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Pathophysiology > Ch 16- Disorders of CNS, PNS, & NMJ > Flashcards

Ch 16- Disorders of CNS, PNS, & NMJ Flashcards

1
Q

Alteration of CNS or PNS: Involve nerve route, nerve plexus, nerves themselves or neuromuscular junction.

A

Alteration of PNS function

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2
Q

Alteration of CNS or PNS: Involve traumatic injury, vascular disorders, tumour growth, infections and inflammatory response.

A

Alteration of CNS

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3
Q

At what age range is traumatic brain injury (TBI) the primary cause of death and disability for individuals?

A

under age of 40 years old

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4
Q

What % of all TBIs sustained by children and youth? Where do they mostly get these TBIs

A

30%; sports and recreational activities

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5
Q

What type of injury involves alteration in brain function or other evidence of brain disease caused by an external force?

A

traumatic brain injury (TBI)

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6
Q

What are the two types of TBI?

A

Primary & Secondary

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7
Q

What is the cause of primary TBI?

A

direct impact

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8
Q

T or F: Secondary TBI can be focal or diffuse axonal injury (DAI)

A

FALSE; Primary TBI

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9
Q

What is the difference between focal and DAI?

A

focal – affecting one area of the brain

DAI – involves more than one area of the brain

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10
Q

What is TBI diagnosis?

A

Glasgow Coma Scale

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11
Q

What is the cause of secondary TBI?

A

indirect result of primary injury

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12
Q

Secondary TBI includes ____ response and ____ of cellular and molecular cerebral events

A

systemic; cascade

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13
Q

How many is the focal and diffuse brain injuries?

A

focal - 2/3
diffuse - 1/3

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14
Q

T or F: According to GCS, the lower the score, the better.

A

FALSE; the lower the score the more severe the damage

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15
Q

Give the appropriate score for the accoding to GCS:
Best eye response score:
Eye opening to pain = __
Eye opening to verbal command = __
No eye opening = __
Eyes open spontaneously =__

A

2,3,1,4

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16
Q

Give the appropriate score according to GCS based on the verbal response:

Inappropriate words = __
No verbal response = __
Incomprehensible sounds =__
Confused =__
Oriented = ___

A

3,1,2,4,5

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17
Q

Give the appropriate score according to GCS based on the motor response:

obeys commands = __
extention to pain = __
localizing pain =___
no motor response = __
flexion to pain = ___
withdrawal from pain =___

A

6, 2, 5, 1, 3,4

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18
Q

GCS score of 8 or less is considered a _____ head injury.

A

severe

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19
Q

GCS score of 13 to 15 is considered a ____ head injury

A

mild

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20
Q

GCS score of 9 to 12 is considered a _____ head injury.

A

moderate

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21
Q

What is a primary focal (TBI injury)

A

can be closed or open injury

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22
Q

T or F: Open injury is more common.

A

FALSE; close injury

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23
Q

In closed injury, the brain tissue is ______ exposed

A

not

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24
Q

In open injury, the brain tissue is ______

A

exposed

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25
Q

What is the difference between closed and open injury?

A

Closed
- head striking a hard surface, moving object striking head or blast waves.
- dura mater remains intact

Open
- penetrating trauma or skull fracture
- break in dura mater

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26
Q

What are the 5 types of primary focal closed?

A
  1. Coup/ countercoup
  2. Contusion
  3. Epidural (extradural) hematoma
  4. Subdural hematoma
  5. Intracerebral hematoma
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27
Q

What is primary focal open?

A

compound skull fracture; missile injuries.

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28
Q

What is primary diffuse injury?

A

diffuse brain injury

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29
Q

What is the primary focal closed brain injury?

A

specific, observable injuries that occur in a precise location

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30
Q

What % does mild primary focal closed brain injury consists?

A

80% cases

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31
Q

What severe primary focal closed brain injury consists?

A

contusions, epidural, subdural and hematomas.

