Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BOC > Chapter 9: Mechanisms and Characteristics of Sports Trauma > Flashcards

Chapter 9: Mechanisms and Characteristics of Sports Trauma Flashcards

1
Q

How are load and stress related?

A

A load is an external force acting on tissue, whereas stress is an internal resistance to an external load.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is mechanical failure & how is it related to yield point?

A

Mechanical failure occurs when the ability of the tissue to withstand stress and strain is exceeded. Yield point is when tissue is deformed to the extent that it no longer reacts elasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 5 types of tissue stresses?

A

Compression: external load on opposite surfaces in opposite directions
Tension: force that pulls or stretches tissue, Muscle strains & Ligament sprains
Shearing: equal but not opposite loads are applied to a surfaces in parallel directions, blisters, abrasions, vertebral disk injuries
Bending: two force pairs act at opposite ends of a structure
Torsion: twisting in opposite directions from opposite ends causing a shear stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is clonic? Tonic?

A

Clonic is an involuntary muscle contraction with alternate contraction and relaxation in rapid succession. Tonic is a muscle contraction that lasts for a period of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When does DOMS appear, is most intense, and is symptom free?

A

About 12 hours after injury, most intense after 24-48 hours, and is symptom free after 3-4 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are osteoclasts?

A

Bone-remodeling cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are osteoblasts?

A

Bone-producing cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pott’s Fracture

A

Bimalleolar ankle fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Colles Fracture

A

Distal radius fracture with dorsal displacement of the wrist and hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Saltar Harris Classification

A

Epiphyseal growth plate injury classifications…Type 1: complete separation, Type 2: fracture/separation of growth plate, Type 3: fracture physis, Type 4: fracture-physis and metaphysis Type V: crushing with no discplacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Neuropraxia

A

Interruption in the conduction of the impulse down the nerve fiber, mildest form, compression or mild blunt blows close to the nerve, temporary loss of function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Neuritis

A

A chronic nerve problem, inflammation of the nerve, minor nerve problems to paralysis, crushing or severing of the nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Nerve injury via what 2 forces?

A

Compression and overstretching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

5 types of open wound

A

abrasions, incisions, lacerations, punctures, avulsions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 3 types of muscles

A

smooth, cardiac, and striated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is muscle guarding?

A

muscle contraction in response to pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the 3 grades of strain?

A

1: some muscle fibers have been stretched or actually torn
2: a number of muscle fibers have been torn, and active contraction of the muscle is extremely painful
3. a complete rupture of a muscle has occurred in the area of the muscle belly at the point at which muscle becomes tendon or at the tendinous attachment to the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

tendon injuries

A

can produce and maintain a pull from 8700 to 18000 pounds per square inch. a breaking point occurs after a 6% to 8% increase in length.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What differentiates a trigger point from a tender point?

A

trigger point: referred pain

tender point: pain at the site of palpation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does ectopic mean?

A

located somewhere besides the normal place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is myositis ossificans?

A

calcium deposits that result from repeated trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the difference between hyaline, fibrous, and elastic cartilage?

A

hyaline: lining of bones in joints (most abundant)
fibrous: tough support or great tensile strength
elastic: line ears and several tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a ball-and-socket joint? Examples?

A

allows widest ROM

shoulder and hip

24
Q

What is the difference between synarthrotic, amphiarthrotic, and diarthrotic joints?

A

syn: immovable joint
amp: slightly movable joint
dia: freely movable joint

25
Q

What is a hinge joint? Examples?

A

allows only flexion and extension

elbow and knee

26
Q

What is a pivot joint? Examples?

A

allows rotation

axis and atlas

27
Q

What is an ellopsoidal joint? Example?

A

allows angular motion but not rotation

b.t. metacarpals and phalanges

28
Q

What is a saddle joint? Example?

A

both concave and convex surface. wide ROM

ONLY thumb

29
Q

What is a gliding joint? Example?

A

allows sliding or twisting without any circular motion

carpals and tarsals

30
Q

What is the difference between a subluxation and a dislocation?

A

subluxation: a bone is forced out of alignment but goes back into place
dislocation: a bone is forced out of alignment and stays out util surgically or manually replaced or reduced

31
Q

How is a first-time dislocation treated differently than successive ones? How does the pain level compare?

A

“once a dislocation, always a dislocation”. connective tissue is too loose and joint is extremely vulnerable to subsequent dislocations.

first-time should always be considered and treated as a possible fracture. pain decreases over time.

32
Q

What is osteoarthritis? What is arthoplasty?

A

osteoarthritis: a wearing down a hyaline cartilage
arthoplasty: surgical repair of joint

33
Q

What are the 5 functions of bone?

A

body support, organ protection, movement, calcium storage, and formation of blood cells

34
Q

Where do you find flat bones?

A

skull, ribs, and scapulae

35
Q

Where do you find irregular bones?

A

vertebral column and the skull

36
Q

Where do you find shot bones?

A

wrist and ankle

37
Q

Where do you find long bones?

A

humerus, ulna, femur, tibia, fibular, phalanges

38
Q

What is spongy and compact bone?

A

Spongy: aka cancellous bone (inside and ends of bone)
Compact: aka cortical bone (outside of bones)

39
Q

What is the medullar cavity?

A

a hollow tube in the long bone diaphysis, contains a yellow, fatty marro in adults. lined by the endosteum.

40
Q

What is the periosteum?

A

a dense, white, fibrous membrane that covers long bones except at joint surfaces. many fibers, called sharpey’s fibers, emante from the periosteum and penetrate the underlying bone. it is interlaced with muscle tendons. on its inner layer there exists countless blood vessels and osetoblasts.

41
Q

What lies between the diaphysis and the epiphysis?

A

the growth plate. ossification in long bones begins in the diaphysis and in both epiphyses. it proceeds from the diaphysis toward each epiphysis and from each epiphysis toward the diaphysis.

42
Q

Why is the clavicle considered to have an anatomical weak point?

A

prone to fractures because it changes from round to flat at the same point at which it changes direction

43
Q

What is a greenstick fracture?

A

incomplete breaks in bones that have no completely ossified

44
Q

What is a comminuted fracture?

A

consists of three or more fragments at the fracture site - caused by a hard blow or a fall in an awkward position.

45
Q

What is a linear fracture?

A

bone splits along its length - from jumping from a height and landing in such a way as to impart force or stress to the long axis

46
Q

What is a transverse fracture?

A

occur in a straight line, more or less at right angles to the bone shaft - caused by a direct blow

47
Q

What is an oblique fracture?

A

when one end of the bone receives sudden torsion or twisting while the other end is fixed

48
Q

What is a spiral fracture?

A

an S-shaped separation - common in football and skiing, where the foot is firmly planted when the body is suddenlyAA rotated in an opposing direction

49
Q

What is an impacted fracture?

A

causes a long bone to receive, directly on its long axis, a force of such magnitude that the osseous tissue is compressed - result from a fall from a height.

50
Q

What is an avulsion fracture?

A

separation of a bone fragment from its cortex at an attachment of a ligament or tendon - occurs as a result of a sudden, powerful twist or stretch of a body part

51
Q

What is a blowout fracture?

A

occur to the wall of the eye orbit as a result of a blow to the eye

52
Q

What is a serrated fracture?

A

when two bony fragments have a sawtooth, sharp-edged fracture line - caused by a direct blow

53
Q

What is a depressed fracture?

A

most often in flat bones - caused by falling and striking the head on a hard, immovable surface or by being hit with a hard object

54
Q

What is a contrecoup fracture?

A

occur on the side opposite the point at which trauma was initiated

55
Q

common sites of stress fractures?

A

tibia, fibula, metatarsal shaft, calcaneus, femur, pars interartcularis of the lumbar vertebrae, ribs, and humerus

BOC (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions