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HGTC Surgical Technology > Chapter 20 GU Exam > Flashcards

Chapter 20 GU Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is the name of the connective tissue that forms the umbilical ligament and is used for traction in radical cystectomy?

A) urachus

B) symphysis

C) vas deferens

D) diastasis recti

A

A) urachus

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2
Q

Which of the following is NOT a form of polycystic kidney disease?

A) autosomal dominant

B) autosomal recessive

C) acquired

D) traumatic

A

D) traumatic

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3
Q

What is the medical term for excision of the urinary bladder?

A) colporrhaphy

B) corpectomy

C) cystectomy

D) cystostomy

A

C) cystectomy

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4
Q

What is one of the main objectives of procedures for female stress incontinence?

A) increase overall bladder capacity

B) reduce bladder spasms and irritability

C) restore the posterior urethrovesical angle

D) tighten and enhance bladder sphincter tone

A

C) restore the posterior urethrovesical angle

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5
Q

Marshall-Marchetti-Krantz (MMK) is a traditional version of which general type of procedure?

A) inguinal hernia repair

B) repair of cystocele and rectocele

C) shock wave destruction of calculi

D) suprapubic vesicourethral suspension

A

D) suprapubic vesicourethral suspension

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6
Q

Bonanno, Malecot, and Pezzer are types of :

A) suprapubic catheters

B) urethral catheters

C) active wound drains

D) passive wound drains

A

A) suprapubic catheters

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7
Q

Which signal should alert the surgical team that prostate capsule perforation is imminent and may conclude the procedure?

A) coughing

B) flatulence

C) groaning

D) leg jerking

A

D) leg jerking

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8
Q

Radical nephrectomy is usually performed with the patient in which position?

A) lateral

B) low-lithotomy

C) prone

D) supine

A

D) supine

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9
Q

What might the donor kidney be placed into to reduce possibility of injury during handling and transplantation?

A) laparoscopic entrapment sack

B) Lahey intestinal bag

C) plastic incise drape

D) woven stockinette

A

D) woven stockinette

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10
Q

Which self-retaining retractor is used for open suprapubic prostatectomy?

A) Gelpi

B) Judd-Mason

C) Adson-Beckman

D) O’Sullivan-O’Connor

A

B) Judd-Mason

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11
Q

What is the name of a continent urinary reservoir that may be performed following cystectomy?

A) hydrocele

B) ileal conduit

C) Koch pouch

D) orchiopexy

A

C) Koch pouch

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12
Q

Which instrument is used in TURP or TURBT and includes the sheath, obturator, working element, and ESU loops?

A) cystoscope

B) nephroscope

C) resectoscope

D) ureteroscope

A

C) resectoscope

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13
Q

What is used to resect the prostate gland tissue through the resectoscope?

A) endoshears

B) wire loop snare

C) ESU loop electrode

D) #11 blade on #7 handle

A

C) ESU loop electrode

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14
Q

What structure of male anatomy is divided into three sections: prostatic, membranous, and spongy?

A) ejaculatory duct

B) spermatic cord

C) urethra

D) ureter

A

C) urethra

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15
Q

Procedures for female urinary incontinence may be performed by gynecologists, urologists, or urogynocologists.

A) True
B) False

A

A) True

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16
Q

What measure is taken to reduce the metabolic needs and prevents tubular necrosis of a kidney removed for transplant?

A) cooling with Collins solution or ice slush

B) spraying with reconstituted topical thrombin

C) warming with sterile isotonic saline solution

D) infusion with warmed lactated Ringer’s solution

A

A) cooling with Collins solution or ice slush

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17
Q

Which of the following is a glass or plastic evacuator used to remove tissue and debris during TURP?

A) Ellik

B) Malecot

C) Pezzer

D) Toomey

A

A) Ellik

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18
Q

What is the medical term for the procedure of connecting a donor ureter to a recipient bladder?

A) ureteroscopy

B) reimplantation

C) suprapubic cystostomy

D) ureteroneocystostomy

A

D) ureteroneocystostomy

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19
Q

At approximately what age or period would a patient MOST likely be diagnosed with a Wilms’ tumor?

A) second trimester of gestation

B) between ages 3 and 8 years

C) onset of puberty

D) over age 60

A

B) between ages 3 and 8 years

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20
Q

What is the more common name for ureteroileocutaneous diversion?

A) colostomy

B) ileal conduit

C) bladder prolapse

D) pubovaginal sling

A

B) ileal conduit

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21
Q

What is the morcellator used for in a laparoscopic simple nephrectomy?