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32
Q

What is the difference between coup and countrecoup?

A

coup
- injury at site of impact

countrecoup
- injury from brain bound back and hitting opposite site of skill

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33
Q

T or F: Coup is the injury from brain bouncing back and hitting opposite side of skill

A

FALSE; countrecoup

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34
Q

Contusions aka brain _____

A

bruising

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35
Q

In contusions, smaller contact area = more ____ the injury

A

sever

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36
Q

What brain area is the most common injury site for contusions?

A

frontal lobes

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37
Q

What is the peak time frame for the greatest injury effect of contusions (brain bruising) after the injury occurs

A

peak 13-16 hours

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38
Q

During contusions, edema forms, which _____ ICP = hemorrhages, edema, infarction, necrosis = tissue becomes ______

A

increased; pulpy

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39
Q

What type of primary focal closed brain injury is associated with the compression of skill at point of impact produces a contusion?

A

contusions or brain bruising

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40
Q

What is the diagnosis for contusion?

A

GCS, CT scan & MRI

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41
Q

What is tx for contusions or brain bruising?

A

surgical removal of large contusions and areas of hemorrhage may be required

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42
Q

What are the three types of TBI Primary Focal Hematomas?

A

epidural, subdural, & intracerebral

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43
Q

What is epidural hemotamas (EH)?

A

bleeding between dura mater and skull

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44
Q

Where is the most common site for epidural hematoma?

A

temporal fossa

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45
Q

What is the tx for epidural hematomas?

A

medical emergency

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46
Q

What are some symptoms of EH?

A
  • lose consciousness
  • as hematoma grows – severe headache, confusion and seizure
  • hemiparesis
  • pupil dilation
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47
Q

What is hemiparesis? What

A

weakness or inability to move one side of body

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48
Q

What does pupil dilation mean for EH?

A

injury prognosis good if treated before both pupils dilate

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49
Q

Dural refers to _____ _____

A

dura mater

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50
Q

Which primary focal closed brain injury is associated with bleeding between dura mater and brain?

A

subdural hematomas

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51
Q

What are the two types of subdural hematomas?

A

acute and chronic

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52
Q

What is acute subdural?

A

develop quickly, within hours.

  • hematomas grow
  • ICP rises
  • pressure is applied to bleeding veins
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53
Q

In acute subdural, due to ICP rises, the pressure is applied to bleeding veins which assists in ____-____ ______

A

short-term limitation

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54
Q

What are the symptoms of acute subdural?

A

loss of consciousness, pupil dilation, hemianopia, anopia?

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55
Q

What is hemianopia? What type of primary focal closed injury is this associated with?

A

blindness over half of vision field; acute subdural

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56
Q

What is anopia? What type of primary focal closed injury is this associated with?

A

aka blindness; acute subdural

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57
Q

What is chronic subdural?

A

develop over weeks to months

  • common in alcohol abuse
  • subdural mass bleeding = subdural space fills with blood
  • vascular membrane forms around hematoma
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58
Q

What is the tx for chronic subdural?

A

craniotomy to remove jelly-like blood.

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59
Q

What forms around hematoma in chronic subdural?

A

vascular membrane

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60
Q

What causes the vascular membrane formation in chronic subdural?

A

subdural mass bleeding

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61
Q

What are the symptoms of chronic subdural?

A

headaches and tenderness over hematoma; worsening dementia, paratonia

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62
Q

What does intracerebral hematomas mean?

A

bleeding within the brain

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63
Q

With what percentage of head injuries are intracerebral hematomas associated with?

A

2-3% of head injuries

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64
Q

Which lobes are affected by intracerebral hematomas?

A

frontal and temporal lobes

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65
Q

In intracerebral hematomas, penetrating and shearing forces injure small blood vessels = growing _____/_____

A

mass/edema

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66
Q

What are the symptoms of intracerebral hematomas?

A
  • sudden rapid decrease in level of consciousness
  • pupil dilation
  • positive babinski reflex
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67
Q

What do you call to a reflex when big toe bends up and back to top of foot and other toes fan out?

