Chapter 17 ENT Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is the term for bony overgrowth of the stapes?

A) arteriosclerosis

B) atherosclerosis

C) multiple sclerosis

D) otosclerosis

A

D) otosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is NOT a category of tonsil tissue?

A) palatine

B) pharyngeal

C) laryngeal

D) lingual

A

C) laryngeal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the name of the sharp-tipped, handheld retractor that can be either single or double and often is found in nasal trays?

A) Aufricht

B) Joseph

C) Senn

D) Weitlaner

A

B) Joseph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where is the soft palate located in relation to the nasal cavity?

A) anterior and superior

B) anterior and inferior

C) posterior and superior

D) posterior and inferior

A

D) posterior and inferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following is a curved, serrated tonsil knife?

A) Beaver

B) Button

C) Fisher

D) Sexton

A

C) Fisher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Davis and McIvor are names of which type of instrument?

A) handheld retractor

B) micro instruments

C) mouth gags

D) powered drills

A

C) mouth gags

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the paranasal sinuses are MOST superior and can be singular or divided?

A) ethmoid

B) frontal

C) maxillary

D) sphenoid

A

B) frontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the name of the wax that is normally produced and found within the ear canal?

A) cerumen

B) septum

C) sputum

D) tympanum

A

A) cerumen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Epistaxis is more commonly known as an acute:

A) allergic reaction

B) ear infection

C) nose bleed

D) upper respiratory inflammation

A

C) nose bleed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following is all that is necessary for instrument setup for bilateral myringotomy tube (BMT) placement?

A) back table

B) basin set

C) Mayo stand

D) kick bucket

A

C) Mayo stand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which part of the tympanic membrane is fibrous, largest, and where drainage tubes are inserted?

A) annulus

B) pars flaccida

C) pars tensa

D) umbo

A

C) pars tensa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which cranial nerve may be damaged by growth of a cholesteatoma?

A) third (III)

B) fifth (V)

C) seventh (VII)

D) tenth (X)

A

C) seventh (VII)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Walters, Caldwell, lateral, and submental radiographic views are used to establish diagnosis for which anatomical area?

A) inner ear canal

B) oropharynx

C) sinus cavities

D) temporomandibular joint

A

C) sinus cavities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following is frequently used as an autograft to replace the mandible in a radical neck dissection?

A) clavicle

B) fibula

C) humerus

D) radius

A

B) fibula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the MOST common cause of nasal polyps?

A) allergic rhinitis

B) arid environment

C) cocaine use

D) smoking

A

A) allergic rhinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the name of the double-action, cupped, forward-angled forceps used to resect portions of the nasal septum?

A) Aufricht

B) Cottle

C) Jansen-Middleton

D) Kerrison

A

C) Jansen-Middleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the term for creating a surgical opening into the tympanic membrane?

A) antrostomy

B) myringotomy

C) septoplasty

D) turbinectomy

A

B) myringotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the name of the structure that separates the outer and middle ear canals from one another?

A) epiglottis

B) external auditory meatus

C) turbinates

D) tympanic membrane

A

D) tympanic membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What chronically occurring condition is often the reason for placement of myringotomy tubes in one or both ears?

A) otitis media

B) rhinitis

C) sinusitis

D) tracheitis

A

A) otitis media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which procedure is performed for treatment of sleep apnea?

A) BMT

B) FESS

C) SMR

D) UPPP

A

D) UPPP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which type of mechanical action of a drill attachment is MOST commonly used in otologic procedures?

A) oscillating

B) reciprocating

C) rotary

D) sagittal

A

C) rotary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is an important step for the surgical technologist to remember to perform when changing burs on a pneumatic drill?

A) place drill in reverse position

B) place drill in forward position

C) put hand piece on safety

D) disconnect hand piece from hose

A

C) put hand piece on safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following descriptions and classification of laryngeal cartilage pertains to the epiglottis?

A) paired and hyaline

B) paired and elastic

C) individual and hyaline

D) individual and elastic

A

D) individual and elastic

24
Q

Which cranial nerve carries information related to equilibrium to the cerebral cortex?

A) third (III)

B) fifth (V)

C) eighth (VIII)

D) tenth (X)

A

C) eighth (VIII)

