CRQ Micro Flashcards
The English surgeon who began the age of chemical control of the atmosphere was
A) Ehrlich
B) Madame Curie
C) Alexander
D) Lister
D) Lister
Oxygen-dependent bacteria are said to be
A) anaerobic
B) bacillic
C) antibiotic
D) aerobic
D) aerobic
The destruction of bacteria by white cells during the inflammatory process is called
A) symbiosis
B) mitosis
C) lymphocytosis
D) phagocytosis
D) phagocytosis
Bacteriostatic means
A) to inhibit growth of microorganisms
B) to destroy microorganisms
C) to control microorganisms
D) to inactivate microorganisms
A) to inhibit growth of microorganisms
Staphylococcus aureus would most likely be transmitted by
A) urine
B) feces
C) nose and mouth
D) sex organs
C) nose and mouth
Microbial death occurs when an organism is
A) reproducing at a slower rate
B) reduced in population
C) no longer capable of reproduction
D) exposed to heat
C) no longer capable of reproduction
The clinical syndrome characterized by microbial invasion of the bloodstream is
A) superinfection
B) septicemia
C) cross-infection
D) cellulitis
B) septicemia
A toxoid is
A) an inactivated toxin
B) a substance that elicits an immune response
C) a poison produced by an infectious agent
D) a substance that the body recognizes as foreign, thus evoking an immune response
A) an inactivated toxin
The bodies first line of defense against the invasion of pathogens is
A) the immune response
B) skin and mucous membrane linings
C) cellular and chemical responses
D) phagocytosis
B) skin and mucous membrane linings
Rodlike shaped bacteria are identified microscopically as
A) bacilli
B) cocci
C) spirilla
D) spirochetes
A) bacilli
The procedure used to remove damaged tissue that provides growth conditions for pathogens is called
A) incision and drainage
B) dessication
C) lysis of adhesions
D) debridement
D) debridement
Herpes simplex is commonly called
A) cold sore
B) shingles
C) smallpox
D) chicken pox
A) cold sore
Clostridium tetani causes
A) gangrene
B) nosocomial infection
C) lockjaw
D) malaria
C) lockjaw
The laboratory procedure useful in classifying bacteria using a staining procedure is
A) Gram stain
B) iodine stain
C) acid fast stain
D) differential stain
A) Gram stain
A fulminating infection arising from necrotic tissue and spreading rapidly is
A) rabies
B) gas gangrene
C) pateurellosis
D) tetanus
B) gas gangrene
Which bacteria is commonly found in soil?
A) Clostridium tetani
B) Trypanosoma brucei
C) Pediculus vestimenti
D) Yersinia pestis
A) Clostridium tetani
The bacteria that causes rheumatic fever is
A) Escherichia coli
B) Streptococcus
C) Pseudomonas
D) Staphylococcus
B) Streptococcus
What organism is responsible for a boil?
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Clostridium perfringens
C) Escherichia coli
D) Neisseria
A) Staphylococcus aureus
The organism most frequently found in burns is
A) Clostridium perfringens
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Clostridium tetani
D) hemolytic streptococci
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
A bacterial pathogen most frequently invading damaged skin is
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Clostridium tetani
C) Pseudomonas septica
D) Candida albicans
A) Staphylococcus aureus
Which type of wound would favor the development of gas gangrene?
A) moist
B) necrotic
C) dry
D) warm
B) necrotic
Gas gangrene is caused by
A) Fusobacterium
B) Clostridium tetani
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D) Clostridium perfringens
D) Clostridium perfringens
The bacteria highly resistant to sterilization and disinfection is
A) spores
B) fungus
C) Gram-positive
D) Pseudomonas
A) spores
A bacteria found in the intestinal tract is
A) Escherichia coli
B) Bordetella pertussis
C) Franciscella tularensis
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
A) Escherichia coli
What immune protection is available to the fetus?
A) natural active
B) natural passive
C) active artificial
D) passive artificial
B) natural passive
Passage of fluid through a cell membrane is called
A) metosis
B) miosis
C) osmosis
D) symbiosis
C) osmosis
All of the following descriptors refer to the inflammatory process except
A) heat
B) pain
C) vasoconstriction
D) edema
C) vasoconstriction
A labaratory procedure useful in classifying bacteria using a staining procedure is
A) Gram stain
B) iodine stain
C) acid fast stain
D) differential stain
A) Gram stain
A severe allergic reaction possibly resulting in death is called
A) arthus reaction
B) hypersensibility
C) anaphylactic shock
D) autoimmune disease
C) anaphylactic shock
The bacteria highly resistant to sterilization and disinfection is
A) spores
B) fungus
C) Gram-positive
D) Pseudomonas
A) spores
The burn classification that is characterized by a dry, peraly white, or charred-appearing surface is
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth
C) third
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a governmental regulating agency whose aim is to
A) provide guidelines to prevent transmission of blood-borne infections
B) execute requirements designed to prevent transmission of blood-borne pathogens in the work environment
C) require that communicable disease be reported to a public health agency
D) train employees how to recognize and execute safe practices
B) execute requirements designed to prevent transmission of blood-borne pathogens in the work environment
What bacteria is the common cause for post operative wound infections?
A) S aureus
B) Rickettsiae
C) Hemophilus influenza
D) Candida
A) S aureus
What spore is used to test steam under pressure (steam sterilizer)
A) C perfringens
B) Bacillus stearothermophilus
C) Treponema pallidum
D) S aureus
B) Bacillus stearothermophilus
Hospital-acquired infections are known as
A) Antibiotic resistant
B) Bacteremia
C) Nosocomial
D) MRSA
C) Nosocomial
MRSA methicillin resistant S aureus is a strain of S aureus that is resistant to most antibiotics. What is the only drug of choice to treat MRSA at this time?
A) Vancomycin
B) Penicillin
C) Gentamicin
D) Keflex
A) Vancomycin
E coli is part of the normal flora of the __________ in humans.
A) skin
B) hair
C) intestinal tract
D) none of the above
C) intestinal tract
The type of immunity that is acquired by a vaccination is
A) naturally acquired active immunity
B) naturally acquired passive immunity
C) artificial active acquired immunity
D) artificial passive acquired immunity
C) artificial active acquired immunity
What gram stain turns red at the end of the staining procedure
A) gram-positive
B) gram-negative
C) acid fast positive
D) acid fast negative
B) gram-negative
What living cells are more complex, have nuclei and include protozoa, fungi, green, red and brown algae?
A) Eukaryotic
B) Facultative
C) Prokaryotic
D) Passive
A) Eukaryotic
The microbes that reside on the skin and are easily removed are referred to as
A) resident
B) transient
C) aseptic flora
D) none of the above
B) transient
Inflammation is characterized by pain, redness, heat, swelling, and the loss of function. The redness can be attributed to
A) serum brought into the area
B) constriction of capillaries
C) vasodilation bringing more blood to the area
D) heat from metabolic reaction
C) vasodilation bringing more blood to the area
Removal of contaminated debris from a wound is called
A) decontamination
B) debridement
C) dehiscence
D) desiccation
B) debridement
The space caused by separation of wound edges is called
A) lag phase
B) evisceration
C) fibrous scarring
D) dead space
D) dead space
If tissue is approximated too tightly it can cause
A) ischemia
B) excessive scar tissue
C) keloids
D) adhesions
A) ischemia
Tensile strength of a wound refers to
A) the suture strength
B) ability of tissue to resist rupture
C) wound contraction
D) tissue approximation
B) ability of tissue to resist rupture
The substance that unites with thrombin to form fibrin, the basic structural material of blood clots is
A) fibrinogen
B) prothrombin
C) fibrin
D) thrombin
A) fibrinogen
A cicatrix is
A) an abcess
B) a scar
C) pus
D) a wound
B) a scar
Keloids are
A) a form of abcess
B) an adhered serous membrane
C) a raised, thickened scar
D) a benign tumor
C) a raised, thickened scar
A wound that is infected or one in which there is excessive loss of tissue heals by
A) primary intention
B) secondary intention
C) third intention
D) fourth intention
B) secondary intention
