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Phase 3 > Clinical Microbiology (Week 7) > Flashcards

Clinical Microbiology (Week 7) Flashcards

1
Q

Name three groups of people of highest risk of gastroenteritis

A

Under 5s, elderly and immunocompromised

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2
Q

Which family does norovirus belong to?

A

Calciviridae

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3
Q

Which feature of rotavirus gives it the potential for antigenic variation?

A

It’s 11 strands of RNA

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4
Q

Which strains of Adenovirus cause gastroenteritis?

A

Adenovirus 40 and 41

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5
Q

Which two types of hepatitis are spread by face-oral route?

A

Hepatitis A and E

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6
Q

What is the function of selective media?

A

Suppresses growth of background flora while allowing pathogen growth

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7
Q

Which media type shows lactose fermenting and non-lactose fermenting colonies?

A

MacConkey’s Agar

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8
Q

Give three examples of gram negative bacilli which cause gastroenteritis

A 
Salmonella 
Campylobacter 
E. coli 
Shigella 
Vibrio Cholerae
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9
Q

What is the main transmission route of campylobacter?

A

Animals but also food, milk and water

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10
Q

Which type of E. coli is commonly seen in developing world infants and travellers diarrhoea?

A

Enterotoxigenic E. coli

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11
Q

What feature of enteropathogenic E. coli allows it to disrupt microvilli?

A

Bacteria adheres via pili and forms lesion by intimin protein and Tir

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12
Q

Which bacteria produces a toxin which damages epithelium and can cause renal failure?

A

Shigella (Shiga toxin)

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13
Q

What feature of Vibrio Cholerae allows intestinal mucosa penetration?

A

Flagella which causes diarrhoea due to protein exotoxin

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14
Q

What is the incubation time of staphylococcus aureus?

A

30 minutes - 6 hours

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15
Q

What are the 2 types of disease associated with Bacillus Cereus?

A

Emetic and diarrhoeal disease

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16
Q

Name 2 spore forming gram positive bacilli?

A

Clostridium Perfringens

Clostridium Botulinum

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17
Q

What is the antibiotic treatment for listeria monocytogenes?

A

IV Ampicillin and Gentamicin

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18
Q

Which gram negative bacteria can cause outbreaks of septic arthritis in children?

A

Kingella

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19
Q

What does the acronym DAIR stand for in terms of surgical joint infection treatment?

A

Debride
Antibiotics
Implant Retained

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20
Q

Briefly describe the condition osteomyelitis

A

Bone infection characterised by bone death and sequestra (dead bone tissue)

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21
Q

Name three contraindications to lumbar puncture in suspected bacterial meningitis

A

Brain shift
Raised ICP
Decreased GCS
Clotting disorder

22
Q

In which circumstance should corticosteroids be given with antibiotics in meningitis?

A

When the meningitis is definitively known to be pneumococcal

23
Q

What is the most common antibiotic given in meningitis?

A

Ceftriaxone

24
Q

What is the treatment of viral meningitis?

A

No treatment unless patient is immunocompromised (then give Aciclovir)

25
Q

Intra-cerebral TB can cause lesions in which 4 cranial nerves?

A

III, IV, VI and IX

26
Q

How does neutropenia occur?

A

Less proliferation of haemopoietic progenitor cells and less marrow reserve

27
Q

In chronic granulomatous disease, the gene coding which enzyme is defective?

A

NADPH oxidase

28
Q

In febrile neutropenic patients, what is thought to cause infection if no site can be identified?

A

Translocation of bacteria across a compromised mucous membrane

29
Q

Name two causative viruses of the common cold

A

Rhinovirus and Coronavirus

30
Q

Define croup

A

Inspiratory stridor leading to increased RR, mainly in 6 month olds - 3 year olds

31
Q

Which two glycoproteins does influenza contain on its surface?

A

Hemagglutinin and Neurominidase

32
Q

What are the two types of flu which circulate each year, with one always being more dominant than the other?

A

H3N2 and H1N1

33
Q

What is the only type of influenza able to cause a pandemic of flu?

A

Influenza A

34
Q

Name 4 features of a baby/infants behaviour to ask a parent about during a history?

A

Feeding
Crying
Sleeping
Smiling

35
Q

Name three routes of transmission in HIV

A 
Anal or vaginal sex 
IV drug use
Vertical transmission 
Health care setting 
Contaminated blood products
36
Q

When CD4+ cells fall below what number is a person more likely to have an opportunistic infection?

A

200

37
Q

What two features does 4th generation testing for HIV look for?

A

p24 antigen and HIV antibody

38
Q

What is Scotland’s viral load target for HIV patients?

A

<40 viral copies/ml blood

39
Q

What is the main treatment of HIV?

A

Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy (HAART) - triple therapy

40
Q

Name the components of a sexual health screen and what tests would be carried out

A

Chlamydia and Gonnorrhoea (NAAT test)

HIV and syphilis (blood test)

41
Q

What is the treatment of gonorrhoea?

A

Ceftriaxone

42
Q

What is the treatment of Chlamydia?

A

Doxycyline

43
Q

What type of bacteria is syphilis?

A

Gram positive spirochete

44
Q

How long does tertiary syphilis take to develop?

A

8-15 years

45
Q

Which types of virus cause anogenital warts?

A

HPV 6 and 11

46
Q

Which bacteria causes TB and what kind of bacteria is it?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis, a weakly gram positive

47
Q

What is the clinical presentation of TB?

A

Cough +/- haemoptysis and SOB

48
Q

What is the hallmark of TB?

A

Granuloma formation (as well as Ghon complexes)

49
Q

What is the test for latent TB?

A

Mantoux test

50
Q

Multi-resistant TB is resistant to which 2 treatments?

A

Rifampicin and Isoniazid

51
Q

Extensively drug-resistant TB is resistant to which 4 treatments?

A

Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Fluroquinilone
One injectable

Phase 3 (15 decks)

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