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Health Assessment > Chapters 1, 2, 3, 4, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13 > Flashcards

Chapters 1, 2, 3, 4, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13 Flashcards

1
Q

Annular Lesions

A

Description: circular, begins in center & spreads to periphery
Ex. Ringworm

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2
Q

Confluent Lesions

A

Description: lesions run together

Ex. Urticaria (hives)

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3
Q

Discrete Lesions

A

Description: distinct, individual lesions that remain separate
Ex. Skin tags, acne

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4
Q

Gyrate Lesions

A

Description: twisted, coiled, spiral, snakelike

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5
Q

Linear Lesions

A

Description: a scratch, a streak, line or stripe

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6
Q

Zosteriform Lesions

A

Description: linear arrangement along unilateral nerve route

Ex. Herpes Zoster

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7
Q

Grouped Lesions

A

Description: clusters of lesions

Ex/ Vesicles of contact dermatitis

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8
Q

Target Lesions

A

Description: resembles iris of eye, concentric rings of color in lesions
Ex. Erythema Multiforme

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9
Q

Polycyclic Lesions

A

Description: annular lesions grow together

Ex. psoriasis, lichen planus

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10
Q

Macule Lesion

A

Description: soley a color change, flat & circumscribed of less that 1 cm.
Ex. Freckles, petechiae, measles, scarlet fever

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11
Q

Papule Lesion

A

Description: solid elevated, circumscribed less than 1 cm.

Ex. Mole or Wart

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12
Q

Patch Lesion

A

Description: Macules that are larger than 1 cm.

Ex. mongolian spot, cafe au lait spots, measles rash

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13
Q

Nodule Lesions

A

Description: solid elevated, hard or soft, larger than 1 cm.

Ex. xanthoma, fibroma

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14
Q

Wheal Lesion

A

Description: superficial raised, transient & erythematous, slightly irregular shape from edema
Ex. Mosquito bite, allergic reaction

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15
Q

Urticaria Lesion (Hives)

A

Description: wheals coalesce to form extensive reaction, intensely pruritic

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16
Q

Vesicle Lesion

A

Description: elevated cavity containing free fluid, up to 1 cm. “blister”
Ex. Herpes simplex, early varcellia, herpes zoster

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17
Q

Bulla Lesion

A

Description: Larger than 1 cm. usually single chambered superficial to epidermis; thin walled & ruptures easily
Ex. Friction blister, burns

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18
Q

Cyst Lesion

A

Description: Encapsulated fluid-filled cavity in dermis or subcutaneous layer, tensely elevated
Ex. sebaceous cyst, wen

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19
Q

Pustule Lesion

A

Description: turbid fluid (pus) in the cavity. Circumscribed and elevated
Ex. Impentigo, acne

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20
Q

Crust Lesion

A

Description: The thickened, dried out exudate left when pustules burst or dry up
Ex. Impetigo (dry-honey color), scab

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21
Q

Scale Lesion

A

Description: Compact desiccated flakes of skin dryor greasy, silvery or white from shedding of dead excess keratin cells
Ex. Eczema, psoriasis, ichthyosis, seborrheic dermatitis

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22
Q

Fissure Lesion

A

Description: linear crack with abrupt edges, extends into dermis
Ex. Cheilosis (corners of mouth), athlete’s foot

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23
Q

Erosion Lesion

A

Description: Scooped out but shallow depression. Superficial; epidermis lost; no bleeding (b/c does not extend to dermis)

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24
Q

Ulcer Lesion

A

Description: Deeper depression extending into dermis, irregular shape; may bleed
Ex. Stasis ulcer, pressure injury

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25
Q

Excoriation Lesion

A

Description: self-inflicted abrasion; superficial; scratches from intense itching
Ex. insect bite, scabies, dermatitis

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26
Q

Scar Lesion

A

Description: After a skin lesion is repaired normal tissue is lost and replaced with connective tissue (collagen)
Ex. healed area of surgery, injury, or acne

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27
Q

Atrophic Scar Lesion

A

Description: Skin level is depressed with loss of tissue, thinning of epidermis
Ex. Striae

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28
Q

Keloid Lesion

A

Description: A benign excess of scar tissue beyond sites of original injury. May occur months-years after original trauma. Most common in ages 10-30 Africans, Hispanics, Asians.

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29
Q

Primary Skin Lesions

A 
Macule
Papule
Patch
Plaque
Nodule
Wheal
Tumor
Urticaria
Vesicle
Bulla
Cyst
Pustule
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30
Q

Secondary Skin Lesions

A 
Crust
Scale
Fissure
Erosion
Ulcer
Excoriation
Scar
Lichenification
Keloid
Atrophic Scar
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31
Q

Lichenification Lesion

A

Description: Prolonged intense scratching eventually thickens skin and produces tightly packed sets of papules

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32
Q

Lanugo

A

The fine downy hair of the newborn infant

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33
Q

Vitiligo

A

The complete absences of meanin pigment in patchy areas.

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34
Q

When assessing Skin Lesions what do the ABCDE’s stand for?

A 
A- Asymmetry
B- Border
C- Color variation
D- Diamete
E- Elevation
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35
Q

What color occurs on the skin with anemia, shock, arterial insufficiency?

A

Gray - Dark Skinned

Pallor - Light Skinned

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36
Q

When red-pink tones from oxygenated hemoglobin are lost the skin take on color of ___ tissue

A

Connective

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37
Q

Cyanosis

A

A blush-ish color from decreased profusion

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38
Q

Diaphoresis

A

Profuse perspiration

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39
Q

Diaphoresis accompanies (4 things)

A

Thyrotoxicosis
Heart Attach
Anxiety
Pain

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40
Q

What does the skin feel like during Hyperthyroidism?

A

Smooth, soft, like velvet

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41
Q

What does the skin feel like during Hypothyroidism?

A

Rough, dry, and flaky

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42
Q

Anasarca

A

Bilateral edema, generalized over whole body (consider central problem. Ex. Heart or Kidney failure)

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43
Q

Cherry (Senile) Angiomas

A

Small, slightly raised red dots that commonly appear on the trunk

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44
Q

What integumentary defect occurs when congenital cyanotic heart disease, lung cancer or pulmonary diseases occur?

A

Clubbing of the nails

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45
Q

Mongolain Spot

A

Hyperpigmenttion in African American, Asian, American Indian, And Latino newborns. Occurs usually around sacrum, or butt, sometimes on abdomen or arms

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46
Q

Cafe Au Lait Spots

A

Large round or oval patch of light brown pigmentation. Usually present at birth

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47
Q

What do you consider if you observe 6 or more Cafe Au Lait Spots on a newborn?

A

Neurofibromatosis

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48
Q

Erythema Toxicum

A

Common rash that appears first 3-4 days of life “Flea-bite rash”

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49
Q

Acrocyanosis

A

Temporary blue-ish color around lips, hands and fingernails in newborn

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50
Q

What could persistent Acrocyanosis be a sign of?

A

CyanoticCongenital Heart Disease

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51
Q

Cutis Marmorata

A

a transient mottling in trunk or extremities

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52
Q

What could persistent Cutis Marmorata occur with?

A

Down Syndrome or Prematurity

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53
Q

What are indicators of fetal distress?

A

Green-brown discoloration of skin, nails, and cord with passing of meconium in utero

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54
Q

Milia

A

tiny white papules on the forehead and eyelids caused by sebum that occludes the opening of the follicles

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55
Q

Physiologic Jaundice

A

Normal in 50% of newborns

Develops after the 3-4 day of life because of increased number of RBCs

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56
Q

What does Jaundice in a 1 day old baby indicate?

A

Hemolytic Disease

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57
Q

What does Jaundice in a 2 week old baby indicate?

A

Biliary Tract Obstruction

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58
Q

What does excessive sweating in children indicate?

A

Hypoglycemia, Heart Disease, Hyperthyroidism

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59
Q

Nevus Simplex or Stork Bite

A

Flat irregularly shaped red/pink patch on forehead or back of neck in newborns

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60
Q

Open Comedones

A

Blackheads

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61
Q

Closed Comedones

A

Whiteheads

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62
Q

Striae

A

“Stretch marks”

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63
Q

Linea Nigra

A

Brown-ish-Blackline down the midline if abdomen in pregnant women

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64
Q

Chloasma

A

Irregular brown patch of hyperpigmentation on the face of pregnant women

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65
Q

Why are Vascular Spider common in pregnant women?

A

Increase estrogen

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66
Q

5 or more spider angioma possibly indicate what in pregnant women?

A

Liver Disease

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67
Q

Senile Lentigines

A

Common variations of hyperpigmentation in older adults “Liver spots”

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68
Q

Keratoses

A

Raised thickened areas of pigmentation

Crusty, scaly or warty

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69
Q

Seborreic Keratoses

A

Dark, greasy, and” Stuck on”

Not cancerous

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70
Q

Actinic Keratoses

A

red-tan scaly plaques that increase in numbers and become raised and rough
Are premalignant

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71
Q

What is a healthy capillary refill time?

A

1.5-2 seconds; 4 seconds MAX

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72
Q

Sebaceous Hyperplasia

A

Raised yellow papule with a central depression

Occur in older adults

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73
Q

Subjective Data

A

What the person SAYS about him/herself

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74
Q

Objective Data

A

What you OBSERVE about the patient during assessment

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75
Q

What 6 Phases are included in the Nursing Process?

A 
Assessment
Diagnosis
Outcome Identification
Planning
Implementation
Evaluation
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76
Q

First Level Priority Problems

A

Life threatening - Emergent

Ex. ABC’s

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77
Q

Second Level Priority Problems

A

Require intervention before further deterioration

Ex. Mental status, acute pain, abnormal labs, risk of infections

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78
Q

Third Level Priority Problems

A

Require attention but can be attended to after more emergent problems

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79
Q

What is focus-centered database?

A

For limited/short-term problems

“Mini database”

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80
Q

What is a follow-up database?

A

Evaluated at regular intervals after initial visit

Used in both acute and chronic problems

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81
Q

What is a complete database?

A

Includes complete health history and full physical exam, both present and past health problems

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82
Q

What is an Emergency Database

A

Urgent rapid collection of crucial info and often compiled concurrently with lifesaving measures

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83
Q

Holistic Health

A

consideration of the whole person

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84
Q

Biomedical Theory

A

Theory of illness causation assumes that all events in life have a cause and effect.
“Germ Theory”

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85
Q

Naturalistic Theory

A

Believe that the forces of nature must be kept in natural balance or harmony

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86
Q

The Naturalistic Theory is most common in what 2 cultural groups?

A

American Indians

Asians

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87
Q

Magicoreligious Perspective

A

The world depends of supernatural forces for good and evil

Ex. Voodoo & Witchcraft

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88
Q

What does FICA mean?

A

Faith, Importance/Influence, Community, Address/Action

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89
Q

When do you use FICA?

A

To obtain a spiritual history

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90
Q

What does RCOPE questions have in common?

A

the word “God”

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91
Q

When do you use RCOPE?

A

To understand how a person is coping with loss or illness

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92
Q

As the interviewer what 4 internal factors should you be aware of?

A

Liking Others
Empathy
Ability to Listen
Self-Awareness

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93
Q

As the interviewer what 1 external factor should you be aware of?

A

The physical setting

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94
Q

As the interviewer how much space should be between you and the patient?

A

4-5 feet

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95
Q

Equal-Status Seating

A

Both you and the client should be comfortably seated at eye level with nothing in front of you. Chairs at 90 degrees

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96
Q

When do you use an open-ended question?

A

Begin interview
Introduce new sections of questions
Whenever the patient introduces a topic

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97
Q

When do you use closed/direct questions?

A

To elicit specific information

To fill in any details the patient may have left out

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98
Q

For what ages of a child would you focus more of the caregiver?

A

1-6

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99
Q

What could cause the child to feel threatened?

A

The interviewer standing above the child

Maintaining eye contact

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100
Q

What kind of words/sentences do you use when speaking to a child?

A

Short/simple words and sentences

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101
Q

Piaget’s Stage: Sensorimoter

A

Birth-2 years
Vocabulary: >200 words (mostly nonverbal communication)
Manipulation of Objects

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102
Q

Piaget’s Stage: Preoperational

A

2-6 years
Vocabulary: >10,000 words (grammar and language to communicate)
Symbolic Thinking

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103
Q

Piaget’s Stage: Concrete Operations

A

7-11 years
Vocabulary: Passive tense mastery; complex grammar
Logical Thinking; numbers

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104
Q

Piaget’s Stage: Formal Operations

A

12+ years
Vocabulary: Near adult-like
Abstract Thinking; futuristic; broad

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105
Q

Icebreakers for School-Aged-Childern

A

Friends, activities, sports, school

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106
Q

Adolescence stage begins with ___

A

Puberty

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107
Q

____ is the most important thing you can communicate to an adolescent

A

Respect

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108
Q

True/False: Ask adolescents questions about him/herself before health concern questions.

