Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

The Medical Assistant > Clinical II: Midterms > Flashcards

Clinical II: Midterms Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

A physician who specializes in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders and diseases of the eye

A

Ophthalmologist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

They are trained to fill prescriptions written by ophthalmologist and optometrist for corrective lenses by grinding the lenses and dispensing eyewear

A

Optician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A test that measures the lowest intensity of sound and individual can hear.

A

Audiometry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A ringing in the ears

A

Tinnitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Affects the external ear canal

It may be caused by Dermatologic conditions such as Seborrhea or psoriasis, trauma to the canal or continuous use of earplugs or earphones

A

Otitis externa

A.k.a. swimmers ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

And infection of the eye

A localized, purulent infection of a sebaceous gland of the eyelid. The area is inflamed, swollen and painful. The infection usually is caused by staphylococci and is treated with warm compresses and topical or systemic antibiotics.

A

Hordeolum

stye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Inflammation of the conjunctiva are caused by irritation, allergy, or bacterial infection. This is highly contagious and produces a purulent discharge. Symptoms include inflammation, swelling and itching of the sclera, photophobia and tearing. Bacterial infections are treated with antibiotic ophthalmic preparations .

A

Conjunctivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Reduction or dimness of vision with no apparent organic cause; often referred to as lazy eye syndrome

A

Amblyopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Structures in the retina that make the perception of color possible

A

Cones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

This occurs when light rays entering that I focus in front of the retina, causing objects at a distance to appear blurry and dull; Objects viewed at reading or working level are seen clearly.

In this disorder, the eyeball is elongated from the anterior to the posterior wall and the image cannot be sharpened by the internal lens of the eye.

A concave corrective lens is used to focus the light rays on the redness or surgery can be done to change the shape of the cornea

A

Myopia

nearsightedness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The hearing loss that affects aging people is caused by a reduction in the number of receptor cells in the organ of Corti and also is classified as a sensorineural loss

Children can be born with a congenital hearing defect or deafness because of an intrauterine infection such as the measles.

A

Presbycusis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A procedure that is commonly used to evaluate conduction and sensory loss.

This test is used if the patient reports that hearing is better in one year than in the other. That vibrating fork is placed in the center of the top of the head and the patient is asked in which year the tone is louder or if the tone is the same in both ears.

A

Weber test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A procedure that is commonly used to evaluate conduction and sensory loss.

This test is designed to compare air conduction sound with bone conduction sound.

In this test, the stem of the vibrating fork is placed on the patients mastoid process and the patient is instructed to raise a hand when the sound disappears. the fork is quickly inverted so that the vibrating tines are approximately 1 inch in front of the external ear canal if hearing is normal the patient should still hear a sound.

A

Rhine test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The discharge of nasal drainage

A

Rhinorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The opening of the cervix through the process of labor, measured as 0 to 10 cm wide

A

Dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A hormone secreted by the placenta, found in the urine of pregnant females

A

Human chorionic gonadotropin

HCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

One of three phases of menstruation

In this phase the hypothalamus begins Secreting gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulating the anterior pituitary to release follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH).

The mature ovarian follicle secretes estrogen, which stimulates the growth of the endometrium.

The end of this phase is the expulsion of the egg.

A

Follicular phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

One of three phases of menstruation

This phase begins wants ovulation is complete. During this phase, progesterone secreted by the corpus luteum causes extensive growth of the endometrium as it prepares for a possible pregnancy.

If conception occurs, the corpus luteum continues to secrete progesterone until the placenta is well established and can secrete progesterone and HCG to maintain that pregnancy.

If conception does not occur, HCG is not secreted, and the corpus luteum Atrophies. Without increased levels of progesterone and HCG, the endometrium breaks down, and menstruation begins.

A

Luteal phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

One of three phases of menstruation

In this phase the endometrial lining discharges.

