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Pathophysiology > Ch 36- Alteration in Digestive Function > Flashcards

Ch 36- Alteration in Digestive Function Flashcards

1
Q

T or F: Digestive tract wall has same structure form esophagus to anus.

A

True

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2
Q

What are the four layers to digestive tract?

A

From deep to superficial:
- Mucosa
- Submucosa
- Muscularis externa
- Serosa

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3
Q

The ____ layer provides levels of ____ (mucosa) protection

A

mucus; epithelial

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4
Q

T or F: GI tract disorders disrupt one or more of its functions.

A

True

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5
Q

____ & ____ abnormalities can obstruct, slow/accelerate intestinal contents.

A

structural; neural

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6
Q

Inflammatory and ulcerative condtions disrupt _____, _____ & _____

A

secretion; motility; absorption

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7
Q

What are the accessory organs that can alter metabolism?

A

liver, pancreas and gallbladder

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8
Q

What is the Greek word for vomiting?

A

emesis

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9
Q

What is vomiting?

A

forceful emptying stomach/intestinal contents through the mouth

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10
Q

Where is the center of vomiting lies?

A

medulla oblongata

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11
Q

What is retching?

A

muscular event of vomiting without vomitus expulsion

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12
Q

What is the cause of projectile vomiting?

A

direct stimulation of vomit center

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13
Q

What is projectile vomiting?

A

spontaneous vomiting that does not follow nausea or retching

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14
Q

What is the initiation of vomiting?

A

deep inhalation & glottis closes

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15
Q

During vomiting, ____ and stomach ____ spasm forcing chyme into esophagus

A

duodenum; antrum

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16
Q

T or F: During vomiting, abdominal muscles creates pressure from stomach to throat.

A

True

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17
Q

T or F: During vomiting, there is no pain and distension of stomach/ duodenum

A

False; there is a sever pain, distension of stomach/ duodenum

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18
Q

T or F: During vomiting, upper esophageal sphincter stays open = contents can enter mouth.

A

False; upper esophageal sphincter stays closed = contents can’t enter mouth

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19
Q

T or F: During the process of vomiting, abdominal muscles does not relax = contents return to stomach.

A

False; abdominal muscles relax = contents return to stomach

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20
Q

T or F: Vomiting process are repeated several times.

A

True

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21
Q

During the process of vomiting, the _______ system relaxes ____ esophageal sphincters

A

parasympathetic; both

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22
Q

When abdominal muscles contract, what happens to the diaphragm during the process of vomiting?

A

force diaphragm high into thoracic cavity

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23
Q

When the diaphragm is force high into thoracic cavity, what happens to the stomach chyme?

A

the stomach chyme is forced out of mouth

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24
Q

What is constipation?

A

difficult/infrequent defecation

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25
Q

Constipation must be ____ determined.

A

individually

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26
Q

What is the wide normal defacation range?

A

1-3 days to 1 week

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27
Q

Primary or Secondary constipation: Which is associated with neural pathways are altered/ colon transit time delayed.

A

secondary constipation

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28
Q

Primary or Secondary constipation: Which is associated with impaired, infrequent and straining colonic movement.

A

primary constipation

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29
Q

What opiate inhibit bowel movement?

A

codeine

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30
Q

T or F: Notable change in constipation can be indicative of colorectal cancer.

A

True

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31
Q

What is the manifestations for constipation?

A

pushing too hard to poop can cause hemorrhoids

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32
Q

What are some diagnosis for constipation?

A
  • assess sphincter tone and detect anal lesions.
  • colonoscopy = direct lumen view.
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33
Q

What do you assess and detect when diagnosing constipation?

A

sphincter tone & anal lesions

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34
Q

What are some treatments for constipation?

A

-over the counter laxatives.
- enemas can be used to establish bowel routine but should not be used habitually

  • surgery: colectomy – final resort
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35
Q

What is the final resort of treatment for constipation?

A

colectomy, which is removing part of colon

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36
Q

What is diarrhea?

