CRQ Micro Flashcards

1
Q

The English surgeon who began the age of chemical control of the atmosphere was

A) Ehrlich

B) Madame Curie

C) Alexander

D) Lister

A

D) Lister

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2
Q

Oxygen-dependent bacteria are said to be

A) anaerobic

B) bacillic

C) antibiotic

D) aerobic

A

D) aerobic

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3
Q

The destruction of bacteria by white cells during the inflammatory process is called

A) symbiosis

B) mitosis

C) lymphocytosis

D) phagocytosis

A

D) phagocytosis

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4
Q

Bacteriostatic means

A) to inhibit growth of microorganisms

B) to destroy microorganisms

C) to control microorganisms

D) to inactivate microorganisms

A

A) to inhibit growth of microorganisms

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5
Q

Staphylococcus aureus would most likely be transmitted by

A) urine

B) feces

C) nose and mouth

D) sex organs

A

C) nose and mouth

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6
Q

Microbial death occurs when an organism is

A) reproducing at a slower rate

B) reduced in population

C) no longer capable of reproduction

D) exposed to heat

A

C) no longer capable of reproduction

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7
Q

The clinical syndrome characterized by microbial invasion of the bloodstream is

A) superinfection

B) septicemia

C) cross-infection

D) cellulitis

A

B) septicemia

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8
Q

A toxoid is

A) an inactivated toxin

B) a substance that elicits an immune response

C) a poison produced by an infectious agent

D) a substance that the body recognizes as foreign, thus evoking an immune response

A

A) an inactivated toxin

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9
Q

The bodies first line of defense against the invasion of pathogens is

A) the immune response

B) skin and mucous membrane linings

C) cellular and chemical responses

D) phagocytosis

A

B) skin and mucous membrane linings

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10
Q

Rodlike shaped bacteria are identified microscopically as

A) bacilli

B) cocci

C) spirilla

D) spirochetes

A

A) bacilli

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11
Q

The procedure used to remove damaged tissue that provides growth conditions for pathogens is called

A) incision and drainage

B) dessication

C) lysis of adhesions

D) debridement

A

D) debridement

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12
Q

Herpes simplex is commonly called

A) cold sore

B) shingles

C) smallpox

D) chicken pox

A

A) cold sore

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13
Q

Clostridium tetani causes

A) gangrene

B) nosocomial infection

C) lockjaw

D) malaria

A

C) lockjaw

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14
Q

The laboratory procedure useful in classifying bacteria using a staining procedure is

A) Gram stain

B) iodine stain

C) acid fast stain

D) differential stain

A

A) Gram stain

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15
Q

A fulminating infection arising from necrotic tissue and spreading rapidly is

A) rabies

B) gas gangrene

C) pateurellosis

D) tetanus

A

B) gas gangrene

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16
Q

Which bacteria is commonly found in soil?

A) Clostridium tetani

B) Trypanosoma brucei

C) Pediculus vestimenti

D) Yersinia pestis

A

A) Clostridium tetani

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17
Q

The bacteria that causes rheumatic fever is

A) Escherichia coli

B) Streptococcus

C) Pseudomonas

D) Staphylococcus

A

B) Streptococcus

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18
Q

What organism is responsible for a boil?

A) Staphylococcus aureus

B) Clostridium perfringens

C) Escherichia coli

D) Neisseria

A

A) Staphylococcus aureus

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19
Q

The organism most frequently found in burns is

A) Clostridium perfringens

B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

C) Clostridium tetani

D) hemolytic streptococci

A

B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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20
Q

A bacterial pathogen most frequently invading damaged skin is

A) Staphylococcus aureus

B) Clostridium tetani

C) Pseudomonas septica

D) Candida albicans

A

A) Staphylococcus aureus

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21
Q

Which type of wound would favor the development of gas gangrene?

A) moist

B) necrotic

C) dry

D) warm

A

B) necrotic

22
Q

Gas gangrene is caused by

A) Fusobacterium

B) Clostridium tetani

C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D) Clostridium perfringens

A

D) Clostridium perfringens

23
Q

The bacteria highly resistant to sterilization and disinfection is

A) spores

B) fungus

C) Gram-positive

D) Pseudomonas

A

A) spores

24
Q

A bacteria found in the intestinal tract is

A) Escherichia coli

B) Bordetella pertussis

C) Franciscella tularensis

D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

A) Escherichia coli

25
Q

What immune protection is available to the fetus?

