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Laws, Regulations, and Policies > Chs 1-3 - Occupational Health and Safety in the Care and Use of Research Animals > Flashcards

Chs 1-3 - Occupational Health and Safety in the Care and Use of Research Animals Flashcards

1
Q

Organization for which NRC operates?

A

National Academy of Engineering and the National Academy of Sciences

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2
Q
  1. List 4 major NRC reports pertaining to guidance in environmental health & safety of lab workers.
A

Prudent Practices (PP) for Handling Hazardous Chemicals in Laboratories (1981); PP for Disposal of Chemicals from Laboratories (1983); Biosafety in the Laboratory: PP for the Handling and Disposal of Infectious Materials (1989); PP in the Laboratory: Handling and Disposing of Chemicals (1995).

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3
Q
  1. What does IRAC stand for?
A

Interagency Research Animal Committee – which asked NRC to write Occ Health & Safety book

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4
Q
  1. What does PRIM&R stand for?
A

Public Responsibility in Medicine and Research

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5
Q
  1. What does ARENA stand for?
A

Applied Research Ethics National Association

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6
Q
  1. What are the basic concepts that determine the effectiveness of an occupational health & safety program?
A

Knowing the hazard; avoiding & controlling exposures; training and education; rules & guidelines; consistency; recording keeping & monitoring; commitment & coordination.

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7
Q
  1. What are the 5 institutional functions needed for an OHS program?
A

Animal care & use; research; environmental health & safety; occupational health; administration & management

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8
Q
  1. What % of people with pre-existing allergies might develop animal allergies?
A

30%

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9
Q
  1. List key elements of OHS program.
A

Administrative procedures; facility design & operation; exposure control; education & training; occupational health; equipment performance; information management; emergency procedures; program evaluation.

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10
Q
  1. List factors to be considered in performing a risk assessment of employees with animal contact.
A

Animal contact; exposure intensity; exposure frequency; physical & biol hazards from animal; hazardous properties of agents used in protocol; employee susceptibility; occupational health hx of an employee doing similar work.

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11
Q
  1. Who is ultimately responsible for an institution’s OHS program?
A

Senior official of an institution

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12
Q
  1. Objective of an OHS program?
A

To minimize risks of occupational injury & illness by controlling or eliminating hazards in the workplace.

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13
Q
  1. Why doesn’t NRC doesn’t recommend serum collection/storage as standard components of an OHS program.
A

It’s valuable only for employees with substantial likelihood that they could acquire an agent that can be monitored serologically. (also a potential HIPPA issue)

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14
Q
  1. What does NRC does recommend as the principal surveillance tool for periodic health evaluations.
A

a careful hx based on knowledge of workplace risks. A PE is done when symptoms of work-related illness becomes evident during episodic health evaluation.

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15
Q
  1. What is the goal of an OHS program? What should the program focus be?
A

Goal – to prevent occupational injury & illness; Focus – control of hazards & reduction of risks as opposed to merely satisfying regulations

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16
Q
  1. List the 7 basic concepts of an effective OHS program.
A

Knowing the hazards; avoiding/controlling exposures; training & education; rules & guidelines; consistency; record keeping & monitoring; commitment & coordination.

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17
Q
  1. Who is responsible/accountable for design of OHS program? Who has ultimate responsibility?
A

*Institution (represented by senior official or an authorized body), program managers, program implementers, employees

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18
Q
  1. What are the responsibilities of the institution?
A

Understand the issues; provide guidance; establish/support institutional policies; authority to provide resources; bring together program managers/implementers.

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19
Q
  1. Program managers can include whom?
A

Health professionals; safety professionals; veterinarians; animal-facility managers or supervisors; research directors & scientists; lab supervisors; human resource & finance personnel; legal advisers; environmental experts; facility engineers.

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20
Q
  1. What is a safety program implementer’s key responsibility? Other responsibilities?
A

Train is key responsibility. Other – providing appropriate PPE; providing appropriate facilities; ensuring compliance of subordinate staff with established procedures & practices.

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21
Q
  1. What are main activities an institution that uses animals is responsible for?
A

Animal care & use; research; environmental health & safety; occupational health; administration & management.

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22
Q
  1. How can institutions establish a priority list of issues to address?
A

Consider most costly hazards, either direct or indirect
Consider acute problems first
Consider addressing the most common or most severe risks first

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23
Q
  1. List 3 types of control/prevention strategies for controlling OHS risks (occupational illness/injury).
A

Primary prevention – control/eliminate hazards; Secondary prevention – premorbid case detection; Tertiary prevention – case finding & disease management.

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24
Q
  1. What does MSDS stand for?
A

Material Safety Data Sheets

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25
Q
  1. What does NIOSH stand for?
A

National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health

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26
Q
  1. What is the Supplementary Data System (SDS)?
A

Fed Bureau of Labor Statistics receives data from 35 states categorizing & reporting injuries/illnesses that qualify for worker comp. This database is the SDS.

27
Q
  1. What is the OSHA 200 log and who requires this?
A

Most institutions are required by law to maintain a log of work-related illness/injury; U.S. Dept of Labor.

28
Q
  1. When is an injury recordable?
A

If it results in: death, loss of consciousness, lost work time, placement on restricted duty, treatment other than first aid.

29
Q
  1. What is required to be prepared & kept by employers for each OSHA 200 log entry?
A

Supplementary Record of Occupational Injury or Illness (OSHA Form 101).

30
Q
  1. List some gov’t agencies that could be used as sources of info for developing a safety program and ID potential hazards.
A

NIOSH, OSHA, CDC, NIH, NADC (National Animal Disease Center), ARS (Agricultural Research Service), APHIS.

31
Q

List 3 most common species involved with bites among general population.

