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HGTC Surgical Technology > Chapter 21 Ortho > Flashcards

Chapter 21 Ortho Flashcards

1
Q

A common system of instrumentation for open reduction of hip fractures is DHS, which stands for:

A) dislocated hip surgery

B) definitive hip support

C) dynamic hip screw

D) derotational hip stabilizer

A

C) dynamic hip screw

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2
Q

Which type of cast is applied often to children and immobilizes unilateral or bilateral hips and femurs?

A) spica

B) cylinder

C) long leg

D) short leg

A

A) spica

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3
Q

In which stage of normal bone healing is there bridging of the fracture site, and cartilage and immature bone provide support?

A) inflammation

B) cellular proliferation

C) callus formation

D) remodeling

A

C) callus formation

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4
Q

Patellar tendon, iliotibial band, and semitendinosus tendon are examples of:

A) autografts for ACL repair

B) connections for hip movement

C) insertion sites for arthroscopic instrumentation

D) radiographic landmarks for knee x-ray studies

A

A) autografts for ACL repair

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5
Q

Which bone is the largest found in the foot and is commonly called the heel?

A) acetabulum

B) calcaneus

C) patella

D) talus

A

B) calcaneus

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6
Q

Which of the following would be increased on a serum analysis and indicative of a malignant neoplasm of bone marrow?

A) Bence Jones protein

B) human leukocyte antigen

C) serum phosphorus

D) serum urate

A

A) Bence Jones protein

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7
Q

Which type of suture would be contraindicated for attaching tendon to bone?

A) nylon (Nurolon)

B) polyglactin 910 (Vicryl)

C) polyester (Ethibond)

D) stainless steel

A

B) polyglactin 910 (Vicryl)

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8
Q

Patients diagnosed with shoulder impingement syndrome would likely undergo:

A) acromioplasty

B) external fixation

C) open reduction, internal fixation

D) total shoulder arthroplasty

A

A) acromioplasty

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9
Q

Which additional PPE is frequently worn by sterile team members during total joint procedures to prevent possible SSI?

A) impervious apron under gown

B) additional sterile sleeves

C) space suit or body exhaust suits

D) high-efficiency particulate air masks

A

C) space suit or body exhaust suits

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10
Q

Surgeons may call both Bennett and Hohmann retractors by which other name because of their shapes?

A) alligator

B) cobra

C) duck bill

D) rat tooth

A

B) cobra

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11
Q

Which positioning device will be used for ORIF of intertrochanteric femoral fracture?

A) Andrews table

B) fracture table

C) vacuum beanbag

D) Wilson frame

A

B) fracture table

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12
Q

Which of the following demonstrates the correct order of steps for femoral canal preparation during total hip arthroplasty?

A) reamer, rasp, pulse lavage, implant trial

B) rasp, implant trial, pulse lavage, reamer

C) pulse lavage, reamer, implant trial, rasp

D) implant trial, rasp, reamer, pulse lavage

A

A) reamer, rasp, pulse lavage, implant trial

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13
Q

Which mineral is stored in the bones and constantly being removed to maintain necessary blood levels?

A) calcium

B) iron

C) magnesium

D) zinc

A

A) calcium

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14
Q

Chondroma, giant cell, and osteoma are:

A) benign neoplasms

B) congenital deformities

C) malignant neoplasms

D) structural osteocyte components

A

A) benign neoplasms

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15
Q

Which of the following is an acute, emergent condition of compression of neural and vascular structures, usually occurring in the upper and lower extremities following traumatic fractures?

A) avascular necrosis

B) compartmental syndrome

C) delayed union

D) malunion

A

B) compartmental syndrome

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16
Q

The proximal end of the radius and C1 on C2 vertebrae are examples of which type of diarthrosis?

A) gliding

B) hinge

C) pivot

D) saddle

A

C) pivot

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17
Q

Hallus valgus is a condition in which there is a turning outward from the midline found in the:

A) great toe

B) wrist

C) foot

D) hip

A

A) great toe

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18
Q

Total knee arthroplasty implant are categorized in all of the following EXCEPT:

A) unicompartmental

B) bicompartmental

C) tricompartmental

D) quadricompartmental

A

D) quadricompartmental

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19
Q

Where is the area of active bone growth?

A) cortex

B) diaphysis

C) epiphyseal plate

D) medullary canal

A

C) epiphyseal plate

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20
Q

What is the term for small, loose bodies in the knee that are constant irritants and may cause excess synovial production, pain, and locking up?

A) ganglion cysts

B) genu valgum

C) joint mice

D) bunions

A

C) joint mice

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21
Q

Which orthopedic instrument has the appearance of a turkey foot or eagle’s talon?

A) beaver knife handle

B) Bennett retractor

C) Lowman bone holder

D) Lambotte osteotome

A

C) Lowman bone holder

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22
Q

The acromion process involved in the acromioclavicular joint is part of which of the following bones?

A) clavicle

B) humerus

C) scapula

D) sternum

A

C) scapula

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23
Q

In which joint would a bucket handle tear be found?

A) ankle

B) hip

C) knee

D) wrist

A

C) knee

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24
Q

Carpal and tarsal bones are classified as which type of bone?

A) flat

B) irregular

C) long

D) short

A

D) short

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25
Q

Which instrument is used to remove marrow from the canal of long bones for placement of prostheses?

A) Brun curette

B) Gigli saw

C) intramedullary reamer

D) suction brush attachment

A

C) intramedullary reamer

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26
Q

All of the following are examples of devices used to anchor both ends of the ACL graft EXCEPT:

A) bone screws with spiked washers

B) bioabsorbable screws

C) Steinman pins

D) staples

A

C) Steinman pins

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27
Q

What is the term for the softening of bone in children that is commonly called rickets?

A) osteoarthritis

B) osteochondrosis

C) osteomalacia

D) osteomyelitis

A

C) osteomalacia

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28
Q

Care must be taken during skin prepping for gangrenous lower extremities prior to amputation to prevent inadvertent dislodging of toes.

A) True
B) False

A

A) True

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29
Q

What is the name of a nonpathological small sac that contains synovial fluid?

A) bursa

B) canaliculi

C) ganglion

D) osteocytes

A

A) bursa

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30
Q

Which portion of the femur articulates with the acetabulum?

A) head

B) neck

C) greater trochanter

D) lesser trochanter

A

A) head

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31
Q

Which condition is commonly known as “bowlegged”?

A) coxa valga

B) genu varum

C) hallus valgus

D) tallipes varus

A

B) genu varum

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32
Q

What is the MOST common cause of bone fractures?

A) poor nutrition

B) osteoporosis

C) osteosarcoma

D) trauma

A

D) trauma

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33
Q

Aken, Chevron, McKeever, Keller, and McBride are techniques for which lower extremity procedure?

A) above knee amputation (AKA)

B) below knee amputation (BKA)

C) bunionectomy

D) triple arthrodesis

A

C) bunionectomy

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34
Q

Which of the following factors related to bone growth and maintenance is responsible for mineral storage and utilization?

A) exercise

B) heredity

C) hormonal

D) nutrition

A

C) hormonal

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35
Q

What is a serious bone infection that may result from a compound fracture and become chronic later?

A) osteoarthritis

B) osteoclasts

C) osteomyelitis

D) osteophytes

A

C) osteomyelitis

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36
Q

The term C-arm refers to a(n):

A) casting technique

B) extremity deformity

C) fluoroscopic machine

D) OR table positioning device

A

C) fluoroscopic machine

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37
Q

In which anatomical structure is the patella contained?

