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Pathophysiology > Chapter 8- Infection and Defects in Mechanisms of Defense > Flashcards

Chapter 8- Infection and Defects in Mechanisms of Defense Flashcards

1
Q

the ability to spread from one individual to others and cause disease

A

communicability

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2
Q

this is the severity or harmfulness of a disease or poison

A

virulence

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3
Q

pathogen ability to invade and multiply in host

A

infectivity

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4
Q

ability to produce toxins – greatly influence pathogen’s virulence

A

toxigenicity

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5
Q

route by which a pathogen infects host. E.g., direct contact, inhalation or ingestion; bites of an animal or insect

A

portal of entry

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6
Q

two factors that make gram - more difficult to defeat than gram +

A

outer membrane and porin channels

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7
Q

this bacteria is life threatening, common on normal skin and nasal passages and major cause of nosocomial infections

A

staphylococcus aureus

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8
Q

staphylococcus aureus resists actions of many ______

A

antibiotics

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9
Q

what are the two types of toxins production?

A

endotoxins & exotoxins

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10
Q

which toxin production is released from the inside and enzymes that damage host cell plama membrans or inactive enzymes critical to protein synthesis

A

exotoxins

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11
Q

which toxin production is released from outer capsul and activate inflammatory response and produce fever

A

endotoxins

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12
Q

what are the result of defense mechanisms failure

A

bacteremia (presense) & septicemia (growth)

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13
Q

what does endotoxin do in our body?

A

activate inflammatory response and activate complement and clotting systems, which leads to increased capillary permeabilty, large volumes of plasma into surrounding tissue and resulting in hypotension

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14
Q

what disease is most common affliction of humans, replication requires entry into host cell and self-limiting

A

viral disease

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15
Q

in viral disease, DNA/RNA surrounded by ____ and perhaps envelope

A

capsid

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16
Q

what are the ways people transmit viral disease

A

aerosol, infected blood, sexual contact and vector

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17
Q

what is cytopathic

A

causing damage to living cells

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18
Q

this is a type of viral disease that is highly contagious viral infection of respiratory passages

A

influenza

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19
Q

the ability to change viral antigen yearly

A

antigenic variation

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20
Q

what is responsible for COVID- 19

A

SARS-CoV-2 virus

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21
Q

what does antigen utilize to active in order carry out antigenic variation

A

adaptive immune response

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22
Q

in order to change antigen, _____ adaptive immune response must occur

A

dysfunction

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23
Q

what infection resist penicillin, as wells as these are large eukaryotes with thick and rigid cell walls

A

fungal infection

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24
Q

fungal infection exist as single- celled ____, multi-cellular ____ or both

A

yeasts; molds

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25
Q

what is the reproduction of fungal infection: simple ____ or _____

A

division; budding

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26
Q

what are mycoses

A

diseases caused by fungi

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27
Q

what are dermatophytes

A

fungi that invade skin, hair or nails

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28
Q

what do you call to the disease dermatophytes produce

A

tineas

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29
Q

pathogenicity is when the fungus adapt to the host environment due to ____ temperature variation and ____ O2

A

wide; low

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30
Q

low ___ blood cell count promotes fungal infection

A

white

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31
Q

this is the most common fungal infection

A

candida albicans

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32
Q

where does candida albicans found most likely?

A

normal skin microbiome, GI tract and vagina

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33
Q

in candida albicans, most common fungal infections are in ____ patients and transplantations

A

cancer

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34
Q

death rate of disseminated candidiasis is ____

A

30%-40%

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35
Q

this infection is spread to human to human via vectors (e.g., ticks and mosquitos) or ingestion of contaminated food or water

A

parasitic infection

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36
Q

parasitic infection are ____ protozoa to large worms

A

unicellular

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37
Q

Plasmodium (malaria) occurs in ____ blood cells

A

red

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38
Q

what countermeasures are natural products of fungi, bacteria or other microorganisms that affect growth of specific microorganisms

A

antibiotics

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39
Q

two types of antimicrobials

A

bactericidal & bacteriostatic

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40
Q

what antimicrobial kills other microorganisms

A

bactericidal

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41
Q

what antimicrobial inhibits growth of other microorganisms

A

bacteriostatic

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42
Q

what caused the rise in antibiotic resistance?

