that cannot meet these requirements.

A

75 psi

172
Q

On Side-to-Side Setup, with ground slope 10 degrees and Truck Slope 0 to 5 degrees what is the capacity?

A

Full

173
Q

On Side-to-Side Setup, with ground slope 13 degrees and Truck Slope 5.1 to 8 degrees what is the capacity?

A

Half

174
Q

On Side-to-Side Setup, with ground slope >13 degrees and Truck Slope >8 degrees what is the capacity?

A

Zero

175
Q

On Front-to-Rear Setup, with ground slope 7 degrees and Truck Slope 0 to 5 degrees what is the capacity?

A

Full

176
Q

On Front-to-Rear Setup, with ground slope 10 degrees and Truck Slope 5.1 to 8 degrees what is the capacity?

A

Half

177
Q

On Front-to-Rear Setup, with ground slope >10 degrees and Truck Slope >8 degrees what is the capacity?

A

Zero

178
Q

Install stabilizer jack safety pins (if equipped) keeping the handle about ______ from jack.

A

1 inch

179
Q

After deploying stabilizers, rreposition wheel chocks. Downhill side against tire and the uphill chock approximately ______ from tire. The aerial is ready for operation.

A

2 inches

180
Q

The capacity of the pulley system is _______, but cannot exceed the remaining ladder tip capacity.

A

500 pounds

181
Q

If the rope is passed through the pulley with the working end anchored to the ground, then the load on the device becomes ______ the weight of the load on the running or free end of the rope.

A

Twice

182
Q

If the main hydraulic system is not functioning, the ____________ provides backup power to the main hydraulic system pump

A

Emergency Pump Unit (EPU)

183
Q

A _________ switch is provided to activate the EPU.

A

Momentary

184
Q

DO NOT run the EPU for more than _________ without allowing an additional __________ for cooling down.

A

30 minutes; 30 minutes

185
Q

To prevent “dead-heading” the EPU hydraulic pressure, the EPU should be activated only after _______________.

A

The desired function is selected

186
Q

If the electronic system has failed and the manual aerial or stabilizer controls are being used, the EPU switch located at the _______________ will be the only one active.

A

Manual stabilizer controls

187
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The Pierce Manufacturing warranty does not cover damage caused by extending or retracting a frozen aerial.

A

TRUE

188
Q

What Cab Lift Cylinder Fluid should be used in between 0 to 120 degrees F?

A

TES-389 approved

189
Q

What Cab Lift Cylinder Fluid should be used in below 0 degrees F?

A

MIL-H-5606

190
Q

The door latch mechanism requires specific attention and needs to be lubricated. Liberally apply __________ or ___________ between the pivot arm (cam shaped lever) and the pivot plate of the door latch.

A

White lithium grease; Alpha 2000 grease

191
Q

Inspect the door latch strikers. Tighten loose strikers on cab side doors to __________.

A

55 ft-lbs

192
Q

Door hinges should be lubricated by spraying them with a light coating of ___________.

A

Silicone lubricant

193
Q

Inspect weatherstrip for tears or excessive abrasion. To extent life of rubber, spray weatherstrip and window rubber with a light coating of ___________.

A

Silicone lubricant

194
Q

Wipe the blades with a clean towel soaked in ___________.

A

Windshield washer fluid

195
Q

The cab should not be raised until the air conditioner has been shut-off and the truck has sat with the battery switch ON for at least _________.

A

30 minutes

196
Q

What type of refrigerant should be used in the Air Conditioning System?

A

R134A

197
Q

The air conditioning system should be checked at the __________________.

A

Start of the warm weather season

198
Q

The _________ is the only point where you can actually see inside the air conditioner during operation.

A

Sight glass

199
Q

If the Air Conditioning system is functioning properly and cooling the cab adequately, the sight glass should be ___________.

A

Clear (you will not see anything in it)

200
Q

Do not ______ or ______ seat belt webbing.

A

Bleach or dye

201
Q

Pierce recommends considering replacement of the belts at ______ intervals, to reduce the potential failure of the seat belts caused by unapparent damage such as belt exposure to chemicals or UV radiation

A

5-year

202
Q

What are the four categories of Seat Belt Damage?

A
  • No damage
  • Slight damage
  • Moderate damage
  • Severe damage
203
Q

Seat belt webbing should be inspected and replaced if anything beyond __________ is noticed.

A

Slight damage

204
Q

All new Pierce Custom Chassis are equipped with __________ lining material.

A

Non-asbestos

205
Q

Do not use ___________ on disc brake calipers. This grease may not adequately lubricate the calipers. Only use ________ Grade numbers 1 or 2, or equivalent.

A

Lithium base grease; Clay-based NLGI

206
Q

Inspect brake linings _______ until a normal wear rate can be determined and an appropriate inspection schedule established.

A

Weekly

207
Q

The front and tiller axles use a _____________ brake.

A

Meritor EX225 air disc

208
Q

For the front and tiller axles, check the position of the caliper inboard bosses on the slide pins. If the bosses are within ______ of the end of the pins or less, remove the wheels and inspect the linings for replacement. Replace at ______ thickness.

A

1/4 inch; 1/8 inch

209
Q

The drive axle uses a ____________ brake.

A

Meritor cam style drum

210
Q

For the drive axle, reline the brakes when the lining thickness is ________ or less.

A

1/4 inch

211
Q

Inspect the air dryer to ensure that it is exhausting properly at each cycle of the air compressor governor. Replace the desiccant cartridge every __________ or more often depending on usage.

A

2 to 3 years

212
Q

Proper belt tension is essential to avoid squealing, slipping, or throwing of alternator belts. Proper belt tension should be checked using a _________ Gauge or equivalent

A

Burrows Tension

213
Q

Make cable connections as corrosion resistant as possible by coating the connections with a __________ or ______________.

A

Heavy general purpose grease or battery terminal protection product

214
Q

Batteries can be cleaned with a brush dipped in a _______ or ________ solution.

A

Baking soda or ammonia

215
Q

What is the main difference between AC and DC systems?

A

The voltage levels in the DC systems remain constant, while the voltage levels in the AC systems are constantly changing

216
Q

Why won’t a voltmeter set to DC not indicate the presence of AC voltage?

A

Because the average voltage of an AC system is zero

217
Q

Voltage can be fatal at levels greater than ________.

A

60 volts

218
Q

Tighten T-Bolt style hose clamps to _______ in-lbs

A

90-100

219
Q

Tighten Spring T-bolt clamps to _______ in-lbs

A

45-70

220
Q

Tighten standard worm-drive style clamps to ________ in-lbs.

A

30-45

221
Q

A thermostat is fully open at approximately ______ above the opening temperature.

A

20 degrees F

222
Q

Use a __________ to check coolant solution.

A

Refractometer

223
Q

When filling Coolant, fill at approximately ___ GPM until radiator top tank is full to the point of overflowing.

A

3 GPM

224
Q

On all 2007 EPA, 2010 EPA & 2013 EPA diesel engines, the exhaust temperature can reach _______ during an active regeneration cycle.

A

1,350 degrees F

225
Q

All customer installed hardware needs to be kept a minimum of ________ away from any exhaust pipe and After Treatment Device (ATD) housing.

A

6 inches

226
Q

When equipped with the electronic oil level sensor, the transmission fluid level may be monitored on the shift selector display. Note that the fluid level reading may be delayed until the following conditions are met:

A
  • Engine at idle (below 1,000 RPM)
  • Fluid temperature between 140 and 220 degrees F
  • Transmission in Neutral
  • The vehicle has been stationary for two minutes to allow the fluid to settle
227
Q

To reset the Oil Life Monitor: While in Oil Life Monitor mode, press and hold the Mode button for ____ seconds or shift the gear ranges in the following sequences without pausing for more than ___ seconds before shifts.

A

10 seconds; N-D-N-D-N-R; 3 seconds

228
Q

To reset the Filter Life Monitor: While in Filter Life Monitor mode, press and hold the Mode button for ____ seconds or shift the gear ranges in the following sequences without pausing for more than ___ seconds before shifts.

A

10 seconds; N-R-N-R-N-D; 3 seconds

229
Q

When viewing the Transmission Health Monitor, the transmission health is displayed as ____ or ____. If ____ is displayed, clutch maintenance is required.

A

OK or LO; LO

230
Q

A cold check may be made after initial start-up and the presence of transmission fluid has been confirmed (the sump fluid temperature is then typically __________.)

A

60 - 120 degrees F

231
Q

To perform a Hot Check, be sure that transmission fluid has reached normal operating temperature of _______.

A

160 - 200 degrees F

232
Q

When using Michelin Fire-Service Rated Tires, after driving for ______ at speeds above the standard maximum rated speeds, or at loads over the maximum side- wall rating, park the apparatus for ______ to allow the tire carcass to cool.

A

1 hour; 1 hour

233
Q

How can you determine if your tires are being operated under a fire service rating?

A

You can determine if your tires are being operated under a fire service rating by checking the maximum load rating listed on the sidewall of the tire. Find the gross axle weight rating (GAWR) on the yellow final vehicle manufacturer label in the cab. Divide each GAWR rating by the number of tires on that axle. If the GAWR rating divided by its tires is greater than the sidewall rating for the tire, then your tire is operating in a fire-service condition.

234
Q

Match dual tires so that tires worn to the same diameter are placed together. Do not mount tires together that vary by more than ___ inch in diameter or ___ inch in circumference.

A

1/4; 3/4

235
Q

What are the possible problems if the PTO will not engage?

A
  • Aerial Master switch not energized
  • Transmission range selector not in neutral
  • Parking brake disengaged
236
Q

What are the possible problems if the Stabilizer Circuit will not operate?

A
  • Hydraulic power switch is in aerial function
  • Locked in aerial mode
  • Aerial is out of boom support
  • PTO not engaged
237
Q

What are the possible problems is the Aerial Controls are inoperative?

A
  • PTO not engaged
  • Aerial deadman foot switch is not depressed
  • Hydraulic power switch is in stabilizer function
  • Stabilize is not set
238
Q

What is a Class I dent?

A
  • Length is less than 10 times the width OR

- Somewhat circular AND greater than 1/32” in depth

239
Q

What is a Class II dent?

A
  • Length is more than 10 times width AND
  • Is oriented along the longitudinal axis of the member AND
  • Is greater than 1/32” in depth
240
Q

What is a Class III dent?

A
  • Length is more than 10 times width AND
  • Is oriented more than 15 degrees across the longitudinal axis of the member AND
  • Is greater than 1/32” in depth
241
Q

What is a Class IV dent?

A
  • Greater than 3/8” long or 1/32” deep
242
Q

The flashpoint for Type II Dry-Cleaning Solvent is ________ and Type III Dry-Cleaning _________.

A

140 degrees F; 200 degrees F

A/O 2024 (33 decks)

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