A) anterior cruciate ligament

B) patellar tendon

C) posterior cruciate ligament

D) quadriceps tendon

A

D) quadriceps tendon

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38
Q

Surgical repair for recurrent anterior shoulder dislocation include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Bankart

B) Bristow

C) Colles’

D) Putti-Platt

A

C) Colles’

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39
Q

The infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis, and supraspinatus muscles collectively comprise the:

A) pelvic girdle

B) rotator cuff

C) sternal notch

D) thoracic cage

A

B) rotator cuff

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40
Q

All of the following are indications for total shoulder arthroplasty EXCEPT:

A) chronic arthritis pain

B) humeral shaft fracture

C) osteonecrosis of humeral head

D) moderate impingement syndrome

A

D) moderate impingement syndrome

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41
Q

What should the surgical technologist have ready to clean bone or tissue from a rongeur?

A) antibiotic irrigation

B) Freer elevator

C) lap sponges

D) pulse lavage

A

C) lap sponges

42
Q

What is a common surgical approach for Colles’ fracture?

A) arthroscopy

B) carpal tunnel release

C) external fixation

D) open reduction internal fixation

A

C) external fixation

43
Q

What is polymethyl methycrylate used for in orthopedic procedures?

A) antibiotic irrigation

B) bone cement

C) cast immobilization

D) external fixation

A

B) bone cement

44
Q

How many stages are involved in normal osteogenesis?

A) two

B) three

C) five

D) eight

A

C) five

45
Q

Which of the following pathologies is related to a specific autoimmune process that attacks the joints in the body?

A) arthralgia

B) derangement

C) osteoarthritis

D) rheumatoid arthritis

A

D) rheumatoid arthritis

46
Q

Which tendon is the thickest and strongest in the body?

A) Achilles

B) tibialis anterior

C) extensor hallucis longus

D) extensor digitorum longus

A

A) Achilles

47
Q

All of the following are examples of equipment used postoperatively on the patient for pain reduction or stimulation of healing factors EXCEPT:

A) body exhaust suit

B) CPM machine

C) electric stimulator

D) TNS unit

A

A) body exhaust suit

48
Q

Which instrument is used frequently in arthroscopies to examine and manipulate internal structures?

A) blunt probe

B) powered shaver

C) spinal needle

D) trocar cannula

A

A) blunt probe

49
Q

Which of the following is NOT a bone of the pelvis?

A) ilium

B) pubis

C) femur

D) ischium

A

C) femur

50
Q

What is the medical term for spongy bone?

A) cancellous

B) cortical

C) cranial

D) cuboid

A

A) cancellous

51
Q

Liston knife, Gigli saw, and Satterlee saw are examples of instruments used for which type of procedure?

A) ACL repair

B) amputation

C) arthroplasty

D) arthroscopy

A

B) amputation

52
Q

What is the purpose of the medial and lateral menisci of the knee?

A) cushioning

B) lubrication

C) nutrition

D) stability

A

A) cushioning

53
Q

Which type of fracture is characterized as partial and may result from activities such as jumping or jogging?

A) avulsion

B) comminuted

C) greenstick

D) oblique

A

C) greenstick

54
Q

Which joint is an example of a ball-and-socket joint?

A) atlantoaxial

B) femoroacetabular

C) patellofemoral

D) temporomandibular

A

B) femoroacetabular

55
Q

In adults, red bone marrow that produces red blood cells is mainly found in which type(s) of bone?

A) flat and irregular

B) long and short

C) sesamoid only

D) irregular only

A

A) flat and irregular

56
Q

Which ligament of the knee keeps the femur from sliding posteriorly on the tibia and prevents hyperextension of the knee?

A) anterior cruciate

B) posterior cruciate

C) medial collateral

D) lateral collateral

A

A) anterior cruciate

57
Q

Patients in which age group are MOST commonly candidates for total hip arthroplasty?

A) neonates

B) school-aged

C) ages 30 to 50

D) over 65 years

A

D) over 65 years

58
Q

Implantable devices made of different alloys can cause breakdown of the device and may cause wound infection.

A) True
B) False

A

A) True

59
Q

What is the outside covering of bones that provides some nourishment and protection from infection?

A) articular cartilage

B) enosteum

C) periosteum

D) synovial membrane

A

C) periosteum

60
Q

Which joint is an example of a condyloid joint?