A

lack of compliance with therapeutic regimen: not using antibiotic for prescribed duration.

As a result, strongest microbes are left alive = repopulation with pathogens resistant to specific antibiotic

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43
Q

what consequence is the destruction of normal microbiome

A

overuse of antibiotics

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44
Q

what % of HERD immunity usually requires

A

85%

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45
Q

this countermeasures is the biological preparations of weakened (attenuated) or dead (inactivated) pathogen

A

vaccines

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46
Q

adaptive response of vaccine is usually require ___ weeks to activate

A

two

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47
Q

what is the vaccine mixture?

A

DTaP vaccine – diptheria, tetanus and pertussis (aka whooping cough)

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48
Q

what countermeasures is when chemically altered pathogen toxin is injected into body

A

toxoids

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49
Q

this countermeasure preformed antibodies are given to individual

A

passive immunotheraphy

50
Q

passive immunotherapy becomes the focus after the rise of antibiotic ____

A

resistance

51
Q

what are the 2 deficiencies in immunity

A

primary & secondary

52
Q

what is primary deficiencies

A

aka congenital; caused by genetic defect

53
Q

what is secondary deficiency

A

aka acquired; caused by another illness

54
Q

primary deficiency is most result of a ____ gene defect

A

single

55
Q

in primary deficiency, mutation occurs ____ birth but ____ may appear early or late in life

A

before; symtoms

56
Q

in Canada, __ in 200 have primary deficiency

A

1

57
Q

primary deficiencies are categorized in ___ based upon what aspect of immune system is defective

A

groups

58
Q

some combines deficiences are?

A

SCID, DiGeorge syndrome and Hypogammaglobulinemia

59
Q

what combined deficiency is underdeveloped thymus?

A

SCID

60
Q

when there is underdeveloped thymus there is absence of ____ cells

A

t-cells

61
Q

which combined deficiency acquired when thymus and parathyroid dsyfunctions

A

DiGeorge syndrome

62
Q

when a person have DiGeorge syndrome, they have inadequate ___ cell production and management of plasma __

A

t; calcium

63
Q

what is the result of hypogammaglobulinemia

A

defect in B cell maturation or function

64
Q

in hypogammaglobulinemia, there are lower levels of circulating ______ in blood

A

immunoglobulins or antibodies

65
Q

secondary deficiencies are ___ common than ____ deficiency but not at ____ relevant

A

far; primary; clinically

66
Q

AIDS/ Cancer are extremely ____ secondary deficiencies

A

severe

67
Q

what is complete blood count or CBC

A

the total numbers of RBC, WBC and platelets

68
Q

what is differential in terms of evaluation of immunity?

A

individual numbers of lymphocytes, granulocytes and monocytes

69
Q

what is total complement assay

A

total # of complements in blood

70
Q

____ determination of immunoglobulins which determines ___ of immunoglobulins

A

quantitative; subpopulations

71
Q

Stem cell transplantation from ___ ____, _____ cord cells

A

bone marrow; umbilical

72
Q

what result of reconstitution of immune system

A

gene therapy

73
Q

what is some caution of gene therapy

A

some reciepients develop leukemia

74
Q

what is gene therapy

A

inserted normal genes into their genetic material

75
Q

what is mesenchymal stem cell (MSCs) injection

A

undifferentiated stem cells found in bone marrow which undergo differentiation in other cell types

76
Q

which replacement therapies have potent immunosuppressive properties

A

mesenchymal stem cell

77
Q

what syndrome caused by viral disease

A

HIV

78
Q

what are the result of HIV

A

dysfunctional adaptive immune system; increased susceptibility to disease and AIDS

79
Q

when the person has HIV, it depletes ____ ___ cells

A

helper t

80
Q

helper t cells are necessary for activation of both __ and ___ cells

A

t; b

81
Q

_____ activity is most common transmission of AIDS

A

heterosexual

82
Q

women constitute more than ___ % of people infected of AIDS

A

50%

83
Q

what are some difficulties with vaccine development with HIV?