A

True. The adolescent wants to talk about him/herself first. Ask open ended questions about friends, schools, activities.

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109
Q

What kind of questions do you ask adolescents?

A

Short and simple

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110
Q

True/False: For an adolescent more emotionally charged questions should be asked later in the interview.

A

True. You have now developed a trust after the first parts of the interview. They are more willing to be truthful with you. Opportunity to discuss interventions. Praise good behaviors

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111
Q

Always address an older adult by his/her ____

A

Surname

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112
Q

What kind of questions do you ask older adults?

A

NOT short or simple; could be perceived as “baby talk”

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113
Q

Is it okay to touch the adolescent when beginning interviewing?

A

No, not before the physical exam

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114
Q

Is it okay to touch the older adult before beginning the interview?

A

Yes, nonverbal communication is important to older adults.

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115
Q

When a hearing-impaired patient who prefers lip-reading is being interviewed, What kind of person is best for this task?

A

A healthcare provider without a beard or mustache and no foreign accent.

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116
Q

What are the don’t to interviewing a patient who lip reads?

A

Exaggerating lip movement, shouting

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117
Q

What are the do’s to interviewing a patient who lip reads?

A

Slow speech with hand gestures

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118
Q

These drugs are CNS depressants

A

Alcohol, Benzodiazepines, Opioids (Heroin, methadone, Morphine, Oxycodone)

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119
Q

What do CNS depressants do?

A

Slow brain activity, and impair judgement, memory, intellectual performance and motor skills.

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120
Q

These drugs are simulates of the CNS

A

Cocaine and Amphetamine

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121
Q

What do CNS stimulates do?

A

Cause intense high, agitation, and paranoid behavior

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122
Q

These drugs are hallucinogens

A

LSD, Ketamine, PCP

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123
Q

What do hallucinogens do?

A

Cause bizarre, inappropriate, sometimes violent behavior. Superhuman strength and insensitivity to pain

124
Q

What kind of question do you ask a patient under the influence of drugs?

A

Nonthreatening questions and manners

125
Q

What do you avoid while interviewing someone under the influence?

A

Confrontation & turning your back to them

126
Q

What is the top priority when interviewing someone under the influence?

A

Find out the time the patient took their last drug, how much it was, and what exactly it was

127
Q

What do you do first when interviewing someone who is already angry?

A

Deal with the angry feelings first before starting the interview.

128
Q

What is the Health History Sequence?

A 
Biographic Data
Reason for seeking care
Present health
Past history
Medication reconciliation
Family history
Review of systems
Functional Assessment or ADLs
129
Q

What does ADL mean?

A

Activities of Daily Living

130
Q

Symptom

A

A SUBJECTIVE sensation that the person feels from the disorder

131
Q

Sign

A

An OBJECTIVE abnormality that you as the examiner could detect on physical examination or through diagnostic testing

132
Q

Present Health includes:

A 
Location
Character/Quality
Quantity/Severity
Timing
Setting
Relieving Factors
Associated Factors
Patient's Perception
133
Q

Past Health includes:

A 
Childhood Illnesses
Accidents/Injuries
Serious/Chronic Illnesses
Hospitalizations
Operations
Obstetric History
Immunizations
Last Exam Date
Allergies
Current Medications
134
Q

Medication Reconciliation

A

A comparison list of current medications with a previous list. The purpose is to reduce errors and promote patient safety

135
Q

Medications include:

A 
Over the counter medication (Especially aspirin)
Vitamins
Birth control
Antacids
Cold Remedies
Herbal Medications
136
Q

What are the three purposes fro review of systems?

A
  1. ) To evaluate the past and present health state of each body system
  2. ) To double-check in case any significant data was omitted in Present Illness Section
  3. ) To evaluate health promotion practices
137
Q

What is the order of system review examination?

A

Head-to-Toe

138
Q

What is important to mention when reviewing the Musculoskeletal System?

A

History of arthritis or gout

139
Q

How do you ask about Intimate Partner Violence?

A

With open-ended questions first. If they feel unsafe, follow up with closed/direct questions

140
Q

How do you ask about Prenatal Status?

A

Start with open-ended questions. “Tell me about your pregnancy.”

141
Q

What are common pediatric allergies?

A

Cow’s milk, eggs, peanuts, tree nuts, soybean, and fish

142
Q

What is the difference between a true allergy and a food intolerance?

A

True Allergy: Can be life threatening

Food Intolerance: Causes distress, and illness, non life threatening

143
Q

What motor skills should a school-aged-child posess?

A

Run, jump, climbs, rides bike, coordinated skills: tie shoe, uses scissors, language skills: tell time, vocabulary

144
Q

What should be recorded when taking a nutritional history of an infant?

A 
If the child is breastfed or bottle fed
Nursing frequency, duration
Any supplements
Method of weaning
Formula type
Any problems
Introduction to solid foods
145
Q

What should be recorded when taking a nutritional history of a preschool and school-aged-child

A 
Appetite
24-hour recall
Vitamins
Junk food
Parent's perception of child's nutrition
146
Q

What does HEEADSSS stand for?

A 
H -Home Environment
E- Education
E- Eating
A- Activities
D- Drugs
S- Sexuality
S- Suicide/Depression
S- Safety
147
Q

How many hours of sleep does a teen need?

A

9 hours per night

148
Q

When do you use HEEADSSS?

A

When interviewing an adolescent

149
Q

Palpation

A

Applies sense of touch while examining a patient

150
Q

What can fingertips feel best when palpating?

A

Fine tactile discrimination: texture, swelling, pulsation, and lumps

151
Q

What can grasping with finger and thumb feel best when palpating?

A

Position, shape, and consistency of organ or mass

152
Q

What can the dorsa of the hands and fingers feel best when palpating?

A

Temperature

153
Q

What can the base of fingers feel best when palpating?

A

Vibration

154
Q

Percussion

A

Tapping the person’s skin with short, sharp strokes to assess underlying structures

155
Q

Inspection

A

Concentrated watching

156
Q

What sound would come from normal lung tissue?

A

Medium/loud, low pitched clear/hollow sound

157
Q

What sound would come from a child’s lung or an adult with emphysema?

A

Louder low pitched booming sound

158
Q

What sound would come from a stomach or intestine?

A

Loud high pitched musical sound

159
Q

What sound would come from a dense organ?

A

Soft high pitched muffled sound

160
Q

What sound would come from a location where no air is present? (Muscle/Bone)

A

Very soft high pitched sound with a dead stop/dullness

161
Q

What 4 characteristics are assessed when performing percussion?

A

Amplitude
Pitch
Quality
Duration

162
Q

What sounds are heard best by the diaphragm?

A

Breath, bowel, and normal heart sounds

163
Q

What sounds are heard best by the bell?

A

Extra heart sounds or murmurs

164
Q

What lighting is best for an examination room?

A

Tangenital Lighting

165
Q

True/False: The Otoscope can be use to inspect the ear and nose

A

True.

166
Q

Opthalmascope

A

illuminates the internal eye structures

167
Q

Which microorganisms are antibiotic resistant and difficult to treat?

A

MRSA, VRE, and tuberculosis

168
Q

Which microorganism are most effectively rid by alcohol?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Hepatitis B & C, and HIV

169
Q

When examining a patient what should you start with? (So they don’t feel a threat?

A

Vital Signs (Make small talk), then examine hands (skin)

170
Q

What is the major task of the infant?

A

Establishing trust

171
Q

When should an examination occur for an infant?

A

1-2 hour AFTER feeding

172
Q

True/False: It is okay to examine a baby while it is sleeping

A

True.

173
Q

What should you do when the infant is fussy?

A

Offer brightly colored toys

174
Q

Should you keep eye contact with an infant while examining?

A

Yes.

175
Q

What should you use when performing invasive steps on an infant?

A

A pacifier

176
Q

What do you perform at the end of the examination with an infant?

A

The Moro “Startle” reflex

177
Q

What is the major task of a toddler?

A

Developing Autonomy

178
Q

Where should the toddler be sitting when the examination is performed?

A

The caregiver’s lap

179
Q

Who should undress the toddler for examination?

A

The caregiver

180
Q

What is the major task for a preschool child?

A

Developing initiative

181
Q

What age will a child feel comfortable of the exam table?

A

4 or 5 years old

182
Q

How can you reduce the fears of a preschool child?

A

Let him/her play with equipment first

183
Q

What should you provide when examining a preschool & adolescent child?

A

Reassurance and Praise

184
Q

What should you examine first when examining a preschool child?

A

Thorax, abdomen, extremities, and genitals

185
Q

What should you examine first when examining an adolescent?

A

Head-to-toe assessment - Genital last

186
Q

What is the major task of an adolescent?

A

Developing self-identity

187
Q

What is the major task of a school-aged-child

A

Developing industry

188
Q

When can a child decide whether a caregiver can stay in the examination room?

A

Age 11 or 12

189
Q

What is the major task of an older adult?

A

Developing the meaning of life and one’s own existence

190
Q

Should the adolescent be examined with a caregiver in the room?

A

No

191
Q

When a patient is exhibiting a Tripod position it can be an indicator of ____

A

Chronic Pulmonary Disease

192
Q

A toddler usually exhibits ___ regarding posture

A

“Toddler Lordosis”

193
Q

Gait

A

Feet approximately shoulder width apart; foot placement is accurate (Normal)

194
Q

When a patient is sitting straight up and resist laying down this can be an indicator of ____

A

Heart Failure

195
Q

When a patient is curled up in the fetal position this can be an indicator of ____

A

Acute Abdominal Pain

196
Q

Propulsion

A

difficulty stoping after ambulation (Abnormal)

197
Q

ROM

A

Range of Motion

198
Q

How can you help people how appear anxious?

A

Smile

199
Q

Velcro fasteners instead of buttons on clothing may be an indicator of ____

A

Motor Disfunction

200
Q

Short-term illnesses associated with unexplained weight loss

A

Fever
Infection
Disease of the mouth or throat

201
Q

Long-term illnesses associated with unexplained weight loss

A 
Endocrine diseases
Malignancy
Depression
Anorexia Nervosa
Bulimia
202
Q

Unexplained weight gain is associated with what?

A

Heart Failure

203
Q

BMI can be calculated by:

A

lb./in. X 703 OR kg./meter2 (squared)

204
Q

What one thing can cause a false BMI?

A

Gain or loss of muscle mass

205
Q

What is the normal BMI range?

A

18.5-24.9

206
Q

A patient with a 17.9 BMI is classified as what?

A

Underweight

207
Q

A patient with 25.1 BMI is classified as what?

A

Overweight

208
Q

A patient with 34.5 BMI is classified as what?

A

Class 1 Obesity

209
Q

A patient with 37.2 BMI is classified as what?

A

Class 2 Obesity

210
Q

A patient with 41.1 BMI is classified as what?

A

Extreme Obesity (Class 3)

211
Q

What biological marker would you use to place a measuring tape when measuring waist circumference?

A

The top of the iliac crest (hip bone)

212
Q

Normal waist circumference in women:

A

Less than or equal to 35 in.

213
Q

Normal waist circumference in men:

A

Less than or equal to 40 in.

214
Q

A larger waist circumference in either men or women could put them at a higher risk for __ ___ ___ ___

A

Type 2 Diabetes
Dyslipisemia
Hypertension
Cardiac Vascular Disease (CVD)

215
Q

Signs of child abuse are:

A

Child avoids eye contact
Exhibits no separation anxiety
Parent is disgusted by child’s odor, sounds, drooling, or stools

216
Q

What do you weigh an infant on?

A

Platform-type Scale (weigh to the nearest 1/2 oz.)

217
Q

When do you use am upright scale to take a child’s weight?

A

2-3 years

218
Q

When would you stop measuring a child’s height in a supine position?

A

At 2 years of age

219
Q

What biological marker do you use to measure head circumference?

A

The eyebrows

220
Q

If the head is irregularly large for child’s age it can be an indicator of ____

A

Intracranial Pressure

221
Q

What biological marker do you use to measure chest circumference?

A

The Nipple Line

222
Q

Kyphosis

A

Humpback appearance common in the very old and those with osteoporosis

223
Q

What is different about older adult’s gait?

A

It is usually wider base to compensate for diminished balance

224
Q

What 3 things contribute to older adult’s height shrinkage?

A

Thinning of vertebral disks
Postural changes (Kyphosis)
Slight flexion of knees and hips

225
Q

Hypopituitary Dwarfism is a deficiency of what hormone at what stage of life?

A

Growth Hormone in childhood

226
Q

Gigantism is excessive secretion of which hormone and at which stage of life?

A

Growth Hormone in childhood

227
Q

Where is growth hormone secreted from?

A

Anterior Pituitary Gland

228
Q

What are signs of gigantism?

A

Increased height and weight and delayed sexual development

229
Q

Acromegaly is also called ____

A

Hyperpituitarism

230
Q

Acromegaly is excessive OR deficiency of growth hormone secretion in what stage of life?

A

Excessive secretion in the adult years

231
Q

What are signs of Acromegaly?

A

Overgrowth of bones in face, hands, and feet (Not height)

232
Q

What complication can be a cause from Acromegaly?

A 
Enlarged internal organs (Cardiomegaly)
Metabolic Disorders (Diabetes Mellitus)
233
Q

Achondroplastic Dwarfism is what kind of disorder?

A

Genetic

234
Q

Achondroplastic Dwarfism signs

A 
Normal trunk size
Short arms & legs
Short Stature
Large head with frontal bossing
Midface hypoplasia
Thoracic Kyphosis
Lumbar Lordosis
Abdominal Protrusion
235
Q

Anorexia Nervosa is what kind of disorder?

A

Mental

236
Q

Cushing Syndrome is an excessive production of which hormone?

A

Adrenocorticotropin (ACTH)

237
Q

ACTH stimulate the adrenal cortex to produce ____

A

Cortisol

238
Q

Cushing Syndrome signs

A 
Weight gain
Edema
Obesity
Buffalo Hump
Muscle wasting
Weakness
Reduced height
Bruising 
Acne
239
Q

You can get Marfan’s Syndrome by ____

A

Heredity

240
Q

Marfan’s Syndrome signs

A 
Tall; thin stature
Arachnodactyly (Long thin fingers)
Hyperextenible joints
Arm span greater than height
Pectus Excavatum (Sternal deformity)
High arched narrow palate
Narrow Face
Pes Planus (Flat feet)
241
Q

What can occur in a patient with Marfan’s Syndrome

A

Cardiovascular complications

Leading to early mortality rates

242
Q

What is the normal oral temp range?

A

96.4-99.1

243
Q

What is the temperature regulator of the body?

A

Hypothalamus

244
Q

Do older adult have normal deep temperature readings?

A

No. Older adult’s temperature are usually lower (97.2)

245
Q

What temp is considered to be Hypothermia?

A

Below 96.8 degrees

246
Q

What temp is considered to be Hyperthermia?

A

Greater than 100.4

247
Q

Normal heart rates are higher in infants OR adults?

A

Infants- resting heart rate range is 100-180 (adults resting heart rate range is 55-90)

248
Q

Bradycardia is common in patients experiencing ___

A

Heart Disease

249
Q

What is a common symptom of fever, sepsis, pneumonia, myocardial infarction, and pancreatitis?

A

Tachycardia

250
Q

What does weak thready pulse reflect?

A

Decrease Stroke volume

251
Q

A patient with a 0 pulse force recording has what kind of pulse?

A

None

252
Q

A patient with a 1+ pulse force has what kind of pulse?

A

Weak and thready

253
Q

A patient with a 3+ pulse force has what kind of pulse?

A

Full and bounding

254
Q

Normal Respiratory rate for 0-1 year old

A

24-38

255
Q

Normal Respiratory rate for 1-3 year old

A

22-30

256
Q

Normal Respiratory rate for 4-6 year old

A

20-24

257
Q

Normal Respiratory rate for 7-9 year old

A

18-24

258
Q

Normal Respiratory rate for 10-14 year old

A

16-22

259
Q

Normal Respiratory rate for 15-18

A

14-20

260
Q

Normal Respiratory rate for adult

A

10-20

261
Q

What mean arterial pressure (MAP) is needed to maintain adequate tissue and organ profusion?

A

Greater than 60 mmHg

262
Q

The level of BP is determine by which 5 factors?

A 
Cardiac Output
Vascular Resistance
Volume
Viscosity
Elesticity of Arteriole Walls
263
Q

What does the BP do if cardiac out increases?

A

BP increases

264
Q

What does BP do if blood viscosity increases?

A

BP increases

265
Q

What is the auscultatory gap?

A

a period when Korotkoff sounds disappear during auscultation

266
Q

What is the interval between Orthostatic Vital Signs positions?

A

3 minutes

267
Q

In a patient with coarctation of the aorta where do you take BP?

A

Thigh

268
Q

Why do you take BP in the thigh of a patient with coarctation of the aorta?

A

The blood supply to the thigh is not effected by the constriction. The arm is therefore the BP will be falsely high

269
Q

Nociceptors

A

Detect painful sensations from the periphery and transmit them to the CNS

270
Q

What two primary sensory fibers are part of Nociceptors

A

AS & C fibers

271
Q

AS fibers

A

Myelinated; large in diameter; transmit more rapid

272
Q

C fibers

A

Unmyelinated; smaller; transmit more slowly

Associated with sensations of diffused, aching and long lasting

273
Q

Nociceptive 4 Phases

A
  1. ) Transduction
  2. ) Transmission
  3. ) Perception
  4. ) Modulation
274
Q

What happened on a molecular lever during transduction?

A

Injured tissues release a variety of chemicals, including substance P, histamine, prostaglandins, serotonin, and bradykinin

275
Q

Where does the pain impulse move from and to during Transmission?

A

From the spinal cord to the brain (Thalamus to higher cortical areas)

276
Q

What is perception?

A

Signifies the conscious awareness of a painful sensation

277
Q

What part of the brain usually interprets is perception of pain?

A

Limbic System

278
Q

What does modulation do?

A

Inhibit pain signals (stop/slow down)

279
Q

Neurotransmitters that produce an analgesic effect:

A

Serotonin, Norepinephrine, Neurotensin, GABA, Endorphines, Enkephalins, Dynorphins

280
Q

Examples of Nociceptive pain:

A

Skinned knee, menstrual cramps, kidney stones, venipuncture, joint pain

281
Q

True/False Nociceptive pain can turn into Neuropathic pain over time.

A

True. B/c constant irritation and inflammation can alter nerve cells

282
Q

Neuropathic pain

A

Abnormal processing of pain message

283
Q

Conditions that cause Neuropathic pain:

A

Diabetes mellitus
Herpes Zoster
HIV/AIDS
Chemotherapy

284
Q

What device can you use to identify pain?

A

fMRI - Functional MRI

285
Q

Visceral Pain

A

Originates from larger internal organs

286
Q

What is visceral pain described as?

A

Dull, deep, squeezing, cramping

287
Q

Somatic Pain

A

Originated from musculoskeletal tissues or body surface

288
Q

Deep Somatic Pain

A

Comes from sources such as the blood vessels, joints, tendons, muscles, and bone

289
Q

Cutaneous Pain

A

Derived from skin surface and subcutaneous tissues

290
Q

What is deep somatic pain described as?

A

Aching or Throbbing

291
Q

What is cutaneous pain described as?

A

Superficial, sharp, or burning

292
Q

What is somatic pain described as?

A

Sharp or dull

293
Q

What symptoms can accompany somatic pain?

A

Nausea, sweating, vomiting, tachycardia, hypertension (Like Visceral Pain)

294
Q

Acute Pain

A

Short-term

Dissipates after injury heals

295
Q

Chronic Pain

A

When pain continues for 6 months or longer

296
Q

What chronic nonmalignant pain associated with?

A

Musculoskeletal conditions (Arthritis, Low back pain, Fibromyalgia)

297
Q

Breakthrough Pain

A

A transient spike in pain level in an otherwise controlled pain syndrome. (End-of-dose medication failure)

298
Q

Referred Pain

A

Pain felt at a particular sire but originates from another location

299
Q

When should pain rating scales be introduced?

A

4 or 5 years old

300
Q

What are some acute pain behaviors?

A

Guarding, Grimacing, vocalization (moaning), agitation, restlessness, stillness, diaphoresis, change in vital signs

301
Q

What are some chronic pain behaviors?

A

Bracing, rubbing, diminished activity, and change in appetite

302
Q

What does the CRIES pain tool measure?

A

Physiologic and behavior indicators of neonates on a 3 point scale

303
Q

What is FLACC?

A

A nonverbal assessment tool for infants and young children under 3 years old

304
Q

What 5 things does FLACC assess?

A

Facial expression, Leg movement, Activity level, Cry, and Consolability

305
Q

Hoe do people with dementia communicate pain?

A

Agitation, pacing, repetitive yelling

Health Assessment (27 decks)

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