Common post natal problems Flashcards

1
Q

what is plethora caused by and how do we test for it?

A

polycythenia - high red cell conc in the blood

  • full blood count - haematocrit, IV fluids
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2
Q

central cyanosis needs investigation with

A

oxygen sats

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3
Q

why do pre terms get jaundice

= what does this cause

A
  • increased red cell turn over
  • immaturity of the hepatic enzymes that process bilirubin

unconjugated hyperbilirubiemia

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4
Q

jaundice - 1st 24 Hours causes?

A

pathological -
Haemolytic ( Rh incompatibility, other antibodies, hereditary anaemias e.g. G6PD deficiency, spherocytosis )
Sepsis

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5
Q

jaundice - 2nd day - 2/3rd week causes?

A
Physiological 
Dehydration/poor feeding
Breast milk
Sepsis
Polycythaemia
Bruiding e.g. cephalohaematoma
Haemolytic 
Crigler-Najjar Syndrome
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6
Q

prolonged jaundice >2 weeks term and > 3 weeks pre term

A
Breast milk
Sepsis
Haemolytic 
Hypothyroidism
Cholestasis e.g. biliary atresia - conjugated
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7
Q

jaundice treatment aims

A
  • bring down unconjgated bilirubin
  • hydrate
  • phototherapy
  • exchange transfusion
  • immunoglobulin
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8
Q

extremely common rash that occur in neonates?

A

Erythema toxicum

  • maculo-papular rash, white pustules
  • fades within 1 week
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9
Q

why do babies get Mongolian blue spots?

A

accumulation of melanocytes

- darker pigmented skin

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10
Q

Capillary vascular malformations - Stork marks

A

capillary dilatation

naevus simplex

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11
Q

Port Wine Stain

A

dilated mature capillaries in the superficial dermis - will be there for life

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12
Q

syndromes associated with port wine stain?

A

Sturge Weber - trigeminal nerve

- Klippel-Trenaunay

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13
Q

strawberry naevus are?

A

cluster of dilated capillaries

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14
Q

cold stress increases what?

A

metabolic acidosis - hypoglycaemia

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15
Q

what babies are at risk of hypoglycaemia

A
premature
perinatal stress
infants of diabetes
sepsis 
hypothermia
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16
Q

Hypoglycaemia - in first 48 hours is defined as?

A

blood sugar <2 mol/l

17
Q

symptoms of hyperglycaemia in a neonate

A
  • Jitteriness
  • Temperature instability
  • Lethargy
  • Hypotonia
  • Apnoea, irregular respirations
  • Poor suck / feeding
  • Vomiting
  • High pitched or weak cry
  • Seizures
  • Asymptomatic
18
Q

tongue ties affect?

A

Restriction of tongue protrusion beyond the alveolar margins AND feeding is affected - frenotomy

19
Q

signs of increased respiratory effort?

A

Grunting
Retractions
Nasal flaring

20
Q

Areas to Assess for Retractions? (4)

A

Substernal

Subcostal

Intercostal

Suprasternal

21
Q

absent or weak femoral pluses can indicated

A

duct dependent congenital cortication of the aorta

  • blood pressure in all 4 limbs
  • ECHO
22
Q

how does a cleft palate from?

A

maxillary and medial nasal processes fail to merge, usually around 5 weeks gestation

23
Q

most common cleft palate/lip

A

left sided unilateral

24
Q

associated anomalies with clot lip/palate

A

hearing screening
ECHO
tris 13= patau’s
tris 18 = EDWARDS

25
Q

Ophthalmology examination in babies?

A

red reflex

26
Q

Ophthalmology screening in babies - cataract features

A
  • lens opacification
  • If undetected early could lead to blindness
  • May require no treatment
  • May require lens removal and artificial lens
27
Q

how can Retinoblastoma

be picked up on examination

A

leukocoria - white-red reflex

laser therapy, chemo, removal of eye

28
Q

urates in the nappy (brick dust) can be caused by?

A

poor feeding

29
Q

spinal dimples - features of NORMAL

A

small , close to anus in the midline, no associated skin features

30
Q

Spinal dimples can be a sign of?

  • clinical signs of this
A

spina bifida occulta

  • large m off middle, cutaneous marker (hair). - spinal imagine
31
Q

common finding with new born heads?

A

Cephalohaematomas - soft and non - translucent

- limits of cranial sutures, parietal bone

32
Q

Cephalohaematomas - where is the haemorrhage?

  • the increase in haemolysis mast cause
A

beneath the pericardium

  • resolution in the 3-4 weeks

pronged neonatal jaundice

33
Q

Talipes/club foot can be?

most common?

A

Medial (varus) or lateral (valgus)

  • positional , flexible not rigid
34
Q

Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip - what tests do we do?

A

Barlow test - adducting the hip, pressure to see if dislocates

Ortolani test - abducting outward, testing if it slips back into joint

  • click or a clunk
  • hip can become dislocated
35
Q

risk factor for DDH

A
  • breach
  • breach in last month of pregnancy
  • family history
  • fixed foot deformity
36
Q

Treatment of DDH

A

Relocate head of femur to acetabulum so hip develops normally

PAVIK harness
- surgical reduction

37
Q

Tris 21 is screened for in?

A

1st trimester

- screening test

38
Q

Features of Tris 21
- how may a child present ? (5)

dysmorphic features (7)

A
  • hypotonia - marked head lag
  • cardiac defects -ECHO
  • learning difficulties
  • Haematological problems
  • Thyroid problems
  • Low set ears, upward slanting palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, single palmar creases, wide sandal gap