A

people with HIV have high levels of antibodies but don’t appear to be protective; HIV genetically and antigenically variable

84
Q

what is epidemiology

A

branch of medicine that deals with incidence, distribution and possible control of diseases

85
Q

what is the treatment and prevention of HIV

A

ART or anti-retroviral therapy

86
Q

retroviral means virus with ___ not DNA

A

RNA

87
Q

ART is a combination of following effects?

A

entrance inhibitors, reverse transcriptase inhibitors, integrase inhibitors and protease inhibitors

88
Q

what is hypersensitivity?

A

altered immunological response to an antigen that results in disease or damage to host

89
Q

this type of hypersensitivity is due to harmful effects of hypersentivity to environmental antigen

A

allergy

90
Q

this hypersensitivity is a disturbance in immunological tolerance of self-antigens

A

autoimmunity

91
Q

this hypersensitivity is due to immune rxn to tissues of another individuals – observed from transfusions, transplants or fetus during pregnancy

A

alloimmunity

92
Q

what are the mechanisms of hypersensitivity?

A

type I - IgE mediated
type II - tissue specific rxn
type III - immune complex mediated
type IV - cell mediated

93
Q

most hypersensitive rxns include ___ than one type

A

more

94
Q

reactions that occurs within minutes or hours?

A

immediate hypersensitive rxns

95
Q

most rapid and severe immediate rxns – within minutes

A

anaphylaxis

96
Q

symptoms of anaphylaxis?

A

pruritis - sever itching
erythema - red patches on skin
vomiting, diarrhea and breathing difficulties

97
Q

reaction occurs after several hours and are at maximal several days later

A

delayed hypersensitivity rxns

98
Q

what is the product of type I hypersensitivity

A

mast cells, primarily histamine

99
Q

which is the most common hypersensitive rxns

A

type1

100
Q

what is term called for individuals predisposed to developing allergies?

A

atopic

101
Q

if one parent has allegies, what & of offspring will have allergies?

A

40%

102
Q

if both parents have allergies, what % of the child will have allergies?

A

80%

103
Q

type I is against ____ antigens, therofore ___

A

environmental; allergic

104
Q

mast cells release of ____ which leads to hypersensitive rxn

A

cytokines

105
Q

tissues with high mast cells are most commonly affected of type I such as?

A

skin, GI tract and pulmonary tract

106
Q

type II hypersensitivity is also called as?

A

cytotoxic hypersensitivity

107
Q

what does type II (aka cytotoxic hypersensitivity does to the body?)

A

antibody mediation destruction of health host

108
Q

which type of hypersensitivity have immune rxns against a specific cell or tissue

A

type II: tissue mediated

109
Q

why type II hypersensitivty called tissue-specific antigens?

A

they attach only on plasma membranes of certain cells

110
Q

what are the five mechanisms of type II?

A

A - cell is destroyed by antibodies and complements

B - cell destruction through phagocytosis by macrophage

C- tissue damage caused by toxic products produced by neutrophils

D - antibody- dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)

E - target cell malfunction. E.g., grave’s disease - targets thyroid.

111
Q

what happens when antibody binding to cell in mechanism A?

A
  • activation of complement system
  • formation of membrane attack complex
  • disintegration or rupture of cell wall.
112
Q

the binding of ____ antibodies to antigens is what mechanisms?

A

IgG; mechanism D

113
Q

what attracts the binding of IgG antibodies?

A

natural killer cells

114
Q

antibody prevents cells interaction with _____ malfunction

A

normal

115
Q

what is the type III hypersenstivity called?

A

immune complex

116
Q

how was antigen-antibody immune complexes formed?

A

in circulation

117
Q

where was immune complex deposited?

A

in vessel walls or extravascular tissues

118
Q

what is type IV hypersensitivity?

A

cell mediated

119
Q

does not involve _____, and mediated by ____ cells

A

antibody; t

120
Q
A

Pathophysiology (20 decks)

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