A) excising Gerota’s fascia from around the kidney

B) cutting between the ligaclips placed on the renal vessels

C) insufflating the peritoneal cavity after initial port placement

D) chopping the kidney and ureter into small pieces for suctioning

A

D) chopping the kidney and ureter into small pieces for suctioning

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22
Q

When is a patient classified as being in end-stage renal failure?

A) when both kidneys are functioning at or below 25% of normal

B) when both kidneys are functioning at or below 10% of normal

C) when one kidney is normal and the other is functioning at or below 25% of normal

D) when one kidney is normal and the other if functioning at or below 10% of normal

A

B) when both kidneys are functioning at or below 10% of normal

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23
Q

How is the anesthetic jelly that is inserted into the male urethra prior to cystoscopy kept from leaking out?

A) A cotton-tipped applicator is inserted into the external meatus.

B) A sterile tight-fitting condom is applied to the penis.

C) A flexible penile clamp is applied to the head of the penis.

D) A gloved finger is held firmly against the head of the penis.

A

C) A flexible penile clamp is applied to the head of the penis.

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24
Q

An elevated serum PSA exam might prompt the additional investigation of a(n):

A) intravenous urogram

B) prostate biopsy

C) PAP smear

D) urinalysis

A

B) prostate biopsy

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25
Q

Which of the following structures encloses the kidneys and suprarenal glands?

A) Gerota’s fascia

B) tunica vaginalis

C) peritoneal sac

D) costal periosteum

A

A) Gerota’s fascia

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26
Q

Which suture configuration is used to anastomose vessels in transplants?

A) fine, absorbable, single-armed

B) fine, nonabsorbable, double-armed

C) heavy, absorbable, single-armed

D) heavy, nonabsorbable, double-armed

A

B) fine, nonabsorbable, double-armed

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27
Q

Suprarenal glands are more commonly known as:

A) adrenal

B) parotid

C) prostate

D) thymus

A

C) prostate

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28
Q

Which of the following is given IV after the donor kidney is removed to reverse the heparinization?

A) thrombin

B) furosemide

C) protamine sulfate

D) Ringer’s lactate

A

C) protamine sulfate

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29
Q

Which type of catheter is placed postoperatively following TURP?

A) 2-way 16 Fr. Foley with 5 mL balloon

B) 2-way 22 Fr. Foley with 30 mL balloon

C) 3-way 16 Fr. Foley with 5 mL balloon

D) 3-way 22 Fr. Foley with 30 mL balloon

A

D) 3-way 22 Fr. Foley with 30 mL balloon

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30
Q

Which cutting instruments should the surgical technologist have ready for anastomosis of the renal vessels into the recipient?

A) #15 blade and Knight scissors

B) #10 blade and curved Mayo scissors

C) #11 blade and 45° angle Potts scissors

D) #12 blade and straight tenotomy scissors

A

C) #11 blade and 45° angle Potts scissors

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31
Q

What is the common diagnosis of a patient undergoing transurethral resection of the prostate?

A) benign prostatic hypertrophy

B) carcinoma of the prostate

C) erectile dysfunction

D) stress incontinence

A

A) benign prostatic hypertrophy

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32
Q

Which procedure is performed for testicular cancer, trauma, or necrosis secondary to torsion?

A) circumcision

B) hydrocelectomy

C) orchiectomy

D) penectomy

A

C) orchiectomy

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33
Q

Every instrument or catheter placed into the urethra should be lubricated to minimize mucosal injury or irritation.

A) True
B) False

A

A) True

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34
Q

Which of the following studies is a radiologic procedure in which contrast media is injected through a cystoscope?

A) KUB

B) PSA

C) IV urogram

D) retrograde urogram

A

D) retrograde urogram

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35
Q

Which of the following is NOT a type of pubovaginal or suburethral sling?

A) allograft fascia lata

B) autograft fascia lata

C) polypropylene mesh tape

D) radiopaque vaginal packing

A

D) radiopaque vaginal packing

36
Q

Which dilating instrument is used to dilate the corpora for placement of penile prosthesis?

A) Bougie

B) Hegar

C) Van Buren

D) Walther

A

B) Hegar

37
Q

What is the MOST serious post-op complication of penile implant surgery?

A) edema

B) impotence

C) premature ejaculation

D) surgical site infection

A

D) surgical site infection

38
Q

Cystoscopy and ureteroscopy procedures are performed in which position?

A) lateral

B) low-lithotomy

C) supine

D) Trendelenburg

A

B) low-lithotomy

39
Q

Which of the following procedures could be done in either a male or female patient?

A) hydrocelectomy

B) orchiectomy

C) TURBT

D) TURP

A

C) TURBT

40
Q

Approximately how many lobules comprise the average prostate gland?