A

loose watery stools

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37
Q

What is the time frame for acute diarrhea?

A

24 hrs or less

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38
Q

What is the time frame for persistent diarrhea?

A

14-28 days

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39
Q

What is the time frame for chronic diarrhea?

A

longer than 4 weeks

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40
Q

In children, there is a high rates of _____/____ for children younger than ___ years old

A

morbidity/mortality; 5

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41
Q

What is osmotic diarrhea?

A

non-absorbable substance in intestine draws excess water to intestine.

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42
Q

What is secretory diarrhea?

A

excessive mucosal secretion of fluid & electrolytes.

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43
Q

What is the cause of secretory diarrhea?

A

viruses & bacterial toxins.

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44
Q

What is the rotavirus that causes diarrhea?

A

RNA virus

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45
Q

What does RNA virus cause? & which disease leads to this virus?

A

It causes enteritis; diarrhea

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46
Q

What is enteritis?

A

inflammation of intestinal system.

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47
Q

What is motility diarrhea?

A

excessive motility, which decreased transit time which decreased fluid reabsoprtion.

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48
Q

What is the cause of motility diarrhea?

A

surgical bypass of area of intestine.

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49
Q

What is the treatment for diarrhea?

A
  • restoration of fluid and electrolyte balance.
  • anti-motility or water absorbent medication
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50
Q

What is the cause of abdominal pain?

A

mechanical, inflammatory or ischemic.

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51
Q

T or F: When the person is experiencing abdominal pain, the abdominal organs are stretching/ distension = there no activation of pain receptors.

A

False; there is activation of pain receptors.

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52
Q

What are the types of abdominal pain?

A

parietal pain & visceral pain

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53
Q

What type of abdominal pain is associated with pain localized and intense and its from parietal peritoeum?

A

parietal pain

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54
Q

What type of abdominal pain is associated with distention, inflammation, ischemia of abdominal organ?

A

visceral pain

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55
Q

T or F: Parietal pain is poorly localized with a radiating pattern.

A

False; visceral pain

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56
Q

What are the organs involved with upper gastro-intestinal bleeding?

A

esophagus, stomach and duodenum

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57
Q

Which gastro-intestinal bleeding is associated with bright-red or dark bleeding?

A

upper gastro-intestinal bleeding

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58
Q

Upper gastro-intestinal bleeding is caused by _____ ulcers/ tearing of esophageal gastric ____ caused by severe ______

A

peptic; junction; retching

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59
Q

The bright-red or dark bleeding in upper gastro-intestinal is affected by stomach ______

A

acids

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60
Q

What organs are associated with lower gastro-intestinal bleeding?

A

jejunum, illeum, colon and rectum

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61
Q

What is the cause of lower gastro-intestinal bleeding?

A

polyps, inflammatory disease, & hemorrhoids

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62
Q

What type of bleeding is cause by slow chronic blood loss, not obvious and results in iron deficiency?

A

occult bleeding

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63
Q

What is the result in deficiency of occult bleeding?

A

iron – anemia

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64
Q

What are some presentation of gastrointestinal bleeding?

A

-trace amounts of blood in diarrhea or stools
- blood pressure reduction/ compensating tachycardia/ vision loss

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65
Q

What is dysphagia?

A

difficulty swallowing

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66
Q

What is mechanical obstruction?

A

obstruction in esophageal wall

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67
Q

What can lead due to mechanical obstruction?

A

tumors and herniations

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68
Q

What is functional dysphagia?

A

neural/muscular disorders interfere with swallowing

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69
Q

Functional dysphagia is a ______/_____ disorders interfere with swallowing

A

neural/muscular

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70
Q

Mechanical obstruction is the obstruction in _______ wall

A

esophageal

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71
Q

What is the rare form of dysplasia?

A

achalasia

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72
Q

When the person has achalasia, _____ muscle neurons of middle/______ esophagus attacked immune response.

A

smooth; lower

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73
Q

The result of having achalasia are altered esophageal ____ (wave like muscle contraction to move food down)(1), failure of lower esophageal sphincter (LES) to ______ which leads to _____ (2), and cough & ______ can occur with increased pressure food is forced past LES (3)

A

peristalsis; relax, obstruction; aspiration

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74
Q

What is GERD?

A

Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease

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75
Q

What is the cause of GERD?

A
  • Ab in LES function – LES resting tone is lower than normal
  • Delayed gastric emptying of chyme can contribute
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76
Q

What does reflux of acid/pepsin or bile salts into esophagus leads to?

A

esophagitis

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77
Q

When the person has GERD, the severity of esophageal damage depends on the _____ and ______ of reflux

A

composition; duration

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78
Q

T or F: An increased acidic chyme exposure = mucosal injury and inflammation.

A

True

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79
Q

Persistent GERD causes fibrosis thinning, precancerous lesions.

A

False; thickening

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80
Q

What is the diagnosis for GERD?

A

esophageal endoscopy/ tissue biopsy

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81
Q

What is the treatment for GERD?

A

laparoscopic fundoplication

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82
Q

What does laparoscopic fundoplication do? Which disease does this tx apply?

A

LF tighten junction between esophagus and stomach to prevent acid reflux; GERD & hiatal hernia

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83
Q

Which disease is associated with protrusion of superior aspect of stomach through diaphragm hiatal into thorax?

A

hiatal hernia

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84
Q

What are the two types of hiatal hernia?

A

Sliding hiatal hernia & paraesophageal hiatal hernia

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85
Q

Which type of hiatal hernia is associated with stomach moves into thorax through esophageal hiatus (opening of diaphragm)

A

sliding hiatal hernia

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86
Q

Which type of hiatal hernia is associated with stomach moves into thorax alongside esophageal?

A

paraesophageal hiatal hernia

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87
Q

Which types of hernia hiatal is associated with GERD?

A

sliding HH

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88
Q

Which type of hiatal hernia (HH) leads to gastritis and ulcer formation?

A

paraesophageal HH

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89
Q

The risk for HH is ________ of hearnia leading to medical emergency

A

strangulation

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90
Q

What is the diagnosis for HH?

A

radiology with barium swallow

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91
Q

Treatment for HH?

A

sleeping with your head up (1)

laparoscopic fundoplication (2)

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92
Q

Which obstruction is associated with any condition that prevents normal flow of chyme through intestinal lumen?

A

intestinal obstruction

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93
Q

Which type of obstruction is associated with failure of intestinal motility du to dysfunctional neural activity after surgery?

A

paralytic illeus (PI)

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94
Q

T or F: Large bowel obstruction is more common and often related to diabetes.

A

FALSE; less common and often related to cancer

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95
Q

What are some signs/symptoms of LBO?

A

vomiting and abdominal distension

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96
Q

What does small bowel obstruction cause (SBO)?

A

post-operative adhesions/ herniations lead to distentions (enlargement)

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97
Q

The result of having SBO are, distention = impaired _____ and increased _____, which leads to accumulation of ___, gas and ____ in lumen (1), systemic ECF fluid osmotically moves into lumen which _____ ECF which leads to dehydration/ ______ will result of possible ______ (2), intestinal lumen becomes ______ (3) & leakage of ____ into systemic circulation leads to immune response with possibility of remote _____ failure (4).

A

absorption, secretion, fluid, solutes; decreased, tachycardia, shock; acidic; pathogens, organ.

98
Q

What disease is an inflammatory disorder of gastric mucosa?

A

gastritis

99
Q

What type of gastritis is associated with erosion of protective of stomach mucosal barrier by Helicobacter pyloris and NSAIDs?

A

acute gastritis

100
Q

What are the symptoms of acute gastritis

A

pain, vomiting

101
Q

T or F: when the person has acute gastritis, healing generally occurs within a few days.

A

true

102
Q

Which bacteria burros into mucus layer and disrupts function of mucosal layers and triggers immune system which destroys mucosal layer?

A

Helicobacter pylori or H. Pylori

103
Q

What does NSAIDs do?

A

inhibit prostaglandins synthesis which stimulates goblet cell secretion of mucus

104
Q

Which type of gastritis occurs in older adults, which causes chronic inflammation and mucosal atrophy?

A

chronic gastritis

105
Q

What type of chronic gastritis occurs in antrum?

A

chronic non-immune or antral gastritis

106
Q

T or F: Chronic non-immune is involves body and fundus.

A

False; Chronic immune or fundal gastritis

107
Q

Which type of chronic gastritis is caused by H. pylori?

A

Chronic non-immune or antral gastritis

108
Q

T or F: When the person has antral gastritis, there is high levels of HCL secretion which increased risk of duodenal ulcers.

A

true

109
Q

T or F: Antral gastritis is associated with loss of T cell tolerance resulting in gastric mucosa being extensively degenerated in stomach fundus and body.

A

False; Chronic immune or fundal gastritis

110
Q

What is the cause of peptic ulcer?

A

H. Pylori & NSAIDs (1) and the breaking or ulceration in protective mucosal lining (2)

111
Q

What are the three disorders of peptic ulcer?

A

duodenal ulcers (1), gastric ulcers (2) & stress-related mucosal disease (3)

112
Q

T or F: Gastric ulcers are more frequent than other peptic ulcers.

A

false; duodenal ulcers

113
Q

Which type of peptic ulcers cause acid and pepsin concentrations to penetrate mucosal barrier and cause ulceration?

A

duodenal ulcers

114
Q

In duodenal ulcers, H. pylori releases _____ resulting in _____ of epithealial cells

A

toxin; apoptosis

115
Q

T or F: When the person has duodenal ulcer, T, and B cells, neutrophils combat H. pylori which lead to damage to gastric epithelium by the release by cytokines

A

true

116
Q

T or F: Gastric ulcers is one-fourth as common as duodenal ulcers.

A

true

117
Q

Where does gastric ulcers develop?

A

gastric antrum

118
Q

T or F: In gastric ulcers, H+ ions disrupts mucosal permeability to hydrogen ions

A

True

119
Q

Which type of ulcer is associated with an increase in mucosal barrier’s permeability to hydrogen ions

A

gastric ulcers

120
Q

The result cycle of gastric ulcer is that damaged mucosa liberates ____ which ____ HCL and pepsin production which leads to mucosal destruction.

A

histamine; increased

121
Q

What is an acute form of peptic ulcer?

A

Stress related mucosal disease

122
Q

T or F: With stress related mucosal disease, only one single site of ulcer is affected in stomach or duodenum

A

False; multiple sites of ulcers are involved

123
Q

Stress related mucosal disease is accompanies physiological stress, _______, or major trauma

A

illness

124
Q

What are the three types of stress related mucosal disease? Describe each of them.

A

Ischemic ulcers – developing within hours of event; hemorrhage, heart failure and sepsis

Curling ulcers – develop bec of burn injury

Cushing ulcers – develop bec of brain trauma/ surgery

125
Q

Which disease is associated with environmental factors or infections that alter mucosal epithelium barrier?

A

Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)

126
Q

What is commensal?

A

association between 2 organisms in which one benefits and other derives neither benefit nor harm

127
Q

When the person has IBD, there is a loss of body’s ability to discriminate _____ pathogens from ______ microorganisms (1) & loss of ability to discriminate, meaning there is an activation of immune system, production of _________ cytokines which results in intestinal ________ damage (2)

A

harmful, commensal; proinflammatory epithelium

128
Q

What are the three IBDs?

A

Ulcerative colitis (1), chron’s disease (2) & irritable bowel syndrome (3)

129
Q

What is ulcerative colitis?

A

chronic inflammatory disease, which causes ulcers in colonic mucosa

130
Q

What are the symptoms of ulcerative colitis?

A

diarrhea (10-20 tools a day)

131
Q

What is the diagnosis for ulcerative colitis and Chron’s disease (CD)?

A

endoscopy and biopsies

132
Q

What are the tx for ulcerative colitis & chron’s disease (CD)?

A
  • steriods
  • meds
  • surgery for severe disease
133
Q

T or F: Ulcerative colitis only affects large intestine

A

True

134
Q

What is the result of small erosions coalesce into ulcers for ulcerative colitis?

A

necrosis

135
Q

Ulcerative colitis result in thickening of ________ mucosa which narrows lumen, thus reduces ______ time in colon

A

muscularis; transit

136
Q

Which IBDs is associated with idiopathic inflammatory disorder?

A

CD

137
Q

T or F: CD affects any part of digestive tract, from mouth to anus.

A

True

138
Q

What is the most common sites of disease for CD?

A

ascending and transverse colon

139
Q

What is transmural? Which type of IBD is transmural associated?

A

across entire wall of organ involvement; CD

140
Q

T or F: Transmural disease may not result in penetration or fistula formation

A

False; it may result in penetration or fistula formation

141
Q

What is fistula?

A

an abnormal opening or passage between two organs.

142
Q

Fistulae may form in ____-____ (area around anus) or extend into _____, rectum or vagina

A

peri-anal; bladder

143
Q

What are some risks for people to get CD?

A

smoking increases risk of dev severe disease & may cause poor response to tx

144
Q

CD ulcerations can produce ______ that extend inflammation into ______ tissue.

A

fissures; lymphoid

145
Q

Which type of IBD is characterized by abdominal pain with altered bowel habits?

A

Irritable bowel syndrome (IBD)

146
Q

What does altered bowel habits mean?

A

alternating constipation and diarrhea.

147
Q

What are the symptoms of IBD?

A

relieved with defacation & does not interfere with sleep

148
Q

T or F: Pathophysiology of IBS is idiopathic with no specific biomarkers for disease.

A

True

149
Q

What are some manifestations for IBS?

A

lower abdominal pain or discomfort and bloating

150
Q

T or F: IBS is more common in men with higher prevalence during adolescence.

A

FALSE; more common in women (1.5 to 3x greater than men) with a higher prevalence during youth and middle age

151
Q

There has been an increasing evidence that IBS targets altered gut _______

A

microflora

152
Q

What are some tx for IBS?

A

no cure; treatment is individualized.

153
Q

What is appendicitis?

A

inflammation of appendix

154
Q

T or F: Appendicitis is the most common surgical emergency of abdomen.

A

True

155
Q

What age does appendicitis occurs?

A

Between 10-19 yrs; tho can occur at any age.

156
Q

What are some manifestation of appendicitis?

A

mild pain increases to intense pain in 3-4 hours; nausea; vomiting

157
Q

Tx for appendicitis?

A

laparoscopic surgery

158
Q

What organ is considered as a safe house for commensal bacterium for repopulation of intestinal system?

A

appendix

159
Q

What is the cause of appendicitis?

A

obstruction of appendix lumen leads to the blockage drainage of appendix. Mucosal secretion continues, thus intraluminal pressure increases. Increase pressure reduces blood flow, appendix becomes hypoxic = ulceration

160
Q

What does ulceration in appendix promotes?

A

bacterial invasion which leads to inflammation

161
Q

What are the 4 main disorders of the liver?

A

hepatic encephalopathy (1), jaundice (2), cirrhosis (3), viral hepatitis (4)

162
Q

What is the brain disease that alters brain function or structure?

A

encephalopathy

163
Q

What disorder of liver is associated with the complex neurological syndrome characterized by impaired behavioral, cogntive and motor function?

A

hepatic encephalopathy

164
Q

What does astrocyte swelling do in the body?

A

alter blood-brain barrier which promote cerebral edema

165
Q

What leads to astrocyte swelling?

A

ammonia

166
Q

How does liver dysfunction affect the body?

A

the creation of extra blood vessels that bypass (aka shunt) the liver and carry blood directly back to the body

167
Q

Under HE, what does shunt do in the body?

A

permits toxins absorbed from GI tract (normally removed by liver) to circulate to brain.

  • Toxins alter cerebral energy metabolism, interfere with neurotransmission and cause edema
168
Q

What are some underlying changes when the person has hepatic encephalopathy?

A

combination of biochem alterations that affect neurotransmission and brain function

169
Q

What is jaundice?

A

pigmentation of skin

170
Q

What is the cause of jaundice?

A

hyperbilirubinemia - increased plasma (bilirubin) – a component of Hb breakdown.

171
Q

T or F: Bilirubin is waste product normally remove from blood by gall bladder.

A

False; removed from blood by liver

172
Q

T or F: Increased plasma (bilirubin) indicates pancreas damage.

A

False; liver damage

173
Q

What is another term for jaundice?

A

icterus

174
Q

What are some manifestations of jaundice?

A
  • noticeable darkened urine several days before onset of jaundice
  • bacterial infections
175
Q

What is the first yellowing skin that indicates jaundice?

A

yellow discoloration of sclera of eye

176
Q

What are the two different forms of jaundice?

A

obstructive jaundice & hemolytic jaundice

177
Q

What is obstructive jaundice?

A

occlusion of common bile duct by gall stones, tumor (1) & bilirubin can’t flow to duodenum which accumulates in liver.

178
Q

What is the result of obstructive jaundice?

A

bilirubin enters blood stream causing jaundice

179
Q

What is hemolytic jaundice?

A

excessive production of bilirubin from excessive hemolysis (destruction of RBC)

180
Q

What is the result of hemolytic jaundice?

A

plasma (bilirubin) exceeding liver ability to process, thus there is an increased plasma bilirubin jaundice

181
Q

What liver disease is the irreversible fibrotic scarring of liver in response to inflammation and tissue damage?

A

cirrhosis

182
Q

What is the final step of various chronic liver diseases?

A

liver cirrhosis

183
Q

The pathophysiological hallmark of cirrhosis is the development of _____ _____ due to fibrosis.

A

scar tissue

184
Q

What are some manifestations for cirrhosis?

A

liver acquires a cobbly appearance and is hard upon palpitation

185
Q

Tissue regeneration of someone with cirrhosis is disrupted by ____ which leads to necrosis then atrophy, resulting in ___ failure

A

hypoxia; liver

186
Q

What are the 3 types of cirrhosis?

A

(1) alcohol cirrhosis, (2) non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (3) biliary cirrhosis

187
Q

which type of cirrhosis is associated with the damage and inflammation leading to cirrhosis begins in bile ducts rather than hepatocytes?

A

biliary cirrhosis

188
Q

Which type of biliary cirrhosis is caused by a chronic, autoimmune liver disease (e.g., T cells and antimitochondrial antibodies)?

A

primary biliary cirrhosis

189
Q

In primary biliary cirrhosis, damage to bile ducts = _____ = bile duct _____

A

fibrosis; obstruction

190
Q

Which type of biliary cirrhosis is caused by obstruction of common bile duct by gallstones, tumours?

A

secondary biliary cirrhosis

191
Q

What are the damage result of alcoholic cirrhosis?

A

translocation of gut microbiota

192
Q

What is alcoholic cirrhosis?

A

toxic effect of alcohol on liver/ immune alterations.

193
Q

In alcoholic cirrhosis, alcohol transformed into ____ which activates hepatic stellate cells

A

acetaldehyde

194
Q

What happens if there is a hyperactivation of stellate cells?

A

results in collagen formation

195
Q

In alcoholic cirrhosis, collagen formation results in?

A

fibrosis and scarring

196
Q

What is non-alcoholic fatty liver disease?

A

infiltration of hepatocytes with triglycerides

197
Q

Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease is associated with _____, high blood, and ____ cholesterol levels

A

obesity; high

198
Q

What is viral hepatitis?

A

common systemic disease that primarily affects the liver.

199
Q

What is the diagnosis for viral hepatitis?

A

presence of viral antibodies

200
Q

What is the tx for viral hepatitis?

A

viral replication suppression (1), hepatitis B vaccine

201
Q

What are the 5 types of viral hepatitis?

