coma and seizures exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

normal Intracranial pressure

A

5-10 mmHg

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2
Q

ICP regulation, what is altered first when trying to decrease pressure. what is second?

A

shunt CSF to the spinal subarachnoid space, then decrease csf production. finally decrease cerebral blood flow

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3
Q

decrease in cerebral blood flow is detremental to brain health. what happens if intracranial pressure is high while mean art BP is low.

A

mABP-ICP. if ICP is higher than mABP then the cerebral blood flow will be very low.

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4
Q

transtentorial herniations caudal and rostral cause what compression?

A

midbrain compression

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5
Q

which herniation has RAS system affected, cranial nerves IX-XII, and death

A

foramen magnum herniation. puts pressure on medulla

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6
Q

what is a clinically detrimental ICP?

A

greater than 30 mmHg will decrease cerebral blood flow

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7
Q

difference between decerebellate and decerebrate

A

decerebellate is opisthcontus with twisted torso, pelvic limbs flexed.

decerebrate: opisthcontus, extension of all four limbs, the fronts are rigid and the back are not flexed

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8
Q

what does the occulocephalic reflex test

A

interruption between vestibular and the nuclei because the CN for eye movement are not recieving messages from VIII

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9
Q

what do we try and treat in a TBI

A

secondary brain injuries. inflam, ischemia,

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10
Q

when do we do a CT:MRI on TBI patients

A

if we plan on doing surgery on the thing we find. if we dont plan on doing surgery, it really isnt indicated.

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11
Q

forebrain, midbrain, cerebellar, medulla. which are better prog than other areas for TBI

A

forebrain and cerebellar injury have better prog

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12
Q

SACS score of _____ has a 50% survival in first 48 ours

A

8

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13
Q

what is the first goal when treating a TBI

A

restoration of vital parameters. normovolemic, normotensive and ventilating. use what ever fluid you have.

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14
Q

goal 2 of treating TBI

A

after restoration of vitals, reduce ICP.

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15
Q

what pharma method is used to decrease ICP

A

mannitol diuretic.. draws water into circulation

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16
Q

what meds are commonly used to induce a coma

A

phenobarbital and NMDA agonists (ketamine)

17
Q

difference between reactive seizure ad epilepsy

A

reactive seizures are a response from a normal brain to a disturbance or toxin

epilepsy is a disease of the brain

18
Q

three types of epilepsy?

A

idiopathic structural and epilepsy of unknown cause

19
Q

what can occur in the pre-ictal period

A

prodrome; marked abnormal behavior days prior to the seizure (dog stops herding)
aura: abnormal sensation seconds prior to the seizure.

20
Q

what is the difference between syncope and a epileptic seizure

A

syncope lasts for seconds and is a sudden collapse. triggered by excitement

21
Q

how to differentiate epileptic seizure from narcolepsy

A

excitement stimulates narcolepsy, it is sudden collapse, can last minutes.

22
Q

myotonia, MG vs epilepsy

A

mytonia has a stiff gait, very long lasting, either stiff or flaccid collapse

23
Q

paroxysmal dyskinesia

A

episodic movement disorder from a gluten synstitvity. normal consciousness, hyper muscle tone.

24
Q

three ways we have reactive epileptic seizures

A

changes in resting membrane potential, too much excitation, too little inhibition

25
Q

how does hyponatremia cause seizure

A

increase in NA compared to the environment out side of the cell. this changes the resting membrane potential, water follows sodium into the neuron, leading to axonal swelling

26
Q

how does hypocalcemia cause seizure

A

less calcium means theres a dissociation from the Na channel. this makes the channels easier to open. more calcium moves into the cell changing the membrane potential

27
Q

most reliable way to differentiate between structural epilepsy and idiopathic

A

structural occurs in less than 6mo and older than 6 years. there is usually drug resistance if you try and treat

28
Q

most common chronic neurological disease in dogs?

A

idiopathic epilepsy (IE)

29
Q

there are three tiers of Idiopathic epilepsy. what are the general characteristics needed to have tier one confidence level of IE

A

2 unprovoked seizures, known breed, normal tests between 6mo to 6years of age

30
Q

tier 2 characteristics

A

normal pre and post bile acids, normal MRI, normal CSF,

31
Q

tier 3s difference

A

EEG abnormalities

32
Q

what are first line ASDs? for long acting drugs

A

phenobarbital and KBr, imepitoin is not used.

33
Q

fast acting anti-seizure drugs

A

diazepam, midazolam, propofol

34
Q

what is the theraputic ranges for phenobarbital

A

25-35.

35
Q

superficial necrolytic dermatitis

A

chronic history of phenobarb administration 6 years. erosive dermatopathy, nonreversible. if you see skin lesions in your patient, do US an look for nodules.

36
Q

there is only one FDA approved antiseizure drug. promidone. Why dont we use it

A

we do not use this because it is severely liver toxic.

37
Q

what are the two uses for levetiracetam

A

add on med on top of daily med, and for structural epilepsy.