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HGTC Surgical Technology > CRQ Anatomy 3 > Flashcards

CRQ Anatomy 3 Flashcards

1
Q

The descending aorta terminates at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra,dividing into

A) two saphenous arteries

B) two femoral arteries

C) internal and external iliac arteries

D) two common iliac arteries

A

D) two common iliac arteries

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2
Q

The contractions of the heart are synchronized and regulated by the pacemaker of the heart, called the

A) sinoatrial node

B) atrioventricular node

C) atrioventricular bundle

D) Purkinje fibers

A

A) sinoatrial node

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3
Q

Tiny blood vessels that permeate and nourish tissue are called

A) veins

B) venules

C) areterioles

D) capillaries

A

D) capillaries

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4
Q

The wall or partition dividing the heart into right and left sides is called the

A) semilunar valve

B) mitral valve

C) chordae tendineae

D) septum

A

D) septum

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5
Q

The heart valve that closes at the time the right ventricle begins pumping, preventing blood from returning to the right atrium, is the

A) aortic semilunar

B) pulmonary semilunar

C) bicuspid

D) tricuspid

A

D) tricuspid

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6
Q

The inner lining of the heart, composed of smooth, delicate membrane, is called the

A) pericardium

B) endocardium

C) epicardium

D) myocardium

A

B) endocardium

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7
Q

The spleen is located

A) in the left hypochondriac region

B) behind the liver

C) behind the left kidney

D) behind the right kidney

A

A) in the left hypochondriac region

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8
Q

All of the following are parts of the lymphatic system EXCEPT the

A) thyroid

B) tonsils

C) spleen

D) thymus

A

A) thyroid

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9
Q

The s-shaped bend in the lower colon is called the

A) hepatic flexure

B) splenic flexure

C) rectum

D) sigmoid

A

D) sigmoid

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10
Q

The reabsorption of water and electrolytes is the main function of the

A) sigmoid colon

B) large intestine

C) small intestine

D) sigmoid

A

B) large intestine

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11
Q

The terminal portion of the large intestines is the

A) sigmoid

B) rectum

C) anus

D) anal canal

A

D) anal canal

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12
Q

Which structure lies retroperitoneally?

A) sigmoid colon

B) spleen

C) liver

D) kidney

A

D) kidney

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13
Q

The first portion of the large intestine is the

A) sigmoid

B) cecum

C) colon

D) ileum

A

B) cecum

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14
Q

The appendix is attached to the

A) ascending colon

B) transverse colon

C) cecum

D) descending colon

A

C) cecum

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15
Q

The primiary function of the gallbladder is

A) storage of bile

B) production of bile

C) degestion of fats

D) drainage of the liver

A

A) storage of bile

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16
Q

When the gallbladder contracts, bile is ejected into the

A) liver

B) duodenum

C) jejunum

D) pancreas

A

B) duodenum

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17
Q

The area in the duodenum where the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct empty is called

A) the duct of Santorini

B) the ampulla of Vater

C) Wirsung’s duct

D) the islet of Langerhans

A

B) the ampulla of Vater

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18
Q

Which structure is also known as the “fatty apron”?

A) greater omentum

B) lesser omentum

C) mesentery

D) falciform ligament

A

A) greater omentum

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19
Q

The common bile duct is the union of the

A) cystic duct and cystic artery

B) cystic duct and hepatic duct

C) cystic artery and hepatic duct

D) hepatic vein and cystic duct

A

B) cystic duct and hepatic duct

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20
Q

The yellow tinge in the skin symptomatic of obstructive juandice is caused by the accumulation of what substance in the blood and tissue?

A) cholesterol

B) bile salts

C) enzymes

D) bilirubin

A

D) bilirubin

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21
Q

The head of the pancreas is located

A) in the curve of the duodenum

B) by the spleen

C) on the undersurface of the liver

D) in the curve of the descending colon

A

A) in the curve of the duodenum

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22
Q

The sphincter at the junction of the small and large intestines is the

A) sphincter of Oddi

B) ileocecal sphincter

C) pyloric sphincter

D) duodenal sphincter

A

B) ileocecal sphincter

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23
Q

The portion of the small intestines that receives secretions from the pancreas and the liver is the

A) ileum

B) jejunum

C) duodenum

D) pylorus

A

C) duodenum

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24
Q

The region of the stomach that connects to the duodenum is the

A) fundus

B) body

C) pylorus

D) cardia

A

C) pylorus

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25
Q

The mesentery is

A) a double-layered peritoneal structure shaped like a fan

B) a word synonymous with “fatty apron”