A

positive babinski reflex

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68
Q

What trauma penetrates dura mater and creates both focal and diffuse injury?

A

open brain injury

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69
Q

Open brain injury includes ____ skull fractures and _____ injuries (primary focal open)

A

compound; missiles

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70
Q

What type of primary focal open brain injury is associated with an open path between cranial contents and the environment?

A

compound skull fracture of CSF

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71
Q

Whenever ____ of the scalp, tympanic membrane, sinuses, eye or mucous membranes occur, a CSF should be considered.

A

cuts

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71
Q

What are the causes of CSF?

A

crush & stretch injury

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72
Q

T or F: Stretch injury includes cutting or crushing, whatever missile touches.

A

FALSE; crush

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73
Q

T or F: Stretch injury is associated with blood vessels and nerve damage, whatever missile touches

A

FALSE; blood vessels and nerve damage without direct contact

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74
Q

T or F: Crush injury includes cutting or crushing without direct contact.

A

FALSE; includes cutting and crushing — whatever missile touches

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75
Q

What are the symptoms of CSF?

A

most open brain injury become uconscious

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76
Q

What type of primary focal open brain injury is caused by substantial blunt, force trauma and involves at least one of the bones that compose the base of the skull?

A

basilar skull fractures

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77
Q

Due to the spinal fluid leaking for ear or nose with basilar skull fractures, it results with _____ eyes.

A

blackened

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78
Q

Diffuse brain injury = injury ______ in brain

A

widespread

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79
Q

What is the diagnosis for primary diffuse injury?

A

electron micrscope to detect axonal damage

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80
Q

The primary diffuse injury effects from high levles of acceleration and deceleration (_____) or rotational forces. The forces cause ______ of axonal fibers and white matter _____.

A

whiplash; shearing, tracts.

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81
Q

What are the consequences based on the degree of shearing for primary diffuse injury?

A
  • cognitive consequences
    -extensive cognitive impairments
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82
Q

What is a secondary brain injury?

A

indirect results of primary brain injury which includes both trauma and stroke syndromes.

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83
Q

T or F: Secondary brain injury is the indirect result of primary brain injury that includes only trauma.

A

FALSE; includes both trauma and stroke syndromes

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84
Q

T or F: In secondary brain injury, both systemic and cerebral process are involved.

A

TRUE

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85
Q

What is the difference between systemic and cerebral process?

A

systemic – hypotension, hypoxia

cerebral – inflammation, edema, increased ICP

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86
Q

In secondary brain injury the _____ effects cause disruption to BBB which leads to ____ death.

A

primary; neuronal

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87
Q

How to manage secondary brain injury?

A

-prevention of hypoxia
- maintenance of cerebral perfusion pressure
- removal of hematomas
- nutritional management has emerged as critical to care of severe brain injury

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88
Q

What are the three categories of secondary TBI?

A

mild TBI - mild concussion
moderate TBI – moderate concussion
severe TBI – severe concussion

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89
Q

Which category of secondary TBI is characterized by loss of consciousness for more than 6 hours?

A

severe concussion

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90
Q

What is the GCS score for severe concussion?

A

3-8

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91
Q

In severe TBI _____ damage to _____ state to death

A

permanent; vegetative

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92
Q

What is the tx for severe concussion?

A

Goal is to maintain cerebral perfusion and promote neural protection

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93
Q

What are the signs of severe concussion?

A

-increased ICP occurs 4-6 days after injury
- brain imaging abnormal
- changes in pupillary rxn
- cardiac & respiratory systems
- decorticate & decerebrate posture

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94
Q

Which category of secondary TBI is associated with decorticate and decerebrate posturing?

A

severe concussion

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95
Q

With severe concussion, increased ICP occurs __-___ days after injury.

A

4-6

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96
Q

Which category of secondary TBI is characterized by immediate but transitory clinical manifestations

A

mild tbi

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97
Q

T or F: With mild concussion, the loss of consciousness is less than 40 minutes.

A

FALSE; less than 30 min

98
Q

What is the GCS for mild concussion?

A

13-15

99
Q

What are the symptoms of mild concussion or TBI?

A

headache, nausea, vomiting

100
Q

What is the diagnosis for mild TBI?

A

blood test to determine need for CT scan

101
Q

What is moderate TBI?

A

any loss of consciousness last more than 30 min up to 6 hours.

102
Q

What is the GCS score for moderate concussion?

A

9-12

103
Q

What is the result of moderate concussion?

A

permanent defects in arousal and attention

104
Q

What are the symptoms of moderate TBI or concussion?

A

confusion and amnesia lasting more than 24 hours; brain imaging is abnormal

105
Q

What are the three syndromes that are associated with the complication of TBI?

A

post-concussion syndrome (1), post traumatic seizures (2) & chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE) (3)

106
Q

What determines the probable complications?

A

severity & brain location

107
Q

How long does post-concussion syndrome lasts?

A

weeks to months after concussion

108
Q

What are the symptoms requiring further evaluation for post-concussion syndrome?

A
  • drowsiness, confusion, vomiting
  • unequal pupils
  • CSF drainage from ears or nose
  • double vision
109
Q

T or F: The importance of close observation during the first 24 hours is significant for Post-concussion syndrome.

A

TRUE

110
Q

What disorder is associated with post-traumatic seizures?

A

epilepsy

111
Q

What % of risk is associated with post-traumatic seizures?

A

10-20%

112
Q

T or F: Chronic Traumatic Encephalopathy is highest risk with open brain injuries.

A

FALSE; Post-Traumatic Seizures

113
Q

In post-traumatic seizure, there are molecular changes which results in sprouting of new _____ neural activity = increased _____

A

hyperexcitable; seizures

114
Q

What is CTE?

A

progressive dementing disease the develops with repeated brain injury

115
Q

Which complications of TBI is associated with contact sports esp football, blast injuries with soldiers?

A

chronic traumatic encephalopathy

116
Q

In chronic traumatic encephalopathy, _____ neurofibrillary tangles occur in brain

A

tau

117
Q

What are the consequence of CTE?

A

violent behavior, changes in cognitive, motor function, depression and suicide

118
Q

Who are at risk for spinal cord and vertebral injury?

A

Male gender (20-39 yrs old); adult (79 yrs old) and older (bec., of falls)

119
Q

Which spinal cord injury is associated with initial mechanical trauma that results in immediate tissue damage?

A

primary spinal cord injury

120
Q

In primary spinal cord injury, injury occurs if an injured spine does not receive adequate _______ following trauma.

A

immobilization

121
Q

T or F: For primary spinal cord injury, injury to C1-7 = life threatening.

A

FALSE; C1-4

122
Q

What is the reason the causes damage to C1-4 to be life threatening?

A

loss of CV and respiratory function

123
Q

In secondary spinal cord injury, death of _______ = myelin _______

A

oligodendrocytes; degeneration

124
Q

Secondary spinal cord injury is a _____-causing process (vascular, cellular, biochemical) occuring within minutes and continues for _____

A

disease; weeks

125
Q

For secondary spinal cord injury, the hemorrhage appears in _____ matter, result in _____ of entire ____ matter at spinal level. Thus ____ occurs which leads to impaired circulation, resulting in _____. These symptoms occur at _____ cord segments _____ & ____ injury

A

grey; death; grey; edema; ischemia; two; above; below

126
Q

In secondary spinal cord injury,____ swelling = increased dysfuntion = ______ to distinguish permanent and temporary damage.

A

cord; difficult

127
Q

For vertebral injuries, vertebral ____, dislocation and bone _____ = shearing & ______

A

fractures; fragment; compression

128
Q

Hyperextension?

A

disruption of intervertebral discs

129
Q

Flexion?

A

vertebral wedge fracture

130
Q

Rotation?

A

shearing force and rupture of ligament support

131
Q

Vertebrae fracture ____ due to torn supporting _____

A

easily; ligaments

132
Q

Vertebra ______ and dislocation occurs.

A

misalignment

133
Q

Vertebral injuries occur at most ______ portions of column

A

moveable

134
Q

What are the damage that might experience for people with vertebral injuries?

A

hyperextention, flexion and rotations damage

135
Q

What are the 2 manifestations for vertebral injuries?

A

spinal shock & neurogenic shock

136
Q

T or F: Neurogenic shock develops immediately after injury.

A

FALSE; spinal shock

137
Q

How long does spinal shock last?

A

lasts 7-20 days

138
Q

Spinal shock returns with reflex _______ of bladder

A

emptying

139
Q

Which vertebral injury manifestation is associated with complete loss of function at or below level of injury?

A

spinal shock

140
Q

With spinal shock, _______ cannot regulate body heat, thus person assumes temperature of air

A

hypothalamus

141
Q

What do you call to a person who assumes temperature of air?

A

poikilothermic

142
Q

T or F: Neurogenic shock occurs with injury below T6.

A

FALSE; above T6

143
Q

What are the result of neurogenic shock?

A

hypotension, vasodilation

144
Q

With neurogenic shoch, the parasympathetic activity is _______.

A

unopposed

145
Q

What is the cause of unopposed parasympathetic activity of neurogenic shock?

A

due to absence of sympathetic activity

146
Q

What is occurence of migraine in Canada?

A

25% of women; 8% men & 10% children

147
Q

Migraine has _____ and ______ components

A

genetic & environmental

148
Q

Migraine is classified with ____, ______ aura & ______

A

aura; without; chronic

149
Q

What is aura?

A

begins as spreading neural hyperactivity in occipital brain region

150
Q

Occipital brain region is the _____ processing regions.

A

visual

151
Q

How long does neurological headache lasts for migraine?

A

4-72 hours

152
Q

What are the 4 clinical phases of migraine?

A

premonitory phase (1), migraine aura (2), headache phase (3) & recovery phase (4)

153
Q

What phase of migraine is associated with symptoms occur hours to days before onset of aura (tired, irritable)

A

premonitory phase

154
Q

What is the recovery phase of migraine?

A

irritability, fatigue

155
Q

The headache phase of migraine begins on _____ side of head, eventually spreads to entire head

A

one

156
Q

____ of persons have aura symptoms that last up to ____ hour(s). What clinical phase of migraine is this?

A

1/3; one; migraine aura

157
Q

What is the tx for cluster headache?

A

O2 inhalation/ sumatriptan (meds)

158
Q

Cluster headaches pain is related to _______ inflammation. Also sympathetic ______ and parasympathetic _____

A

neurogenic; underactivity; activation

159
Q

Who is mostly affected by cluster headaches?

A

Men ages 2-50 yrs old

160
Q

T or F: With cluster headaches, it is followed by long periods of remission.

A

true

161
Q

Which primary headache syndrome involves trigeminal nerve and the pain for headaches may alternate sides each episodes, sever, throbbing and up to 8 attacks per day?

A

cluster headaches

162
Q

Which primary headache syndrome is the most common type of recurring headache?

A

tention-type headaches (TTT)

163
Q

What is the age onset for tension-type headaches?

A

10-20 yrs old

164
Q

What is the cause of tension-type headaches (TTH)?

A

hypersensitivity of pain fibers from trigerminal nerve.

165
Q

What is the tx for tension-type headaches?

A

mild TTH treated with ice; more severe treated with aspirin

166
Q

TTH is the gradual onset moves to sensation of ____ ____ around head. It is _____ over a period of days.

A

tight band; episodic

167
Q

T or F: Episodic TTH can develop in chronic TTH which represents headaches that can occur from 20 days/month.

A

FALSE; can occur 15 days/month

168
Q

What is the main difference between meningitis and encephalits?

A

meningitis
- infection of meninges and subarachnoid space

encephalitis
- inflammation within the brain

169
Q

What are the two types of meningitis?

A

bacterial and viral meningitis

170
Q

Which type of meningitis is associated with serious infections to which infants and children are susceptible?

A

bacterial meningitis

171
Q

What are the most common pathogens for bacterial meningitis?

A

Streptococcus, S. pneumonia, & E. coli

172
Q

What are some progressive symptoms of bacterial meningitis?

A

spinal rigidity, seizures and positive Babinski reflex

173
Q

With bacterial meningitis, pathogens cross ____ _____ ____ and enter _____-spinal fluid, which then multiple, and release _____. Thus ICP can occur die to blockage of _____ circulation

A

blood brain barrier; cerebral; toxins; CSF.

174
Q

What viral meningitis?

A

be be direct infection or secondary to disease such as measles, mumps or herpes

175
Q

T or F: Viral meningitis is a virus that can directly invade brain and cause inflammation.

A

FALSE; viral encephalitis

176
Q

Post-infection encephalitis may occurs due to an ______ response.

A

autoimmune

177
Q

The virus of viral encephalitis can ______ invade brain and cause ______

A

directly; inflammation

178
Q

What are the 2 demyelinating disorders?

A

multiple sclerosis & guillain-barre

179
Q

Demyelinating disorders is the result of damage to _____ _____ _____ and affect on neural transmission.

A

myelin nerve sheath

180
Q

T or F: Multiple sclerosis is a PNS disorder.

A

FALSE; CNS disorder

181
Q

T or F: Guillain-Barre is a CNS disorder

A

FALSE; PNS disorder

182
Q

What is the age of onset for MS?

A

20-40 yrs old

183
Q

T or F: Multiple sclerosis is common in men.

A

FALSE; more common in women

184
Q

What are the risk factors associated with multiple sclerosis?

A

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), & genetics

185
Q

T or F: Multiple sclerosis is not common in Canada.

A

FALSE; Canada has one of the highest rates of MS

186
Q

MS is a chronic, immune-mediated inflammatory disease with CNS _______, scarring and loss of axons

A

demyelination

187
Q

People with multiple sclerosis is characterized with ______ progression in _____ and spinal cord. Then _ & _ cells cross ____ and attack myelin. This activate ______ cells (CNS immune cells). As a result, death of neurons, brain atrophy with primarily ____ tissue atrophy.

A

diffuse; brain; B; T; blood brain barrier (BBB); microglia; white

188
Q

In MS, ___ matter degeneration occurs during _____ stages.

A

gray; later

189
Q

What are some tx for multiple sclerosis

A

corticosteroids, immunosuppressants (both increased risk of infection); plasma exchange if pt doesn’t respond to steroids.

190
Q

T or F: Corticosteroids and immunosuppressants increased risk of infection for pts with multiple sclerosis.

A

TRUE

191
Q

What is the diagnosis for multiple sclerosis?

A

no single test to diagnose MS

192
Q

What is the initial symptom for multiple sclerosis?

A

parethesia

193
Q

What is parethesia?

A

burning or prickling sensations

194
Q

T or F: People with MS experience exacerbation stages relapses) followed by remission.

A

TRUE

195
Q

People with MS that experience further exacerbations = ______ of disease.

A

progression

196
Q

What is the tx for Guillain-Barre Syndrome?

A

intravenous immunoglobulin used during acute phase

197
Q

What are the symptoms of Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A

vary from tingling and weakness to leg paralysis, quadriplegia.

198
Q

What is the recovery for Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A

weeks to years; 30% have residual weakness

199
Q

Guillain-Barre syndrome is the demyelination of _______ nerves. It occurs _____ to respiratory or gastrointestinal ______.

A

peripheral; secondary; infection

200
Q

What is the most common NMJ disorder?

