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Micro > Chlamydia > Flashcards

Chlamydia Flashcards

1
Q

The Gram reaction of chlamydiae

A

negative or variable and is not useful in identification of the agents.

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2
Q

It has a relatively high lipid content. including lipopolysaccharide of low endotoxic activity. It is rigid but does not contain a typical bacterial peptidoglycan

A

Chlamydia

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3
Q

Infectious particle (transmissible form) of chlamydia

A

elementary body (EB)

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4
Q

Ddvelopmental cycle of chlamydia

A

48-78 hrs

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5
Q

Commonly are used to isolate chlamydiae

A

McCoy cells treated with cycloheximide

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6
Q

Grows better in HL or HEp-2 cells

A

C pneumoniae grows

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7
Q

All types of chlamydia proliferate in

A

embryonated eggs, particularly in the yolk sac

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8
Q

Major diseases of C trachomatis

A

Trachoma, STDs, infant pneumonia, LGV

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9
Q

Serovars of Chlamydia psittaci

A

> _ 4

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10
Q

Serovars of C trachomatis and C pneumonia

A

15 and 1 respectively

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11
Q

Natural host of C pneumoniae

A

Human, animals

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12
Q

Causes chronic keratoconjunctivitis (Trachoma)

A

C trachomatis

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13
Q

Serovars associated with Trachoma

A

Serovars A, B, Ba, C

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14
Q

Incubation period of C trachomatis

A

3-10 days

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15
Q

Earliest symptoms of trachoma

A
  • Lacrimation,
  • mucopurelent discharge,
  • conjunctival hyperemia, and
  • follicular hypertrophy
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16
Q

Microscopic examination of the cornea reveals

A
  • epithelial keratitis,
  • subepithelial infiltrates,
  • extension of limbal vessels into the cornea (pannus)
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17
Q

Diagnostic culture of C trachomatis

A
  • Inoculation of conjunctival scrapings into cycloheximide treated McCoy cell after 2–3 days of incubation.
  • Typical cytoplasmic inclusions are found in epithelial cells of conjunctival scrapings stained with fluorescent antibody or by the Giemsa method
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18
Q

The most sensitive method for their detection in serology

A

Immunofluorescence

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19
Q

Treatment for C trachoma

A

Azithromycin

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20
Q

Prevention of C trachoma

A

S-A-F-E program:
• surgery for deformed eyelids,
• periodic azithromycin therapy,
• face washing and hygiene
• environmental improvement such as building latrines and
decreasing the number of flies that feed on conjunctival exudates

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21
Q

Cause sexually transmitted diseases

A

C trachomatis serovars D–K

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22
Q

C trachomatis serovars D–K causes in men….

A

Causes nongonococcal urethritis and, occasionally, epididymitis

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23
Q

C trachomatis serovars D–K causes in women….

A

Causes urethritis, cervicitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease, which can lead to sterility and predispose to ectopic pregnancy.

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24
Q

May occur in men and women in CHLAMYDIA TRACHOMATIS GENITAL INFECTIONS

A

Proctitis and proctocolitis

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25
Q

30–50% of infants of infected mothers acquire the infection, with 15–20% of infected infants manifesting eye symptoms and 10–40% manifesting respiratory tract involvement

A

Inclusion conjunctivitis of the newborn

26
Q

Used to scrape epithelial cells from 1–2 cm deep into the endocervix of C trachomatis infection

A

swab or cytology brush

27
Q

Swab specimens should be placed in a chlamydiae transport medium,
such as ______________ that inhibit normal microbiota, and kept at refrigerator temperature.5

A

2-sucrose phosphate supplemented with bovine serum and antibiotics

28
Q

Can be tested for the presence of chlamydial nucleic acid.

A

Urine

29
Q

Are the tests of choice for the diagnosis of genital C trachomatis infections.

A

Nucleic acid amplification tests-

30
Q

Treatment for non-gonococcal urethritis

A

Tetracyclines (eg, doxycycline)

31
Q

Treatment for pregnant women CHLAMYDIA TRACHOMATIS GENITAL INFECTIONS

A

Azithromycin

32
Q

Treatment for Inclusion Conjunctivitis

A

Systemic therapy because topical therapy may not cure the eye infections or prevent respiratory disease.

33
Q

Prevention: CHLAMYDIA TRACHOMATIS GENITAL INFECTIONS

A

Depends on safe sex practices and on early diagnosis and treatment of infected persons.

34
Q

newborns infected by the mother, 10–20% may develop respiratory tract
involvement 2–12 weeks after birth.

A

NEONATAL PNEUMONIA (caused by C trichomatis)

35
Q

Signs: NEONATAL PNEUMONIA

A
  • nasal obstruction or discharge,
  • striking tachypnea,
  • a characteristic paroxysmal staccato cough,
  • absence of fever, and
  • eosinophilia.
36
Q

Diagnosis: NEONATAL PNEUMONIA

A

➢Interstitial infiltrates and hyperinflation can be seen on radiographs
➢immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibody titer to C trachomatis of 1:32 or more is
considered diagnostic

37
Q

Treatment: NEONATAL PNEUMONIA

A
  • Oral erythromycin for 14 days is recommended

* systemic erythromycin is effective treatment in severe cases

38
Q

is a sexually transmitted disease caused by C trachomatis and is characterized by suppurative inguinal adenitis.

A

LYMPHOGRANULOMA VENEREUM

39
Q

LYMPHOGRANULOMA VENEREUM is caused by

A

three serovar antigens (L1–L3)

40
Q

Contain CF heat-stable chlamydial group antigens t

A

LYMPHOGRANULOMA VENEREUM

41
Q

Clinical features caused by LGV in men

A
  • inguinal nodes are most commonly involved both above and below Poupart’s ligament
  • the overlying skin often turns purplish as the nodes suppurate (bubo formation)
  • eventually discharge pus through multiple sinus tracts.
42
Q

Clinical features caused by LGV in women and homosexual men

A
  • perirectal nodes are prominently involved, with proctitis

* a bloody mucopurulent anal discharge

43
Q

Clinical Course of the disease:

A

• Days to several weeks after exposure, a small, evanescent papule or vesicle develops
on any part of the external genitalia, anus, rectum, or elsewhere.
• The lesion may ulcerate, but usually it remains unnoticed and heals in a few days.
• The regional lymph nodes enlarge and tend to become matted and painful

44
Q

Detect all of the LGV serovars but cannot differentiate them from other C trachomatis serovars.

A

Nucleic Acid Amplification Tests

45
Q

Suspected material of LGV is inoculated into

A

McCoy cell cultures

46
Q

➢The inoculum can be treated with an __________ to lessen bacterial contamination. The agent is identified by morphology and serologic tests.

A

aminoglycoside (but not with penicillin)

47
Q

The test becomes positive 2–4 weeks after onset of illness of LGV

A

Serology test

48
Q

A rising antibody level or a single titer of more than ______ is good evidence of active infection.

A

1:64

49
Q

Treatment: LGV

A

sulfonamides and tetracyclines

50
Q

Pharyngitis is common. Sinusitis and otitis media may occur and be accompanied by
lower airway disease is caused by

A

CHLAMYDIA PNEUMONIAE

51
Q

Is similar to that caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

Atypical pneumonia

52
Q

Treatment: CHLAMYDIA PNEUMONIAE

A
  • Macrolides ( Azithromycin, clarithromycin)
  • Tetracyclines,
  • some fluoroquinolones (Levofloxacin, moxifloxacin)
53
Q

Little value due to insensitivity in diagnosing CHLAMYDIA PNEUMONIAE

A

Smears

54
Q

Swab specimens of the pharynx of infected with C. pneumoniae should be put into ________ and grows better in _________ in _______ °

A
  • chlamydiae transport medium and placed at 4°C
  • HL and HEp-2 cells
  • 35°C than 37°C. After 3 days incubation
55
Q

The most sensitive method for diagnosis of C pneumoniae infection. The test is species specific and can detect IgG or IgM antibodies

A

Serology using the MIF test

56
Q

Acquired from contact with birds and also the infection of psittacine
birds (eg, parrots, parakeets, cockatoos)

A

Psittacosis (C. psittaci)

57
Q

Infection with similar agents in all types of domestic birds (eg, pigeons, chickens,
ducks, geese, turkeys) and free-living birds (eg, gulls, egrets, petrels)

A

Ornithosis

58
Q

Causes a patchy inflammation of the lungs in which consolidated areas are
sharply demarcated. The exudates are predominantly mononuclear.

A

Psittacosis

59
Q

Clinical findings

A
  • Exposure to birds/bird droppings→ The incubation period averages 10 days→ sudden onset of illness taking the form of influenza or nonbacterial pneumonia
  • malaise,
  • fever,
  • anorexia,
  • sore throat,
  • photophobia,
  • severe
  • headache
60
Q

Not recommended because of the biohazard risk ( Should be done in a
Biosafety level III) in Psittacosis.

A

Culture

61
Q

Is one with a positive culture result or associated with a compatible clinical illness
plus a fourfold or greater change in antibody titer to at least 1:32 or a single MIF IgM titer of at least 1:16

A

confirmed case

62
Q

Treatment: Psittacosis.

A
  • Doxycycline and tetracycline

* macrolides and fluoroquinolones- may be alternatives

Micro (17 decks)

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