A

Dogs, cats, rodents

32
Q

Give some examples of diseases transmitted through animal bites.

A

Rabies, CHV-1 infections, hantavirus infections, cat-scratch fever, tularemia, rat-bite fever, brucellosis, orf

33
Q

What does NFPA stand for?

A

National Fire Protection Association

34
Q

List fire classifications.

A 
Class A (cloth, wood, paper)
Class B (flammable gases & liquids)
Class C (electric equipment)
Class D (combustible metals)
35
Q

How are Class B liquids further classified?

A

According to flash point (FP) = lowest temp at which liquid will produce vapor sufficient to propagate a flame.
Flammable liquids = FP < FP <200°F

36
Q

List classification of UV radiation by wavelength.

A 
UV-A = 320-400 nm (black-light region)
UV-B = 280-320 nm (erythemal region)
UV-C = 100-280 nm (germicidal region)
37
Q

What is a potential hazard of UV radiation in the presence of chlorinated solvents?

A

UV radiation reacts with vapors of chlorinated solvents to produce phosgene, a potent lung irritant.

38
Q

What does ANSI stand for?

A

American National Standards Institute

39
Q

List classification of lasers. What is this classification based on?

A

Class I: doesn’t emit hazardous level of radiation when operating normally.
Class II: Low-power, not enough power to injure accidentally but can cause injury if beam viewed for extended periods.
Class IIIa: High power, can cause injury if beam concentrated with viewing device.
Class IIIb: Produce injury if viewed directly; beam also dangerous if reflected off a mirror-like surface.
Class IV: Class III + a fire hazard
Classification based on power level & hazard potential.

40
Q

What is the major hazard associated with lasers?

A

Major hazard is related to beam (burns, eye damage, lacerations, fires). Also aerosols, fumes, toxic gases, electric shock.

41
Q

What does NSC stand for?

A

National Safety Council

42
Q

What is the criteria for classifying radiation as ionizing?

A

Radiation must have enough energy to remove electrons from atoms to create ions.

43
Q

Define and list types of particulate radiation.

A

Composed of particles that are of atomic origin. Alpha (a) beta (b).

44
Q

Define and list types of nonparticulate radiation.

A

Electromagnetic radiation with very short wavelength; composed of photons of energy and can penetrate matter.

45
Q

Through what routes can radiation be hazardous? What are the 2 types of hazards?

A

Routes = inhalation, ingestion, skin contact, proximity. Hazards = external, internal

46
Q

What agency controls the use of radioisotopes?

A

U.S. Nuclear Regulatory Commission

47
Q

Name some common types of hazards presented by machinery.

A

In-running nip points, crush points, pinch points.

48
Q

How is chronic noise-induced hearing loss characterized?

A

Declining sensitivity to frequencies above 2,000 Hz.

49
Q

What are OSHA limits on “noise” exposure for employees?

A

Limits noise exposure to 90 decibels measured on the A scale of a standard sound-level meter at slow response (dBA) averaged over an 8 h workshift.

50
Q

Ultrasonography is covered by what part of OSHA regulations?

A

If the frequency is <20 kHz, it is covered by the OSHA noise standard.

51
Q

Employee knowledge of chem hazards & protective measures has been increased due to what 2 OSHA health & safety standards?

A

Hazard Communiciation Standard, Occupational Exposure to Hazardous Chemical in Laboratories (the laboratory standard)

52
Q

Name some hazardous properties of chemicals.

A

Flammability, corrosiveness, reactivity, explosivity, toxicity.

53
Q

What are the most common chem injuries assoc’d with animal care & use?

A

Burns and irritation of the skin, allergic response in sensitized people.

54
Q

What are the recommended sequence of stages that should be considered in planning a safe experiment?

A

Evaluating hazards & assessing risks; management of chem; working with chem; working with equipment; disposal of chem; lab facilities; gov’t regulations of labs.

55
Q

What does SALS stand for?

A

Subcommittee on Arbovirus Laboratory Safety.

56
Q

What factors go into the selection of an appropriate biosafety level? Specifically, what characteristics of the infectious agent?

A

Severity of disease; mode of transmission; availability of protective immunization or effective therapy; relative risk of exposure created by manipulation in handling the agent & caring for infected animals.

57
Q

List & describe animal biosafety levels.

A

Table 3-3, p. 49.
ABSL1: Basic level of protection for well-characterized agents not known to cause disease in healthy humans.
ABSL2: Handles broad spectrum of moderate risk agents that cause human dz by ingestion, percutaneous, or mucous membrane exposure.
ABSL3: Agents the present risks of resp transmission; can cause serious & potentially lethal infection.
ABSL4: Exotic agents posing high indiv risk of life-threatening dz by aerosol route & for which no tx is available.

58
Q

Exposure limits to CO2 for employees

A

10,000 ppm TWA
30,000 ppm short exposure (15 min)
5,000 ppm transitional TWA

59
Q

Characterize the inheritance profile of atopy.

A

autosomal dominant trait with variable expression linked to chromosome 5

60
Q

What major rat allergens have been identified, and where are they found in highest concentrations?

A

Rat n 1A (pre-albumen), Rat n 1B (alpha2-euglobin)

Found in urine

61
Q

Mouse m 1 urinary protein is most similar to which rat allergen?

A

Rat n 1B

62
Q

The major allergen of which species has been identified in the fur?

a. rat
b. mouse
c. guinea pig
d. rabbit

A

d. rabbit

63
Q

What is the major cat allergen, and where is it produced?

A

Fel d 1, produced in saliva and sebaceous glands.

64
Q

What is unusual about bird allergic and hypersensitivity reactions associated with birds?

A

Not mediated by IgE antibodies, but perhaps by IgG.

Laws, Regulations, and Policies (26 decks)

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