A) 2

B) 4

C) 20

D) 50

A

D) 50

41
Q

What procedure is performed to remove a calculus lodged in the area of the hilum?

A) cystoscopy

B) orchiectomy

C) pyelolithotomy

D) urethrotomy

A

C) pyelolithotomy

42
Q

In radical cystectomy with ileal conduit on a male patient, what tissue will be sent for frozen section to verify clear margins?

A) sections of both testicles

B) segments of bilateral ureters

C) lateral edges of the tunica vaginalis

D) distal segments of the seminal vesicles

A

B) segments of bilateral ureters

43
Q

Which of the following is the term for the inability to retract the foreskin of the penis?

A) balanitis

B) hypospadias

C) phimosis

D) sclerosis

A

C) phimosis

44
Q

Which of the following is used to ensure patency of the ureters or allow for drainage of urine from the kidneys?

A) Foley catheter

B) suprapubic catheter

C) Jackson-Pratt drain

D) double-J or pigtail stent

A

D) double-J or pigtail stent

45
Q

How many suture ligatures or free ties should the surgical technologist have prepared for ligation of the renal artery and vein prior to transsection and removal?

A) one

B) three

C) five

D) seven

A

B) three

46
Q

Where in the genitourinary system do calculi originate?

A) kidney

B) bladder

C) prostate

D) testicles

A

A) kidney

47
Q

Which structure is ligated and transsected first in a radical nephrectomy or laparoscopic simple nephrectomy, following isolation of the vessels and ureter?

A) renal artery

B) renal vein

C) proximal ureter

D) Gerota’s fascia

A

A) renal artery

48
Q

Omnipaque, Renografin, and Isovue are used in cystoscopy as:

A) antibiotics

B) contrast media

C) distention fluids

D) topical analgesics

A

B) contrast media

49
Q

What is the name of the basic structure composed of renal corpuscles and tubules and numbers over a million?

A) adrenal

B) hilum

C) nephron

D) psoas

A

C) nephron

50
Q

Dialysis and kidney transplant are the only two treatments for which of the following?

A) end-stage renal disease

B) testicular carcinoma

C) type I diabetes mellitus

D) Wilms’ tumor

A

A) end-stage renal disease

51
Q

Which of the following comparisons of normal or typical kidney anatomy is CORRECT?

A) The left kidney is smaller and slightly lower than the right.

B) The right kidney is larger and slightly lower than the left.

C) The left kidney is larger and slightly higher than the right.

D) The right kidney is smaller and slightly higher than the left.

A

C) The left kidney is larger and slightly higher than the right.

52
Q

Adenocarcinoma has a direct correlation to each of the following EXCEPT:

A) genetic predisposition

B) end-stage renal disease

C) liver cirrhosis

D) tobacco use

A

C) liver cirrhosis

53
Q

In which surgical approach would the latissimus dorsi, internal and external oblique muscles be transected for access to the operative site?

A) inguinal oblique

B) suprapubic

C) subcostal flank

D) transverse abdominal

A

C) subcostal flank

54
Q

Diabetes, vascular disorder, nerve damage, and trauma are all possible causes of:

A) epispadias

B) hypospadias

C) impotence

D) prostate cancer

A

C) impotence

55
Q

What is a unique feature of the OR table in a cystoscopy suite?

A) It is radiolucent.

B) Stirrups can be attached to rails.

C) It has a mesh drain attachment.

D) It can be adjusted for fluoroscopic exams.

A

C) It has a mesh drain attachment.

56
Q

What does the adrenal medulla secrete?

A) catecholamines

B) testosterone

C) insulin

D) urine

A

A) catecholamines

57
Q

Flank, Gibson, inguinal, and scrotal are examples of:

A) drape sheets

B) operative approaches

C) post-op dressings

D) wound drains

A

B) operative approaches

58
Q

In what position is the patient placed for proximal pyelolithotomy?

A) lateral

B) lithotomy

C) prone

D) Trendelenburg

A

A) lateral

59
Q

Which distention fluid is nonelectrolytic and will lyse malignant tumor cells because of cellular uptake?

A) glycine

B) saline

C) sorbitol

D) water

A

D) water

60
Q

The vesical arteries that supply the bladder arise from the:

A) ascending aorta

B) external iliac artery

C) internal iliac artery

D) renal arteries

A

C) internal iliac artery

61
Q

What is done with the edge of the ilium that is brought out through the abdominal wall for stoma creation?

A) The edges are everted and affixed to the skin.

B) A purse-string suture is placed to cinch it shut.

C) It is cut into four sections and tacked to the skin.

D) A Penrose drain is inserted and pulled over the edge.