C) the membrane covering the surface of most abdominal organs

D) a structure that supports the sigmoid colon

A

A) a double-layered peritoneal structure shaped like a fan

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26
Q

The large central portion of the stomach is called the

A) pyloris

B) body

C) fundus

D) cardia

A

B) body

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27
Q

The muscle serving as a valve to prevent regurgitation of food from the intestine back into the stomach is known as the

A) sphincter of Oddi

B) ileocecal sphincter

C) cardiac sphincter

D) pyloric sphincter

A

D) pyloric sphincter

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28
Q

The digestive passageway that begins at the pharynx and terminates in the stomach is the

A) larynx

B) trachea

C) windpipe

D) esophagus

A

D) esophagus

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29
Q

The point at which the esophagus penetrates the diaphragm is called the

A) hiatus

B) meatus

C) sphincter

D) fundus

A

A) hiatus

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30
Q

Adenoids are also called

A) palatine tonsils

B) pharyngeal tonsils

C) lingual tonsils

D) uvula

A

B) pharyngeal tonsils

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31
Q

The function of the molar teeth is to

A) tear and crush food

B) crush and grind food

C) cut food

D) manipulate food

A

B) crush and grind food

32
Q

Mumps occur in the

A) sublingual glands

B) submandibular glands

C) parotid glands

D) thyroid glands

A

C) parotid glands

33
Q

The salivary glands located under the tongue are the

A) subungual

B) sublingual

C) submaxillary

D) parotid

A

B) sublingual

34
Q

The liver has

A) two lobes

B) three lobes

C) four lobes

D) five lobes

A

A) two lobes

35
Q

The glomerulus is a

A) tiny coiled tube

B) tubelike extension into the renal pelvis

C) double-walled cup

D) cluster of capillaries

A

D) cluster of capillaries

36
Q

The tubes or cuplike extensions that project from the renal pelvis are called

A) glomeruli

B) convoluted tubules

C) Bowman’s capsules

D) calyces

A

D) calyces

37
Q

Urine is transported along the ureters to the bladder by

A) gravity flow

B) contraction of the renal pelvis

C) peristaltic waves

D) muscle relaxation

A

C) peristaltic waves

38
Q

The smooth, triangular area at the bottom of the bladder that contains three openings is called the

A) internal sphincter

B) urinary meatus

C) trigone

D) external os

A

C) trigone

39
Q

The kidneys are positioned

A) intraperitoneally

B) retroperitoneally

C) in front of the parietal peritoneum

D) in back of the visceral peritoneum

A

B) retroperitoneally

40
Q

The kidney structure that filters blood, returns useful substances to blood, and removes substances from blood that are not needed is the

A) nephron

B) glomerulus

C) medulla

D) cortex

A

A) nephron

41
Q

Blood is supplied to the kidney by means of the renal artery, which arises from the

A) thoracic aorta

B) aortic arch

C) abdominal aorta

D) pulmonary artery

A

C) abdominal aorta

42
Q

The indentation in the kidney through which all structures must pass as they enter or leave the kidney is the

A) hilus

B) renal pelvis

C) renal capsule

D) cortex

A

A) hilus

43
Q

The outer layer of the kidney is known as the

A) medulla

B) glomerulus

C) nephron

D) cortex

A

D) cortex

44
Q

The portion of the male urethra that passes through the pelvic floor is called the

A) prostatic portion

B) cavernous portion

C) membranous portion

D) penile portion

A

C) membranous portion

45
Q

The lack of voluntary control over micturition is called

A) retention

B) urination

C) incontinence

D) suppression

A

C) incontinence

46
Q

Urine empties from the bladder through a tube called the

A) urethra

B) urinary meatus

C) urethral meatus

D) external urethral sphincter

A

A) urethra

47
Q

Fertilization occurs in the

A) fallopian tubes

B) uterus

C) ovary

D) gonads

A

A) fallopian tubes

48
Q

The perineum is

A) a thin tissue stretching across the vagina

B) the region anterior to the clitoris

C) the lower portion of the uterus

D) the area between the vagina and the anus

A

D) the area between the vagina and the anus

49
Q

The small, sensitive structure of the female homologous to the male penis is the

A) hymen

B) clitoris

C) perineum

D) vestibule

A

B) clitoris

50
Q

Ova are swept into the fallopian tubes by small, fringelike extensions on the distal ends of the tubes called