A

Menstruation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A commonly used contraceptive method

Failure rate: 2% to 10%

Characteristics: no prescription or examinations needed; easily available; inexpensive

Contra indications: latex allergy in Either partner

Side effects: possible allergic responses to latex or spermicide

A

Male or female condom

A.k.a. barrier method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A commonly used contraceptive method

Failure rate: 0.5%

Characteristics: requires 150 mg IM injection every three months

Contra indications: intention of becoming pregnant within one year; breast cancer; liver disease

Side effects: return of fertility may be delayed 10 to 18 months; should not be used more than two years in a row because it can cause a temporary loss of bone density; headache, weight gain, possibly depression

A

Depo-Provera

DMPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A type of abortion

No identifiable cause

A

Spontaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A type of abortion

Complete expulsion of both fetus and placenta with no medical intervention.

A

Complete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A type of abortion

Expulsion of only parts of the fetus and placenta; a D and C must be done to remove the remaining pieces or the mother will continue to bleed.

A

Incomplete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A type of abortion

The fetus dies in utero and must be removed surgically.

A

Missed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A type of abortion

Cervical bleeding occurs, but dilation does not, and the pregnancy continues on interrupted.

A

Threatened

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A hormone released from the corpus luteum during the follicular phase of menstruation.

Stimulates the development of the duck system during pregnancy

A

Progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A hormone stimulated during the follicular phase of menstruation which stimulates the growth of the endometrium.

Responsible for the increase of breast size during pregnancy.

A

Estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A hormone that stimulates the production of milk during pregnancy.

A

Prolactin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A hormone that causes the injection of milk from the glands during pregnancy

A

Oxytocin

31
Q

An instrument used for measuring the degrees of motion in a joint.

A

Goniometer

32
Q

Tough connective tissue bands that whole joints together by attracting to the bones on either side of the joint.

A

Ligaments

33
Q

A clear fluid found in joint cavities that facilitates smooth movements and nurses joint structures

A

Synovial fluid

34
Q

Tough bands of connective tissue that connects muscle to bone.

A

Tendons

35
Q

A type of body movement

Reduces the angle of the joint and brings the two bones closer together

A

Flexion

36
Q

A type of body movement

The opposite of flexion; increases the angle or distance between two bones or parts of the body

A

Extension

37
Q

A type of body movement

Extension 180°

A

Hyper extension

38
Q

A type of body movement

Moving the body part away from the midline or median plane of the body

A

Abduction

39
Q

A type of body movement

The opposite of abduction move; moving the body part toward the midline of the body

A

Adduction

40
Q

A type of body movement

Moving a bone around it’s central access; common in ball and socket joints

A

Rotation

41
Q

A type of body movement

Circular movement of a limb; a combination of abduction, adduction, extension and flexion

A

Circumduction

42
Q

A type of body movement

Moving the instep of the foot up and dorsally, reducing the angle between the foot and the leg.

A

Dorsiflexion

43
Q

A type of body movement

A tow down movement of the foot at the angle; increases the angle of the joint

A

Plantar flexion

44
Q

A type of body movement

Turning the soul of the foot laterally or outward

A

Eversion

45
Q

A type of body movement

The opposite of eversion; turn in the soul of the foot mediately or in word

A

Inversion

46
Q

A type of body movement

Rotation of the forearm that turns the palm of the hand down word or posteriorly

A

Pronation

47
Q

A type of body movement

The opposite of pronation; rotation of the fore arm that turns the palm of the hand upward, or anteriorly

A

Supination

48
Q

Classified by the way they are shaped or by their ability to move.

Types:
-switchers; example joints of the school
-hinge; example elbow and knee
-gliding; example the wrist and foot
-Ball and socket; greatest ROM example shoulder and hip
L
A

Joints

49
Q

A Coleman musculoskeletal conditions

Symptoms: painful joint inflammation, often affects the great toe, very sensitive to touch and movement; metabolic disease caused by buildup of uric acid

Diagnostic procedures: history, physical exam, microscopic synovial fluid examination for uric acid crystals

Laboratory tests: serum uric acid test

Treatment: low purine diet, limit alcohol, NSAIDs, analgesics, prednisones, colchicine

A

Gout

50
Q

A type of spinal disorder

Any abnormal deviation or curvature to the right or left of the spine

It can cause significant back pain and possibly heart or lung problems because of the diminished space in the Resik cavity on one side

A

Scoliosis

51
Q

A type of spinal disorder

Loss of cervical lordosis

A

Military neck

52
Q

A type of spinal disorder

Upper excessive thoracic kyphosis

A

Hunchback

53
Q

The need to sit or stand to breathe comfortably

A

Orthopnea

54
Q

A disease that causes approximately 1/3 of the worlds population To be infected with this. Causes more deaths than any other infectious agent in the world.

It is caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It is transmitted by droplets of sputum expectorated into the environment by an infected host. It can also spread when an infected person coughs or sneezes, releasing Airbourne infected droplets, which are in hailed and cause infection if the person is susceptible.

Primary infection; occurs when the person is first infected with bacteria and the lungs become inflamed

Develops in two stages:
Latent; asymptomatic, not infectious, positive purified protein
derivative test results, positive Quantiferon gold blood test
result, normal chest x-ray studies, negative sputum culture
Active; symptoms include cough for three weeks or longer, chest
pain, he made the phthisis, fatigue, weight loss, anorexia, fever
with chills and night sweats, positive PPD and quantiferon gold
blood tests,Abnormal chest x-ray studies and /or positive spot
and culture.

A

Tuberculosis

55
Q

A test for tuberculosis

A

Quantiferion-TB Gold blood test

56
Q

Hey substance that relieves or alleviates the symptoms of a disease without curing disease

A

Palliative treatment

57
Q

The long with three lobes

A

Right lung

58
Q

The long with two lobes

A

Left lung

59
Q

Collapsed lung

A

Atelectasis

60
Q

Greater than normal amounts of carbon dioxide in the blood

A

Hypercapnia

61
Q

Oh Kurz when the muscles in the posterior pharynx that support the soft palate, uvula, tonsils and tongue relax during sleep. This relaxation causes the trachea to narrow or close with inhalation, momentarily stopping breathing.

Signs and symptoms:

  • excessive daytime sleepiness; hypersomnia
  • persistently loud, disruptive snoring
  • Episodes of breathing cessation during sleep
  • dry mouth or sore throat on awakening
  • Morning headache

Treatment: CPAP machine which delivers the air pressure through a mask placed over the mouth or nose or through a cannula in the nose. This machine forces the upper airway passages open and prevents tracheal collapse

A

Sleep apnea

62
Q

Low level of oxygen in the blood

A

Hypoxemia

63
Q

This test is performed to diagnose a pulmonary abnormality and order to determine the extent of a pulmonary disease.

Patient instructions:
-Where loose fitting clothing,
-avoid eating a large meal within two hours of taking the test,
-avoid smoking for at least one hour before the test
-avoid taking bronchodilators or nebulizers for six hours before the
test

A

Spirometry

64
Q

Dilation of the brown she and bronchioles associated with secondary infection or ciliary dysfunction

A

Bronchiectasis

65
Q

A computerized x-ray imaging modality that provides axial and three dimensional scans

A

Computed tomographic game

CT scan

66
Q

Direct observation of an x-ray image in motion

A

Fluoroscopy

67
Q

And imaging modality that uses a magnetic field and radio frequency pulses to create computer images of those bones and soft tissue in multiple planes

A

Magnetic resonance imaging

MRI

68
Q

A donut shaped portion of a scanner that surrounds the patient and functions, at least partly, together imaging data

A

Gantry

69
Q

A frontal projection in the witch this central ray enters the front of the patients and exits the back to reach the image receptor; the patient is supine or facing and the x-ray tube

A

Anteroposterior

70
Q

A view in which the central ray enters the back and exits the front of the patient’s body; the patient is prone or facing the image receptor.

A

Posteroanterior

71
Q

Special radioactive materials that are swallowed or injected intravenously, to track the activity of cells and determine the location of fractures

A

Tracers

72
Q

I’m moving greet device that holds hand image receptor and prevents scatter radiation from fogging eat image

A

Bucky

73
Q

A badge for monitoring it radiation exposure of personnel

A

Dosimeter

74
Q

A therapeutic intervention technique that reduces or stops blood flow to control hemorrhage, cut off the blood supply to a tumor or reduce blood loss during surgery.

A

Embolization

The Medical Assistant (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions