Chapter 24 Neuro Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Wilson, Andrews, and Hall frames are examples of positioning devices used for:

A) anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion

B) craniectomy for craniosynostosis

C) lumbar hemilaminotomy

D) ulnar nerve transposition

A

C) lumbar hemilaminotomy

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2
Q

Which retractor has a proximal hook placed in the wound and a distal hook for attachment of a weight or sandbag using a sterile Kerlix roll for suspension?

A) Cloward

B) Greenburg

C) Love

D) Taylor

A

D) Taylor

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3
Q

What is the name of the set of instruments used for anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion that includes retractors, spreaders, bone dowel cutters, impactors, and others?

A) Cloward

B) Greenburg

C) Mayfield

D) Yasargil

A

A) Cloward

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4
Q

Which part of the vertebra projects most posteriorly and is often palpable through the skin in the convex areas of the spine?

A) body

B) lamina

C) spinous process

D) transverse process

A

C) spinous process

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5
Q

What is the name of the outfolding convolutions of the brain?

A) fissures

B) foramina

C) gyri

D) sulci

A

C) gyri

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6
Q

Which of the following is a result of torn bridging veins between the cerebral cortex and venous sinuses?

A) CSF fistula

B) epidural hematoma

C) subarachnoid hemorrhage

D) subdural hematoma

A

D) subdural hematoma

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7
Q

For which surgical procedure would petroleum gauze nasal packing be used as part of the dressing?

A) burr holes for evacuation of subdural hematoma

B) carpal tunnel release

C) lumbar microdiskectomy

D) transsphenoidal hypophysectomy

A

D) transsphenoidal hypophysectomy

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8
Q

Which anatomical structure is the tough band that encases the intervertebral disc material?

A) annulus fibrosis

B) circle of Willis

C) intervertebral foramina

D) nucleus pulposus

A

A) annulus fibrosis

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9
Q

Which instrument is used to strip and separate the galea and pericranium from the skull before placement of burr holes?

A) #11 scalpel blade

B) #1 Penfield dissector

C) Gigli saw malleable guide

D) Langenbeck periosteal elevator

A

D) Langenbeck periosteal elevator

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10
Q

What is the name of the structure on which the pituitary gland sits?

A) atlas

B) foramen magnum

C) odontoid process

D) sella turcica

A

D) sella turcica

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11
Q

What is another name for the first cervical vertebra (C-1)?

A) atlas

B) axis

C) cauda equine

D) odontoid

A

A) atlas

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12
Q

What is the name of the structure that produces cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

A) cauda equina

B) cavernous sinus

C) choroid plexus

D) corpus callosum

A

C) choroid plexus

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13
Q

Posterior fossa craniectomy is performed for pathology involving the:

A) cerebellum

B) frontal lobe

C) parietal lobe

D) lateral ventricles

A

A) cerebellum

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14
Q

What is the distal-most area of the spinal cord or spinal nerves called?

A) corpus callosum

B) filum terminale

C) nucleus pulposus

D) sella turcica

A

B) filum terminale

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15
Q

Which of the following is used for scalp hemostasis and resembles a Crile or Kelly hemostat except the curve is to the side?

A) Cushing

B) Dandy

C) Leksell

D) Raney

A

B) Dandy

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16
Q

Which of the following neurosurgical retractors has attachments for malleable brain spatulas and retractors?

A) Adson-Beckman

B) Leyla-Yasargil

C) Scoville

D) Taylor

A

B) Leyla-Yasargil

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17
Q

How many pairs of cranial nerves are there?

A) 6

B) 8

C) 10

D) 12

A

D) 12

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18
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome is treated by:

A) incising the transverse carpal ligament to decompress the nerve

B) placing Gelfoam between nerve and ligament for padding

C) removing or reshaping the surrounding carpal bones

D) transposing the median nerve out of the bony tunnel

A

A) incising the transverse carpal ligament to decompress the nerve

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19
Q

Which of the following is the lowest part of the brain stem and contiguous with the spinal cord?

A) hypothalamus

B) medulla oblongata

C) midbrain

D) pons

A

B) medulla oblongata

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20
Q

Where do most intracranial aneurysms occur?