A) natural active

B) natural passive

C) active artificial

D) passive artificial

A

B) natural passive

26
Q

Passage of fluid through a cell membrane is called

A) metosis

B) miosis

C) osmosis

D) symbiosis

A

C) osmosis

27
Q

All of the following descriptors refer to the inflammatory process except

A) heat

B) pain

C) vasoconstriction

D) edema

A

C) vasoconstriction

28
Q

A labaratory procedure useful in classifying bacteria using a staining procedure is

A) Gram stain

B) iodine stain

C) acid fast stain

D) differential stain

A

A) Gram stain

29
Q

A severe allergic reaction possibly resulting in death is called

A) arthus reaction

B) hypersensibility

C) anaphylactic shock

D) autoimmune disease

A

C) anaphylactic shock

30
Q

The bacteria highly resistant to sterilization and disinfection is

A) spores

B) fungus

C) Gram-positive

D) Pseudomonas

A

A) spores

31
Q

The burn classification that is characterized by a dry, peraly white, or charred-appearing surface is

A) first

B) second

C) third

D) fourth

A

C) third

32
Q

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is a governmental regulating agency whose aim is to

A) provide guidelines to prevent transmission of blood-borne infections

B) execute requirements designed to prevent transmission of blood-borne pathogens in the work environment

C) require that communicable disease be reported to a public health agency

D) train employees how to recognize and execute safe practices

A

B) execute requirements designed to prevent transmission of blood-borne pathogens in the work environment

33
Q

What bacteria is the common cause for post operative wound infections?

A) S aureus

B) Rickettsiae

C) Hemophilus influenza

D) Candida

A

A) S aureus

34
Q

What spore is used to test steam under pressure (steam sterilizer)

A) C perfringens

B) Bacillus stearothermophilus

C) Treponema pallidum

D) S aureus

A

B) Bacillus stearothermophilus

35
Q

Hospital-acquired infections are known as

A) Antibiotic resistant

B) Bacteremia

C) Nosocomial

D) MRSA

A

C) Nosocomial

36
Q

MRSA methicillin resistant S aureus is a strain of S aureus that is resistant to most antibiotics. What is the only drug of choice to treat MRSA at this time?

A) Vancomycin

B) Penicillin

C) Gentamicin

D) Keflex

A

A) Vancomycin

37
Q

E coli is part of the normal flora of the __________ in humans.

A) skin

B) hair

C) intestinal tract

D) none of the above

A

C) intestinal tract

38
Q

The type of immunity that is acquired by a vaccination is

A) naturally acquired active immunity

B) naturally acquired passive immunity

C) artificial active acquired immunity

D) artificial passive acquired immunity

A

C) artificial active acquired immunity

39
Q

What gram stain turns red at the end of the staining procedure

A) gram-positive

B) gram-negative

C) acid fast positive

D) acid fast negative

A

B) gram-negative

40
Q

What living cells are more complex, have nuclei and include protozoa, fungi, green, red and brown algae?

A) Eukaryotic

B) Facultative

C) Prokaryotic

D) Passive

A

A) Eukaryotic

41
Q

The microbes that reside on the skin and are easily removed are referred to as

A) resident

B) transient

C) aseptic flora

D) none of the above

A

B) transient

42
Q

Inflammation is characterized by pain, redness, heat, swelling, and the loss of function. The redness can be attributed to

A) serum brought into the area

B) constriction of capillaries

C) vasodilation bringing more blood to the area

D) heat from metabolic reaction

A

C) vasodilation bringing more blood to the area

43
Q

Removal of contaminated debris from a wound is called

A) decontamination

B) debridement

C) dehiscence

D) desiccation

A

B) debridement

44
Q

The space caused by separation of wound edges is called

A) lag phase

B) evisceration

C) fibrous scarring

D) dead space

A

D) dead space

45
Q

If tissue is approximated too tightly it can cause

A) ischemia

B) excessive scar tissue

C) keloids

D) adhesions

A

A) ischemia

46
Q

Tensile strength of a wound refers to

A) the suture strength

B) ability of tissue to resist rupture

C) wound contraction

D) tissue approximation

A

B) ability of tissue to resist rupture

47
Q

The substance that unites with thrombin to form fibrin, the basic structural material of blood clots is

A) fibrinogen

B) prothrombin

C) fibrin

D) thrombin

A

A) fibrinogen

48
Q

A cicatrix is

A) an abcess

B) a scar

C) pus

D) a wound

A

B) a scar

49
Q

Keloids are

A) a form of abcess

B) an adhered serous membrane

C) a raised, thickened scar

D) a benign tumor

A

C) a raised, thickened scar

50
Q

A wound that is infected or one in which there is excessive loss of tissue heals by

A) primary intention

B) secondary intention

C) third intention

D) fourth intention

A

B) secondary intention