A

A, B, C, D, E

202
Q

T or F: Not all 5 types of viral hepatitis can cause jaundice.

A

False; all can types can cause jaundice

203
Q

Among the 5 types of viral hepatitis, which are the most severe damage?

A

Hepatitis B & C

204
Q

When there is a co-infection in viral hepatitis, there is a _____ progression of liver disease

A

rapid

205
Q

In viral hepatitis, co-infection of _____ and _____ occurs because virus’ share same _____ of transmission. That is the contact between infected body ____

A

hepatitis; HIV; rout; fluids

206
Q

What are the common gallbladder disorders?

A

obstruction and inflammation

207
Q

What blocks the flow of bile in and out of gallbladder?

A

gallstones

208
Q

What is the cause of gallstones blocking the bile in and out of gallbladder?

A

gallbladder inflammation

209
Q

What do you call to the gallstone formation?

A

choleilithiasis

210
Q

What do you call to gallbladder inflammation?

A

cholecystitis

211
Q

Treatment for pancreatic disorder?

A

alcohol cessation

212
Q

When there is an obstructive disease in pancreas, there is a backup pancreatic secretion which release and activate pancreative enzyme within ______ cells.

A

acinar

213
Q

Chronic alcohol = destruction of _____ cells.

A

acinar

214
Q

What causes pancreatic cysts?

A

tissue destruction replaces fibrosis

215
Q

What is autodigestion?

A

vascular damage, necrosis, and pseudocysts formation (walled-off collections of pancreatic secretions

216
Q

What does acinar cell metabolizes that leads to toxic metabolites release acinar digestive enzymes?

A

ethanol

217
Q

What are the cancer of the esophagus?

A

carcinoma & adenocarcinomas of epithelium

218
Q

Where does adenocarcinoma initiates?

A

epithelial glandular cells.

219
Q

Where does carcinoma initiates?

A

epithilial squamous cells.

220
Q

What are the manifestations of the cancer of the esophagus?

A

dysphagia and chest pain

221
Q

What is dysphagia?

A

difficulty of swallowing

222
Q

What are the risk of esophagus cancer?

A

alcohol combined with smoking & chewing tobacco

223
Q

Gastric adenocarcinoma is associated with what pathogen? What organ focuses on gastric adenocarcinoma?

A

H. pylori; stomach cancer

224
Q

What contributes to gastric adenocarcinoma?

A

heavily salted and preserved foods

225
Q

What does slat converts nitrates?

A

carcinogenic nitrosamines

226
Q

What are highly associated with colon adenocarcinoma?

A

pre-existing polyps

227
Q

What are some manifestations of colon and rectum cancer?

A

pain, bloody stools and a change in bowel habits

228
Q

Rectal carcinomas occurs close to ____ and/or spread to female _____ and male _____

A

anus; vagina, prostate

229
Q

What is the leading cause of world-wide cancer deaths?

A

liver cancer

230
Q

Primary cancers are associated with _____ liver disease like cirrhosis and hepatitis ___

A

chronic; B

231
Q

Where does hepatocellular carcinomas arise from?

A

hepatocytes

232
Q

Where does cholangiocellular develops?

A

bile ducts

233
Q

T or F: Cholangiocellular carcinomas are common

A

False; rare

234
Q

T or F: Liver cancer metastisizes to many other organs

A

True

235
Q

Gallbladder cancer is most common between ages…

A

50-60

236
Q

What type of cancer is the most common type for gallbladder?

A

adenocarcinoma

237
Q

Gallbladder cancer mestastases to _____ vessels/ metastases often occurs _____ diagnosis

A

lymph; before

238
Q

T or F: When gallbladder mestastisize, the prognosis is poor.

A

True

239
Q

What is the fourth cancer death in Canada?

A

cancer of the pancreas

240
Q

Adenocarcinoma occurs in _____ component of pancreas.

A

exocrine

241
Q

Cancer of the pancreas: mestastisizes often ______ diagnosis.

A

before

242
Q
A

Pathophysiology (20 decks)

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