A) acromioclavicular

B) femoroacetabular

C) patellofemoral

D) temporomandibular

A

D) temporomandibular

61
Q

Which of the following is a long bone that is the largest in the human body?

A) cranium

B) femur

C) ilium

D) scapula

A

B) femur

62
Q

Cannulated screws and nails are designed to follow the path created by a:

A) depth gauge

B) guide pin

C) pilot drill

D) reamer

A

B) guide pin

63
Q

What tissue does the acetabular reamer remove?

A) cartilage

B) fascia

C) marrow

D) periosteum

A

A) cartilage

64
Q

What should the surgical technologist do while the surgeon is using the oscillating saw during open acromioplasty?

A) Blot any bleeding bone surfaces carefully with sponge stick.

B) Collect bone chips in wound carefully with cupped tissue forceps.

C) Drip small amounts of irrigation onto blade to prevent overheating.

D) Suction smoke from operative site created by heated tissues.

A

C) Drip small amounts of irrigation onto blade to prevent overheating.

65
Q

Which of the following is the hard, dense bone that surrounds the marrow cavity?

A) cancellous

B) cortical

C) cranial

D) cuboid

A

B) cortical

66
Q

Whose instructions for cleaning, lubricating, and sterilizing powered orthopedic instrumentation must be followed?

A) AAMI

B) facility policies

C) manufacturer

D) OSHA

A

C) manufacturer

67
Q

The action of pointing and putting a toe in the water to check the temperature would be an example of which movement?

A) circumduction

B) eversion

C) plantar flexion

D) supination

A

C) plantar flexion

68
Q

Amputated limbs may be placed in which of the following for transport to pathology?

A) C-arm cover

B) cassette cover

C) impervious stockinette

D) Mayo stand cover

A

D) Mayo stand cover

69
Q

Which of the following is the longest bone in the upper extremity?

A) femur

B) humerus

C) radius

D) ulna

A

B) humerus

70
Q

The elbow is categorized as which type of joint?

A) amphiarthrosis

B) coxarthrosis

C) diarthrosis

D) synarthrosis

A

C) diarthrosis

71
Q

Which of the following is a commonly used self-retaining retractor used in total hip arthroplasty procedures?

A) Adson-Beckman

B) Charnley

C) Gelpi

D) Weitlaner

A

B) Charnley

72
Q

What is achieved by wrapping an extremity with an Esmarch bandage prior to inflation of pneumatic tourniquet?

A) anesthesia

B) antisepsis

C) extension

D) exsanguinations

A

D) exsanguinations

73
Q

What is the name of the deep, round fossa of the hip joint?

A) acromium

B) acetabulum

C) tuberosity

D) trochanter

A

B) acetabulum

74
Q

A Bankart avulsion lesion involves which anatomical structure(s)?

A) labrum (cartilage)

B) rotator cuff (muscles)

C) bicipital groove (tendon)

D) acromioclavicular (bone spur)

A

A) labrum (cartilage)

75
Q

Double gloving should be done as a routine in orthopedic cases due to exposure to various sharp instruments and potentially jagged bones.

A) True
B) False

A

A) True

76
Q

What type of bone is the patella?

A) flat

B) irregular

C) long

D) sesamoid

A

D) sesamoid

77
Q

Which hormone stimulates osteoclasts to break down bone and increase reabsorption of calcium when serum levels are low?

A) estrogen

B) follicle stimulating

C) human growth

D) parathyroid

A

D) parathyroid

78
Q

There are limited choices of total joint systems available, making standardization routine and uncomplicated.

A) False
B) True

A

A) False

79
Q

Which medical term means moving a body part away from the midline?

A) flexion

B) abduction

C) adduction

D) supination

A

B) abduction

80
Q

Arthroscopic procedures require only one small incision through which all the instruments are passed.

A) False
B) True

A

A) False

81
Q

Which bone is involved in a Colles’ fracture?

A) ulna

B) radius

C) scapula

D) humerus

A

B) radius

82
Q

Which piece of equipment is NOT attached to the arthroscope?