A

A) The edges are everted and affixed to the skin.

62
Q

Many hospitals allow use of only sterile gloves to set up the back table for cystoscopy procedures.

A) True
B) False

A

A) True

63
Q

Which component of the rigid endoscopic system for cystoscopy is blunt ended and minimizes mucosal trauma during insertion?

A) deflecting mechanism

B) obturator

C) sheath

D) telescoping bridge

A

B) obturator

64
Q

Which irrigation or distention fluid would be contraindicated during cystoscopy for fulguration of bladder tumor?

A) glycine

B) saline

C) sorbitol

D) water

A

B) saline

65
Q

Vesicourethral suspension and pubovaginal slings are performed to mainly treat moderate to severe:

A) vaginal dryness

B) uterine prolapse

C) stress incontinence

D) urinary tract infections

A

C) stress incontinence

66
Q

What device is used through the ureteroscope to capture an intact calculus or fragments if fractured by laser?

A) Babcock forceps

B) basket stone forceps

C) entrapment sack

D) vessel loops

A

B) basket stone forceps

67
Q

The anatomical structures excised during radical cystectomy are different between male and female patients.

A) True
B) False

A

A) True

68
Q

What procedure is performed for penile carcinoma resistant to chemotherapy or radiation?

A) hydrocelectomy

B) orchiectomy

C) penectomy

D) vasectomy

A

C) penectomy

69
Q

Simple nephrectomy is routinely performed in which position?

A) lateral

B) low-lithotomy

C) prone

D) supine

A

A) lateral

70
Q

Into which anatomical area of the abdomen will a transplated donor kidney be implanted?

A) left lower quadrant

B) left upper quadrant

C) right lower quadrant

D) right upper quadrant

A

C) right lower quadrant

71
Q

What is the medical term for the free fold of skin that covers the glans penis?

A) epididymis

B) prepuce

C) scrotum

D) tunica

A

B) prepuce

72
Q

Which of the following is responsible for emptying of the bladder and closure of the bladder orifice?

A) detrusor muscle

B) external sphincter

C) urogenital diaphragm

D) vesical trigone

A

A) detrusor muscle

73
Q

What is the term for an abnormal accumulation of serous fluid around the testis contained within the tunica vaginalis?

A) cystocele

B) hydrocele

C) omphalocele

D) rectocele

A

B) hydrocele

74
Q

Just before the surgeon clamps the renal vessels of the donor’s kidney, what does the anesthesia provider put in the IV?

A) heparin and mannitol

B) protamine sulfate

C) Ringer’s lactate

D) furosemide

A

A) heparin and mannitol

75
Q

Where is the hilum of the kidney located?

A) superior pole

B) inferior pole

C) lateral midsection

D) medial midsection

A

D) medial midsection

76
Q

Which of the following items would likely be needed if the pleural cavity is unintentionally entered during nephrectomy?

A) chest tube with drainage system

B) flexible bronchoscope

C) 1-inch Penrose drain

D) fibrin glue

A

A) chest tube with drainage system

77
Q

Which part of the kidney becomes the proximal ureter?

A) Bowman’s capsule

B) cortex

C) medulla

D) renal pelvis

A

D) renal pelvis

78
Q

Which incisional approach is used for access to the lower ureter and may be used for donor kidney implantation?

A) flank

B) Gibson

C) inguinal

D) scrotal

A

B) Gibson

79
Q

Baumrucker, Iglesias, Stern-McCarthy, and Nesbit are types of:

A) catheters

B) resectoscopes

C) evacuators

D) incisions

A

B) resectoscopes

80
Q

Which of the following are male urethral dilators or sounds?

A) Hanks

B) Pratt

C) Van Buren

D) Walther

A

C) Van Buren

81
Q

Cryptorchidism is more commonly known as:

A) kidney stones

B) nocturnal bedwetting

C) undescended testicles

D) urinary tract infection

A

C) undescended testicles

82
Q

What anatomical structure is the bladder attached to in males?

A) rectum

B) prostate

C) scrotum

D) symphysis pubis

A

B) prostate

83
Q

What does specialized tissue within the seminiferous tubules produce?

A) mucus

B) sperm

C) testosterone

D) urine

A

B) sperm

84
Q

Surgical technologists are not required to be proficient in endoscopic genitourinary procedures, only open cases because there are cystoscopy specialists who will do them.

A) False
B) True

A

A) False

85
Q

What type of light is used for illumination in endoscopic equipment?

A) fiber-optic

B) fluorescent

C) incandescent

D) ultraviolet

A

A) fiber-optic

HGTC Surgical Technology (29 decks)

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