A) arterial bifurcations

B) tunica media

C) venous sinus

D) venous valves

A

A) arterial bifurcations

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21
Q

The visual cortex of the brain is located in which region?

A) frontal

B) occipital

C) parietal

D) temporal

A

B) occipital

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22
Q

Papaverine is used in craniotomy for aneurysm clipping to prevent:

A) clotting

B) hemorrhage

C) infection

D) vasospasm

A

D) vasospasm

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23
Q

Into which anatomical structure or area is the distal catheter most often inserted in a V-P shunt procedure?

A) peritoneal cavity

B) pleural cavity

C) pulmonary vein

D) pyloric sphincter

A

A) peritoneal cavity

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24
Q

How many vertebrae are there in the normal adult spine?

A) 12

B) 23

C) 30

D) 33

A

D) 33

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25
Q

What is the term for a deep groove in the cerebrum that separates the brain into lobes?

A) gyrus

B) fissure

C) sinus

D) sulcus

A

B) fissure

26
Q

The instrument called a Kerrison is a(n):

A) clamp

B) rongeur

C) elevator

D) retractor

A

B) rongeur

27
Q

Craniosynostosis is a congenital defect involving:

A) blocked ventricular passages

B) failure of neural tube closure

C) pituitary hormone imbalances

D) premature cranial suture closure

A

D) premature cranial suture closure

28
Q

Which of the following bilateral paired nerves are the largest in the body and innervate the buttocks and lower extremities?

A) peroneal

B) sciatic

C) trigeminal

D) vagus

A

B) sciatic

29
Q

Which of the following are countable surgical sponges used in neurosurgical procedures to protect delicate tissues?

A) compressed Gelfoam

B) Cottonoid patties

C) Kittner dissectors

D) Weck-Cel spears

A

B) Cottonoid patties

30
Q

Which of the following is a primary benign tumor that arises from the protective coverings of the brain?

A) astrocytoma

B) ependymoma

C) glioma

D) meningioma

A

D) meningioma

31
Q

What is the largest part of the human brain?

A) brain stem

B) cerebellum

C) cerebrum

D) diencephalon

A

C) cerebrum

32
Q

Which portion of the normal spinal column has five (5) vertebrae?

A) cervical

B) thoracic

C) lumbar

D) coccygeal

A

C) lumbar

33
Q

All of the following are examples of congenital anomalies EXCEPT:

A) arteriovenous malformation

B) craniosynostosis

C) herniated nucleus pulposus

D) intracranial aneurysm

A

C) herniated nucleus pulposus

34
Q

Which surgical procedure treats compression of the median nerve by a transverse ligament?

A) anterior cervical diskectomy

B) carpal tunnel release

C) lumbar laminectomy

D) rhizotomy

A

B) carpal tunnel release

35
Q

Which portion of the spinal column consists of five fused vertebrae in the average adult?

A) cervical

B) thoracic

C) lumbar

D) sacrum

A

D) sacrum

36
Q

What is the name of the measuring device used to assess intraventricular pressure?

A) capnometer

B) manometer

C) oximeter

D) tonometer

A

B) manometer

37
Q

What is the name of the dural fold that separates the cerebrum from the cerebellum and may be used to delineate surgical approach in reference to it?

A) corpus callosum

B) falx cerebri

C) falx cerebella

D) tentorium

A

D) tentorium

38
Q

Which instrument is used to extract pieces of the nucleus pulposus in a diskectomy?

A) Kerrison rongeur

B) nerve root retractor

C) Penfield dissector

D) pituitary rongeur

A

D) pituitary rongeur

39
Q

Penfield #1 through #5 are:

A) aneurysm clips

B) dissectors

C) drill bits

D) scalp clips

A

B) dissectors

40
Q

Which of the following layered structures has the closest and most intimate contact with the brain?

A) arachnoid

B) dura

C) galea

D) pia

A

D) pia

41
Q

When incising the cranium between burr holes, what attachment to the powered craniotome is necessary to prevent injury of underlying tissues?

A) #3 Penfield dissector

B) dural guard with footplate

C) smoke evacuator

D) wire-pass drill bit

A

B) dural guard with footplate

42
Q

What is the anatomical area where cerebrospinal fluid circulates over all parts of the central nervous system?

A) circle of Willis

B) epidural space

C) pericranium

D) subarachnoid space

A

D) subarachnoid space

43
Q

Which position is usually used for microdecompression endoscopic diskectomy?

A) lateral

B) lithotomy

C) prone

D) supine

A

A) lateral

44
Q

Osteophytes are:

A) bony spurs

B) hardened discs

C) liament attachment points

D) malignant spinal tumors

A

A) bony spurs

45
Q

What is the name of the dural fold that separates the right and left hemispheres of the cerebrum?

A) corpus callosum

B) choroid plexus

C) falx cerebri

D) falx cerebelli

A

C) falx cerebri

46
Q

Which of the following is a radiographic diagnostic procedure performed for suspected aneurysm near the circle of Willis?

A) cerebral angiogram

B) electroencephalogram

C) lumbar myelography

D) pneumoencephalography

A

A) cerebral angiogram

47
Q

Which diagnostic study demonstrates a herniated disc causing spinal compression and radiographic filling defect?

A) angiography

B) electromyogram

C) myelogram

D) cross-table x-ray

A

C) myelogram

48
Q

Which facial sinus is used for surgical approach to a pituitary adenoma rather than traditional craniotomy?

A) ethmoid

B) frontal

C) maxillary

D) sphenoid

A

D) sphenoid

49
Q

Which of the following results most often from skull trauma over the middle meningeal artery with symptoms progressing to brain-stem herniation if not treated?

A) arteriovenous malformation

B) intracranial aneurysm

C) epidural hematoma

D) subdural hematoma

A

C) epidural hematoma

50
Q

In which procedure are the esophagus, carotid artery, and trachea retracted medially for access to the area of pathology?

A) anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion

B) fronto-temporal craniotomy for aneurysm

C) placement of ventriculo-atrial shunt

D) rhizotomy for intractable trigeminal neuralgia

A

A) anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion

51
Q

What part of the body is prepped for ulnar nerve decompression or transposition?

A) anterior neck

B) lower extremity

C) posterior back

D) upper extremity

A

D) upper extremity

52
Q

Monro, Sylvius, Magendie, and Luschka are:

A) aqueducts and foramina

B) cranial nerves

C) cranial base fossae

D) neural plexuses

A

A) aqueducts and foramina

53
Q

Fiducials placed on bony landmarks are used in which type of neurosurgical procedure?

A) transsphenoidal hypophysectomy

B) insertion of ventriculo-peritoneal shunt

C) stereotactic guided-imagery biopsy

D) selective facet rhizotomy

A

C) stereotactic guided-imagery biopsy

54
Q

Which approach is MOST desirable for treatment of herniated cervical disc with subsequent intervertebral fusion?

A) anterior midline

B) anterior medial

C) posterior midline

D) posterior medial

A

B) anterior medial

55
Q

The circle of Willis is a:

A) network of connected arteries at the base of the brain

B) structure of supporting connective tissue for the brain

C) complex neural network that connects the two hemispheres of the brain

D) series of channels and foramina within the cerebrospinal fluid network of the brain

A

A) network of connected arteries at the base of the brain

56
Q

Which instrument could be used for burr-hole cranial perforation if no powered equipment is available?

A) Cloward bit

B) Gigli saw

C) Hudson brace

D) Penfield dissector

A

C) Hudson brace

57
Q

What is the name of the group of spinal nerves that continue from the distal spinal cord at about L-2 in the average adult?

A) cauda equina

B) corpus callosum

C) filum terminale

D) foramen magnum

A

A) cauda equina

58
Q

Which anatomical structure is the soft, gelatinous part of the intervertebral disc, which is sent as specimen after diskectomy?

A) annulus fibrosis

B) intervertebral foramina

C) nucleus pulposus

D) posterior longitudinal ligament

A

C) nucleus pulposus

59
Q

What is the name of the horseshoe or pin fixation device for neurosurgical cranial positioning?

A) Dandy

B) Layla

C) Mayfield

D) Penfield

A

C) Mayfield

60
Q

From which area is an autologous bone graft usually procured for anterior cervical fusion procedures?

A) fibula

B) cervical spinous process

C) iliac crest

D) lumbar spinous process

A

C) iliac crest