25
Baron, Frazier, and Rosen are names of which type of instrument? A) forceps B) knife C) pick D) suction
D) suction
26
Which surgical procedure would be performed for excision of a cholesteatoma? A) adenoidectomy B) Caldwell-Luc C) mastoidectomy D) radical neck dissection
C) mastoidectomy
27
Which diagnostic study is best at delineating between soft tissue and bony structures for diagnosing sinus conditions? A) angiogram B) audiogram C) CT scan D) MRI scan
C) CT scan
28
Topical cocaine 4% is used in nasal surgery for: A) anesthesia B) dilation C) lubrication D) prepping
A) anesthesia
29
Which type of study would be used to diagnose sleep apnea? A) CT scanning B) polysomnography C) videostroboscopy D) electronystagmography
B) polysomnography
30
Which instrument is used to measure the distance from incus to stapes footplate for selection of a prosthesis in stapedectomy? A) caliper B) depth gauge C) sound D) trial/sizer
B) depth gauge
31
What is an alternate name for the bony nasal projections known as turbinates? A) cochlea B) conchae C) ossicles D) ostia
B) conchae
32
What is the name of the long, thin, cupped, pistol-grip type handled forceps used in many nasal procedures? A) Aufricht B) Cottle C) McIvor D) Takahashi
D) Takahashi
33
Antrostomy rasps would be used in procedures involving which anatomical structure(s)? A) external auditory meatus B) facial sinuses C) lacrimal ducts D) semicircular canals
B) facial sinuses
34
All of the following are methods of performing a turbinectomy EXCEPT: A) inferior B) laser C) microdebrider D) percutaneous
D) percutaneous
35
What tissue type are the palatine tonsils? A) fascial B) lymphoid C) mucosal D) serosal
B) lymphoid
36
What is the term that describes a nasal septum that typically causes obstructed breathing in older patients? A) collateral B) deviated C) ossified D) sclerotic
B) deviated
37
An otorhinolaryngologist is more commonly known as which type of specialist? A) allergist B) ENT C) OB/GYN D) pediatrician
B) ENT
38
Which acute infection appears in bony air cells after approximately 10 to 14 days following an otitis media infection, and if untreated, it may result in meningitis or encephalitis? A) adenoiditis B) mastoiditis C) rhinitis D) tonsillitis
B) mastoiditis
39
Which of the following statements comparing rigid bronchoscopes and esophagoscopes to rigid laryngoscopes is correct? A) Bronchoscopes are longer than laryngoscopes, and the distal end is straight. B) Bronchoscopes are longer than laryngoscopes, and the distal end is flared. C) Esophagoscopes are shorter than laryngoscopes, and the distal end is flared. D) Esophagoscopes are shorter than laryngoscopes, and the distal end is straight.
A) Bronchoscopes are longer than laryngoscopes, and the distal end is straight.
40
Which of the following is the MOST commonly used autograft in otologic procedures? A) flexible cartilage B) hyaline cartilage C) temporalis fascia D) transversalis fascia
C) temporalis fascia
41
Which of the following procedures would require use of an operating microscope? A) septoplasty B) stapedectomy C) tracheostomy D) turbinectomy
B) stapedectomy
42
In which of the following procedures would the surgical technologist need to have a spreader and a hook ready for use? A) myringotomy B) septoplasty C) tonsillectomy D) tracheotomy
D) tracheotomy
43
Which gas can cause expansion of the middle and therefore is contraindicated in tympanic graft cases? A) argon B) carbon dioxide C) nitrous oxide D) oxygen
C) nitrous oxide
44
In which instrument tray would you find a Ballenger swivel knife, Cottle elevator, Knight scissors, and Takahashi forceps? A) BMT B) FESS C) SMR D) T&A
C) SMR
45
Which of the paranasal sinuses are numerous, small, and located on either side of the bridge of the nose, between the eyes? A) ethmoid B) frontal C) maxillary D) sphenoid
A) ethmoid
46
Which objective-power lens is MOST frequently used for microlaryngoscopy? A) 200 mm B) 300 mm C) 350 mm D) 400 mm
D) 400 mm
47
Which procedure would require 4 mm or 5 mm, 0°, or angled lenses and a navigation system for intraoperative guidance? A) Caldwell-Luc B) FESS C) radical neck dissection D) SMR
B) FESS
48
Which type of laser is useful for procedures involving the stapes and middle ear? A) argon B) carbon dioxide C) holmium: YAG D) Nd:YAG
A) argon
49
In myringotomy procedures, what does “PE” stand for? A) pus exudate B) partial expulsion C) pressure equalizing D) peripheral examination
C) pressure equalizing
50
Which structure is often blocked with stones in the parotid gland, possibly necessitating surgical removal of the gland? A) canal of Schlemm B) nasolacrimal duct C) paranasal ostia D) Steno’s duct
D) Steno’s duct
51
What is the surgical technologist often asked to do for the surgeon during septal procedures? A) Insert cocaine-soaked Cottonoids into the nose. B) Extract fragments with the Takahashi. C) Suture the nasal mucosa closed. D) Tap the chisel with the mallet lightly.
D) Tap the chisel with the mallet lightly.
52
Which of the following are classified as tonsils but are routinely referred to as adenoids and tend to atrophy with age? A) palatine B) pharyngeal C) laryngeal D) lingual
B) pharyngeal
53
Which of the following is NOT an ossicle found in the middle ear? A) cochlea B) incus C) malleus D) stapes
A) cochlea
54
A TMJ decompression procedure is performed in which anatomical area? A) anterior face B) anterior neck C) lateral jaw D) lateral sinus
C) lateral jaw
55
Why is a scapular or shoulder roll used in procedures involving the oropharynx? A) prevent pressure necrosis B) tilt head to increase exposure C) reduce intraoperative bleeding D) provide comfort for awake patient
B) tilt head to increase exposure
56
Which of the following is NOT a compartment of the bony labyrinth of the inner ear? A) cochlea B) semicircular canals C) sphenoid sinus D) vestibule
C) sphenoid sinus
57
A procedure sometimes performed in the ICU, ER, or PACU is a(n): A) cochlear implant B) bilateral myringotomy tubes (BMT) C) submucosal resection (SMR) D) tracheotomy
D) tracheotomy