A) ostium

B) fimbriae

C) oviducts

D) stroma

A

B) fimbriae

51
Q

The inner lining of the uterus is called the

A) endometrium

B) serosa

C) myometrium

D) oocyte

A

A) endometrium

52
Q

The ligament that attaches the ovaries to the pelvic wall is the

A) mesovarian

B) ovarian

C) suspensory

D) broad

A

C) suspensory

53
Q

The supporting structure of the male reproductive system is the

A) inguinal canal

B) cresmaster muscle

C) vas deferens

D) spermatic cord

A

D) spermatic cord

54
Q

The loose skin covering the glans penis like a sheath is called the

A) crura

B) prepuce

C) bulb

D) tunica albuginea

A

B) prepuce

55
Q

The distal end of the penis is slightly enlarged and is called the

A) glans penis

B) prepuce

C) foreskin

D) corpora cavernosa penis

A

A) glans penis

56
Q

In a male, the structure surrounding the entrance to the urethra just below the urinary bladder is

A) Cowper’s gland

B) the prostate gland

C) the bulbourethral gland

D) the seminal vesicle

A

B) the prostate gland

57
Q

Which structure is not a portion of the male urethra?

A) membranous

B) prostatic

C) vas

D) penile

A

C) vas

58
Q

This structure stores sperm and propels them toward the urethra during ejaculation

A) vas deferens

B) ejaculatory duct

C) spermatic cord

D) epididymis

A

A) vas deferens

59
Q

The long, coiled tube in which sperm mature is the

A) vas deferens

B) epididymis

C) ejaculatory duct

D) seminal vesicle

A

B) epididymis

60
Q

Passage of fluid through a cell membrane is called

A) metosis

B) miosis

C) osmosis

D) symbiosis

A

C) osmosis

61
Q

What immune protection is available to the fetus?

A) natural active

B) natural passive

C) active artificial

D) passive artificial

A

B) natural passive

62
Q

Inflammatory exudate that is thick and yellow is termed

A) suppurative

B) fibrinous

C) serous

D) mucous

A

A) suppurative

63
Q

All of the following descriptions refer to the inflammatory process EXCEPT

A) heat

B) pain

C) vasoconstriction

D) edema

A

C) vasoconstriction

64
Q

A severe allergic reaction possibly resulting in death is called

A) arthus reaction

B) hypersensibility

C) anaphylactic shock

D) autoimmune disease

A

C) anaphylactic shock

65
Q

The burn classification that is characterized by a dry, pearly white, or charred-appearing surface is

A) first

B) second

C) third

D) fourth

A

C) third

66
Q

OSHA is a governmental regulating agency whose aim is to

A) provide guidelines to prevent transmission of blood-borne infections

B) execute requirements designed to prevent transmission of blood-borne pathogens in the work environment

C) require that communicable diseases be reported to a public health agency

D) train employees how to recognize and execute safe practices

A

B) execute requirements designed to prevent transmission of blood-borne pathogens in the work environment

67
Q

Inflammation is characterized by pain, redness, heat, swelling, and loss of function. The redness can be attributed to

A) serum brought into the area

B) constriction of capillaries

C) vasodilation bringing more blood to the area

D) heat from metabolic reaction

A

C) vasodilation bringing more blood to the area

68
Q

Removal of contaminated debris from a wound is called

A) decontamination

B) debridement

C) dehiscence

D) desiccation

A

B) debridement

69
Q

The space caused by separation of wound edges is called

A) lag phase

B) evisceration

C) fibrous scarring

D) dead space

A

D) dead space

70
Q

If tissue is approximated too tightly it can cause

A) ischemia

B) excessive scar tissue

C) keloids

D) adhesions

A

A) ischemia

71
Q

Tensile strength of a wound refers to

A) the suture strength

B) ability of tissue to resist rupture

C) wound contraction

D) tissue approximation

A

B) ability of tissue to resist rupture

72
Q

The substance that unites with thrombin to form fibrin, the basic structural material of blood clots is

A) fibrinogen

B) prothrombin

C) fibrin

D) thrombin

A

A) fibrinogen

73
Q

A cicatrix is

A) an abscess

B) a scar

C) pus

D) a wound

A

B) a scar

74
Q

Keloids are

A) a form of abscess

B) a adhered serous membrane

C) a raised, thickened scar

D) a benign tumor

A

C) a raised, thickened scar

75
Q

A wound that is infected or one in which there is excessive loss of tissue heals by

A) primary intention

B) secondary intention

C) third intention

D) fourth intention

A

B) secondary intention

76
Q

A CDC guideline that addresses the care of “sharps” includes all of the following Except

A) needles should always be recapped

B) needles should not be bent or broken by hand

C) needles should not be removed from disposable syringes

D) needles should be discarded in puncture-resistant containers for disposal

A

A) needles should always be recapped

HGTC Surgical Technology (29 decks)

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