A) camera head

B) inflow and outflow tubing

C) light cord

D) powered shaver

A

D) powered shaver

83
Q

What is the name of a small protuberance of a bone that is an attachment point for muscles or tendons?

A) condyle

B) groove

C) fossa

D) tubercle

A

D) tubercle

84
Q

Which bone is commonly referred to as the collarbone?

A) clavicle

B) humerus

C) scapula

D) sternum

A

A) clavicle

85
Q

The connections between the large bones of the skull are categorized as which type of joint?

A) amphiarthrosis

B) coxarthrosis

C) diarthrosis

D) synarthrosis

A

D) synarthrosis

86
Q

Which device is sometimes used for achieving and maintaining the lateral position?

A) Andrews table

B) beach chair positioner

C) vacuum beanbag

D) Wilson frame

A

C) vacuum beanbag

87
Q

Which agency requires the documentation and tracking of implantable orthopedic devices?

A) AAMI

B) CDC

C) EPA

D) FDA

A

D) FDA

88
Q

Which method of reducing a fracture carries the highest potential for surgical site infection?

A) percutaneous pinning of simple fracture

B) external fixator application for Colles’ fracture

C) closed with cast application for greenstick fracture

D) open reduction, internal fixation for compound comminuted fracture

A

D) open reduction, internal fixation for compound comminuted fracture

89
Q

Which component of an arthroscopy system is specific to orthopedics and differs from most laparoscopy/MIS systems?

A) camera unit

B) video monitor/screen

C) fiber-optic light source

D) powered shaving system

A

D) powered shaving system

90
Q

Which of the following joints has the greatest range of motion?

A) acromioclavicular

B) coracoclavicular

C) glenohumeral

D) sternoclavicular

A

C) glenohumeral

91
Q

Rush, Ender, Russell-Taylor, Trigen, and Kuntscher are examples of flexible, standard, or titanium femoral:

A) rods

B) nails

C) plates

D) screws

A

B) nails

92
Q

Which positioning device is frequently used for femoral nailing with leg traction and allows for placement of the C-arm?

A) Andrews table

B) fracture table

C) vacuum beanbag

D) Wilson frame

A

B) fracture table

93
Q

Which medium is frequently used in arthroscopies where the ESU may be used for hemostasis?

A) carbon dioxide

B) lactated Ringer’s

C) nitrous oxide

D) normal saline

A

B) lactated Ringer’s

94
Q

Which of the following describes the appearance of a stellate bone fracture?

A) asterisk ( * )

B) back slash ( / )

C) spiral ( S )

D) transverse ( ~ )

A

A) asterisk ( * )

95
Q

Which of the following diagnostic procedures does NOT use ionizing radiation?

A) arthrography

B) bone scan

C) CT scan

D) MRI scan

A

D) MRI scan

96
Q

Which of the following statements regarding generally safe continuous tourniquet inflation time is CORRECT?

A) both upper and lower extremity = 1 hour

B) both upper and lower extremity = 1 1/2 hours

C) lower extremity = 1 hour; upper extremity = 1 1/2 hours

D) lower extremity = 1 1/2 hours; upper extremity = 1 hour

A

D) lower extremity = 1 1/2 hours; upper extremity = 1 hour

97
Q

Which bone of the lower extremity is commonly known as the shin bone?

A) femur

B) fibula

C) patella

D) tibia

A

D) tibia

98
Q

Which of the following means a partial separation or dislocation of a joint without any break in the skin?

A) complex

B) greenstick

C) luxation

D) subluxation

A

D) subluxation

99
Q

What is the medical term for a bony prominence projecting from a bone, as in a bunion?

A) arthrosis

B) exostosis

C) osteoclast

D) varum

A

B) exostosis

100
Q

Axillary nerve injury or detachment of the deltoid from the acromion are:

A) indications for Bankart repair

B) normal outcomes of total shoulder repair

C) serious post-op complications of open acromioplasty

D) treated conservatively with steroids and physical therapy

A

C) serious post-op complications of open acromioplasty

HGTC Surgical Technology (29 decks)

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