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2ND SEM > Communication in Aerospace Management > Flashcards

Communication in Aerospace Management Flashcards

1
Q

The piston moves away from cylinder head, the intake port opens, fuel/air mixture is drawn in the cylinder.

A

Intake

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2
Q

The piston moves back toward the cylinder head, intake port close, fuel/air mixture is compressed.

A

Compression

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3
Q

The spark ignites the compressed fuel/air mixture forcing the piston down the cylinder and revolving the crankshaft

A

Power/Ignition

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4
Q

As the piston moves towards the cylinder head for the second time, the exhaust port opens, burnt gases are forced out of the cylinder.

A

Exhaust

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5
Q

abnormally rapid combustion due to low octane grade fuel, too lean fuel/air mixture, high cylinder head temperature

A

Detonation

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6
Q

Gasoline powered piston is most common propulsion system used in general aviation. Similar to automobile engine but it is lighter burns more highly refuse fuel and is aircooled.

A

The Reciprocating Engine

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7
Q

Types of Engine

A

Piston engine and Turbine engine

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8
Q

Turbine engine

A

Turbo jet – missile, Concorde, jet
Turbo fan – used by commercial aircraft
Turbo props – with propeller
turbo shaft - helicopter

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9
Q

There are three axes about which an aircraft rotates. All three go through the ___

A

centre of gravity.

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10
Q

The lateral axis generally runs from ___. Remember: L A T – Links Aerofoil Tips.

A

wingtip to wingtip

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11
Q

The lateral axis generally runs from wingtip to wingtip. The aircraft moves in the ___ plane about this axis.

A

pitching

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12
Q

The ____ axis runs from nose to tail. Remember: aLONG the length of the aircraft. The aircraft moves in the ___ plane about this axis.

A

longitudinal, rolling

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13
Q

The ___ axis runs vertically downwards.
The aircraft moves in the ___ plane about this axis.

A

normal, yawing

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14
Q

VLF – Very Low Frequency

A

0 – 30 KHz

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15
Q

LF – Low Frequency

A

30 KHz – 300KHz

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16
Q

MF – Medium Frequency

A

300KHz – 3,000KHz

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17
Q

HF – High Frequency

A

3MHz - 30 MHz

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18
Q

VHF – Very High Frequency

A

30 MHz – 300MHz

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19
Q

UHF – Ultra High Frequency

A

300-3,000 Mhz

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20
Q

SHF - Super High Frequency

A

3-30 Ghz

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21
Q

EHF – Extremely High Frequency

A

30-300 Ghz

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22
Q

similar to DME for military and naval operation

A

TACAN – (Tact. Air Nav)

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23
Q

similar to VOR/DME but for military use

A

VORTAC

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24
Q

precision navigation guidance for exact alignment and descend of a/c on approach to runway it provides azimuth, elevation and distance

A

Microwave Landing System ( MLS )

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25
Q

provide heading, total time to reach station and destination, direction and ground speed

A

Global Position System (GPS)

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26
Q

use for landing aid rather than sequencing and spacing of a/c It is similar to aninstrument landing system(ILS) but requires control instructions.

A

Precision Approach Radar ( PAR )

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27
Q

low or med frequency radio beacon transmits non directional signal whose pilot of aircraft can define his bearing and home on the station.

A

Non Direct Beacon ( NDB )

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28
Q

designed to provide an approaching path for exact alignment and descent of A/C on final approach to runway ILS range up to 20 NM radius.

A

Instrument Landing System ( ILS )

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29
Q

___ are most commonly used as markers or “locators” for an instrument landing system (ILS) approach or standard approach. a localizer is the lateral component of the instrument landing system (ILS) for the runway centreline when combined with the vertical glide slope, not to be confused with a locator, although both are parts of aviation navigation systems.

A

NDB

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30
Q

3 parts of ILS

A
  • Guidance info - Localizer , glideslope
  • Range info - marker beacon, DME
  • Visual info – approach light, touch down, center light, runway light.
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31
Q

If both transmitters and receivers are inoperative what will you do?

A

Fly Triangular Pattern

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32
Q

Steady Green (ground)

A

cleared for take off

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33
Q

Steady Green (air)

A

cleared to land

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34
Q

Flashing Green (ground)

A

cleared for taxi

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35
Q

Flashing Green ( air)

A

return to landing position

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36
Q

Steady Red ( ground )

A

Stop

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37
Q

Steady Red ( air )

A

Give way

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38
Q

Flashing Red ( ground )

A

clear the runway

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39
Q

Flashing Red ( air )

A

do not land

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40
Q

Flashing white

A

Return to starting point

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41
Q

Alternating Red and Green

A

Proceed with caution

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42
Q

also called air terminal, aerodrome, or airfield, site and installation for the takeoff and landing of aircraft. An ___ usually has paved runways and maintenance facilities and serves as a terminal for passengers and cargo.

A

Airport

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43
Q

Is a location where aircraft such as fixed-wing aircraft, helicopter and blimps take off and land. Aircraft may be stored or maintained at an ____

A

airport

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44
Q

An ____ is consisting of at least one surface such as a runway for a plane to take off and land, and often includes building such as control tower, hangar and terminal building.

A

airport

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45
Q

include parking lots, public transportation, and access roads.

A

LANDSIDE AREAS

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46
Q

include all areas accessible to aircraft, including runways, taxiways, and ramps.

A

AIRSIDE AREAS

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47
Q

Is a strip of land at an airport on which aircraft can take off and land.
____ may be a man-made surface (often asphalt, concrete or a mixture of both) or a natural surface (grass, dirt, gravel or salt).

A

Runway

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48
Q

Is a path on an airport connecting runways with ramps, hangar, terminals and other facilities. The mostly have hard surface such as asphalt or concrete.

A

Taxiway

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49
Q

___ is part of an airport. It is usually the area where aircraft are parked, unloaded or loaded, refueled or boarded.

A

Airport Ramp

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50
Q

Known as a car park in countries such as Malaysia, Australia, United Kingdome and Ireland). Also known as car lot. Is a cleared area that is more or less level and is intended for parking vehicles.

A

Parking Lot

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51
Q

Comprises passenger transportation services which are available for use by general public as opposed to modes for private use such as automobiles or vehicle for hire

A

Public Transport

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52
Q

Provides critical links between public use airport facilities and the public roadway network serving the surrounding area. The design and construction of ____ built within airport property boundaries are eligible for federal capital improvement funding and state funding through the Airport Capital Program.

A

access road

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53
Q

Provides restricted access within airport’s airfield. These roads are used by airport and FAA staff to conduct business activities such as security checks and maintenance work on an airport.

A

Perimeter Roads

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54
Q

Is a building at an airport where passenger transfer between ground transportation and the facilities that allow them to board and disembark from aircraft. Within the terminal, passengers purchase tickets, transfer their luggage and go through security.

A

Airport terminal/terminal building

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55
Q

Is an airport typically equipped with customs and immigration facilities to handle international flights to and from other countries.

A

International Airport

56
Q

Such airport are usually larger, and often feature longer runways and facilities to accommodate the large aircraft commonly used for international or intercontinental travel.

A

International Airport

57
Q

Many ___ airports also serve as HUBS-or a place where non direct flight may land and passenger switch planes.

A

International Airport

58
Q

Is an airport which handles only domestic flights or flights within the same country.

A

Domestic Airport

59
Q

It don’t have customs and immigration facilities and are therefore incapable of handling flights to or from a foreign airport.

A

Domestic Airport

60
Q

These airports normally have shorts runways which are sufficient to handle short/medium aircraft and regional air traffic.

A

Domestic Airport

61
Q

They serve business charter and private planes. Many are small and can be used only by propeller-driven light aircraft and helicopters.

A

General Aviation Airport

62
Q

Types of Airport and its difference

A

Controlled Airport – Has an operating control tower.
Uncontrolled Airport – Does not have an operating control tower.

63
Q

Airport Facilities: (first 6)

A
  • Pasalubong shops
  • Check-in counter
  • Passenger boarding bridge
  • Baggage x-ray machine
  • Departure hallway
  • Baggage handling system
64
Q

A spacious hallway provides comfort and convenience to passenger

A

Departure Hallway

65
Q

Airport Facilities: (last 6)

A
  • Cargo road area
  • Cargo loading equipment
  • Departure road/entrance gate
  • Flight Information System
  • Departure lobby
  • Departure arrival area
66
Q

____includes conveyor, forklift, palletized container used to load/unload baggage’s to and from aircraft.

A

Cargo loading equipment

67
Q

a computerized flight relay information on flight status information display (FID) was provided so that passenger within the terminal could see code shared flights.

A

Flight Information System

68
Q

The first use of the term “AIRPORT” originated in ___ when the flying boats landed and departed from port of __, it was named “air-port” by the mayor of it.

A

Southampton, England

69
Q

is the administration of airports and airlines. It includes the activities of setting the strategy of airports to gather and provide information on airline commercial and operational priorities.

A

Airline and airport management

70
Q

____ is another critical factor in managing an airline company. It is one vital way to inform the public about the airline company.

A

Marketing

71
Q

The ____ (the Kitty Hawk, often retrospectively referred to as Flyer I or 1903 Flyer) was the first successful heavier-than-air powered aircraft.

A

Wright Flyer

72
Q

The Air Mail Act of 1925, also known as the __ was a key piece of legislation that intended to free the airmail from total control by the Post Office Department.

A

Kelly Act 1925

73
Q

In short, it allowed the Postmaster General to contract private companies to carry mail. The Act was sponsored by ___, and became legislation in February that year.

A

Clyde Kelly

74
Q

It was signed by ____ on May 20, 1926. The object of this is to promote the development and stability of commercial aviation in order to attract adequate capital into the business and to provide the fledging industry with the assistance and legal basis necessary for its growth.

A

President Coolidge, Air Commerce Act of 1926

75
Q

An administrative order established in 1934 separately constituted Bureau of the Department of Commerce to promote and regulate aeronautics.

A

Bureau of Air Commerce

76
Q

The Bureau of Air Commerce
consisted of two division:

A

Division of Air Navigation
Division of Air Regulation

77
Q

On June 23, 1938, it was approved by President Roosevelt. Created one administrative agency responsible for the regulation of aviation and in air transportation.

A

Civil Aeronautics Act of 1938

78
Q

Under reorganization in ___, two separate agencies were created the ___

A

1940, Civil Aeronautics Board and Civil Aeronautics Administration.

79
Q

2 Entities of Civil Aeronautics Authority

A
  • Civil Aeronautics Board
  • Civil Aeronautics Administration
80
Q

Responsible for the economic regulation of the certificated air carriers during the period from 1940 to 1985.

A

Civil Aeronautics Board

81
Q

Forerunner to the FAA, responsible for supervising the construction, maintenance and operation of the airway system including enforcement of safety regulations. It is responsible for safe operation of the airway system. The CAA which originally meant Civil Aeronautics became the _____.

A

Civil Aeronautics Administration

82
Q

5 basic parts of an aircraft

A

Empennage, Wing, Fuselage, Landing gear, Powerplant

83
Q

one of the major aircraft components with its long hollow tube that’s also known as the body of the airplane, which holds the passengers along with cargo.

A

Fuselage

84
Q

commonly known as foils, are aircraft parts that are imperative for flight. The airflow over the ____ is what generates most of the lifting force necessary for flight.

A

wings

85
Q

can be used to generate a rolling motion for an aircraft. ___ are small hinged sections on the outboard portion of a wing. It is usually work in opposition: as the right aileron is deflected upward, the left is deflected downward, and vice versa.

A

Ailerons

86
Q

are small, hinged plates on the top portion of wings. It can be used to slow an aircraft, or to make an aircraft descend, if they are deployed on both wings. and it can also be used to generate a rolling motion for an aircraft, if they are deployed on only one wing.

A

Spoilers

87
Q

The part on the leading edge is called a___, while the part on the trailing edge is called a___. These move along metal tracks built into the wings.

A

slat, flap

88
Q

moved up and down to control the altitude movement.

A

flaps

89
Q

these are generally slotted for generating proper air flow around the wing during takeoff and landing.

A

slat

90
Q

The ____ is the tail end of the aircraft. It helps with the stability of the plane and has two main components called the rudder and the elevator.

A

empennage

91
Q

The ___ helps the aircraft steer from right to left

A

rudder

92
Q

the ___ helps with the up and down movement.

A

elevator

93
Q

Used to prevent the airplane from pitching up or down.

A

Horizontal Stabilizer

94
Q

Used to prevent the aircraft from yawing back and forth.

A

Vertical Stabilizer

95
Q

Is the rear section that controls the up and down motion of aircraft nose.

A

Elevator

96
Q

It is a movable airfoil that is used to turn the aircraft.

A

Rudder

97
Q

The ___of an airplane structure includes the engine and the propeller. The engine itself is a complicated system comprised of many smaller parts like cylinders, fans, and pistons.

A

power plant

98
Q

You cannot have a safe plane without having the ___ Not only are these parts imperative in order to land, but it is also used to help an aircraft take-off and taxi. These includes shock absorbers for a smooth landing and takeoff as well as the wheels on the plane.

A

landing gear

99
Q

Frequency Allocation: Non-direct beacon (low power) and radio

A

200 – 415 KHz

100
Q

Frequency Allocation: NDB (Standard)

A

200 – 1 750MHz

101
Q

Frequency Allocation: VOR (VHF omni-directional range)

A

108 – 117.95MHz

102
Q

Frequency Allocation: VOR Test Facility

A

108 – 118.0 MHz

103
Q

Frequency Allocation: ILS locator

A

108.10 – 111.95MHz

104
Q

Frequency Allocation: ILS glide slope

A

329.15 – 335.610MHz

105
Q

Frequency Allocation: DME & TACAN

A

960.0 – 1215.0MHz

106
Q

Frequency Allocation: ATC tower

A

118.0 – 135.975MHz

107
Q

Frequency Allocation: Airport Utility Frequency (ground control)

A

121.6 – 121.925MHz

108
Q

Clearance Delivery

A

125.1

109
Q

Ramp Control

A

121.7

110
Q

Ground Control

A

121.8

111
Q

Tower

A

118.1

112
Q

Radar

A

121.1/119.7

113
Q

You are the tower controller, what gun light signal should you use for the following:

An Aircraft with dead radio wants to land but 2 aircrafts collided on the runway

A

do not land (flashing red)

114
Q

You are the tower controller, what gun light signal should you use for the following:

An aircraft with a dead radio was cleared for take off and now needs to be aware of sudden gusts of wind

A

alternating red and green (proceed with extreme caution)

115
Q

Which part of aircraft departure flow is occurring and what frequency should you call for the following scenario

Your aircraft had just finished boarding and refueling

A

Ramp Control - 121.7

116
Q

Which part of aircraft departure flow is occurring and what frequency should you call for the following scenario

You’re holding short and waiting for take off clearance

A

Tower Control - 118.1

117
Q

___ has a number of operational advantages, including a wide selection of channels to avoid interference with other nearby airports, excellent performance in all weather, and wide vertical and horizontal “capture” angles that allowed approaches from wider areas around the airport

A

Microwave Landing System

118
Q

AIRCRAFT DEPARTURE FLOW that Provides ATC Clearance
Flight level, route , Squawk code.

A

Clearance Delivery ( 125.1 )

119
Q

AIRCRAFT DEPARTURE FLOW that Provides taxi clearance.

A

Ground Control (121.8)

119
Q

AIRCRAFT DEPARTURE FLOW that Provides start-up/ push back clearance.

A

Ramp Control (121.7)

119
Q

______, Washington, United States, was built to accommodate planes in 1905 and airships in 1911, and is still in use as of January 2020.

A

Pearson Field Airport in Vancouver

119
Q

AIRCRAFT DEPARTURE FLOW that Provides take-off clearance

A

Tower (118.1)

119
Q

AIRCRAFT DEPARTURE FLOW that Controls aircraft within 60 NM radius

A

Radar Departure (121.1 / 119.7)

119
Q

____ opened in January 1911, making it the oldest commercial airport in the world which is still in operation

A

Hamburg Airport

119
Q

The title of “world’s oldest airport” is disputed. ____ in __ established in 1909 by Wilbur Wright, is generally agreed to be the world’s oldest continuously operating airfield, although it serves only general aviation traffic.

A

College Park Airport in Maryland, US

119
Q

____, which was built to accommodate planes in 1904, and airships in 1907, opened in 1910. It was in operation until September 2019.

A

Beijing Nanyuan Airport in China

119
Q

____ opened in 1913 and remains in use, although it served as an American military field between 1945 and 1949

A

Bremen Airport

120
Q

_____ opened on September 16, 1916, as a military airfield, but has accepted civil aircraft only since December 17, 1920, allowing Sydney Airport—which started operations in January 1920—to claim to be one of the world’s oldest continuously operating commercial airports.

A

Amsterdam Airport Schiphol

121
Q

____ in the US opened in 1920 and has been in continuous commercial service since. It serves about 35,000,000 passengers each year and continues to expand, recently opening a new 11,000-foot (3,355 m) runway. Of the airports constructed during this early period in aviation, it is one of the largest and busiest that is still currently operating.

A

Minneapolis-Saint Paul International Airport

122
Q

___, opened 1916, is also a contender, as well as the ____ near Bangkok, Thailand, which opened in 1914. Increased aircraft traffic during World War I led to the construction of landing fields. Aircraft had to approach these from certain directions and this led to the development of aids for directing the approach and landing slope.

A

Rome Ciampino Airport & Don Mueang International Airport

123
Q

Following the war, some of these military airfields added civil facilities for handling passenger traffic. One of the earliest such fields was Paris ____ near Paris

A

Le Bourget Airport at Le Bourget,

124
Q

The first airport to operate scheduled international commercial services was ____ in August 1919, but it was closed and supplanted by Croydon Airport in March 1920.

A

Hounslow Heath Aerodrome

125
Q

The first lighting used on an airport was during the latter part of the 1920s; in the 1930s ____ came into use. These indicated the proper direction and angle of descent.

A

approach lighting

126
Q

In the 1940s, the ___ was introduced. This consisted of two rows of lights that formed a funnel indicating an aircraft’s position on the glideslope. Additional lights indicated incorrect altitude and direction.

A

slope-line approach system

127
Q

In 1922, the first permanent airport and commercial terminal solely for commercial aviation was opened at ____ near what was then Königsberg, East Prussia. The airports of this era used a paved “apron”, which permitted night flying as well as landing heavier aircraft.

A

Flughafen Devau

2ND SEM (14 decks)

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