A

myasthenia gravis

201
Q

Myasthenia Gravis is a chronic _______ disease.

A

autoimmune

202
Q

T or F: Thymoma is associated with brain tumour.

A

False; associated with myasthenia gravis.

203
Q

What is thymoma?

A

tumour of thymus

204
Q

What antibodies block Ach receptors?

A

IgG autoantibodies

205
Q

What does ‘oma’ mean?

A

denotes tumour or cancer

206
Q

Myasthenia gravis is associated with antibodies against _____ receptors (____) on postsynaptic membrane.

A

ACh; AChR

207
Q

When people have myasthenia gravis, the AChR are not recognized as ‘____’. As a result, _______ occurs. This is the formation of T-cell-dependent ______ autoantibodies which block binding site of AChR to ______

A

self; thymoma; IgG; acetylcholine

208
Q

What is the diagnosis for myasthenia gravis?

A

detection of anti-AChR antibodies

209
Q

What is the tx for myasthenia gravis?

A

immunosuppressants & thymectomy for people with thymoma

210
Q

What are some manifestations for myasthenia gravis?

A
  • muscles of head are earliest areas affected –> result of dysphagia (difficulty of swallowing) = risk of respiratory aspiration; diaphragm and chest wall muscles weaken = imapaired respiration
211
Q

Brain tumours can be primary or _____.

A

metastatic

212
Q

______ tumours do not metastisize readily because there is no lymph channles in brain substance.

A

primary

213
Q

_______ (secondary) tumours arise in organ system _____ brain and spread to brain

A

metastatic; outside

214
Q

What are the symptoms of metastatic tumours?

A
  • seizures, visual disturbances
215
Q

Metastatic tumours are ____X more common the primary tumours

A

10

216
Q

How many people who have cancer have metastatis to brain?

A

20-40%

217
Q

With metastatic tumours, the local effects of tumours are compressing which causing decreased cerebral blood flow and increased _____.

A

ICP

218
Q

What do you call to the primary intracerebral tumours?

A

gliomas

219
Q

What % of the population of adult who have brain tumours?

A

50-60%

220
Q

What is the only known risk factor for brain tumours?

A

ionizing radiation

221
Q

Primary brain tumours are graded __ to ___

A

graded I to IV

222
Q

What are the 4 types of gliomas?

A

astrocytoma (1), oligodendroglioma (2), meningioma (3) & ependymoma (4)

223
Q

Which type of gliomas is more common in children?

A

ependymoma

224
Q

Ependymoma arises from ependymal cells with 70% of tumours begin in _____ ventricle.

A

fourth

225
Q

Where does meningioma begin?

A

in dura mater

226
Q

What is the first symptom of meningioma?

A

seizures

227
Q

Meningioma is often located on wings of ______ bone

A

sphenoid

228
Q

What is the most common glioma? What %?

A

astrocytoma; 75%

229
Q

The survival of people with astrocytoma who have a grade __ and ___ have less than ____ years

A

III; IV; 5

230
Q

What is the symptom of oligodendroglioma?

A

seizures

231
Q

Where does oligodendroglioma found?

A

primarily in white matter

232
Q

T or F: Oligodendroglioma is a fast growing type of gliomas.

A

FALSE; slow growing (Grade II)

233
Q

What areas does lower back pain affect?

A

area between lower rib cage and gluteal muscles with pain often radiating into lower legs

234
Q

Acute LBP is associated with ____ or ____ strain

A

muscle; ligament

235
Q

Chronic LBP includes ____ _____ disease, spondylolysis and spondylolisthesis.

A

degenerative disc

236
Q

What is the forward slippage of a vertebra?

A

spondylolisthesis

237
Q

What is spinal stenosis?

A

narrowing of spinal canal

238
Q

What is the result of the narrowing of spinal canal?

A

pressure on spinal nerves or cord

239
Q

DDD is a process of _____ aging and _____

A

normal; genetic

240
Q

Spondylolysis occurs in ___ __________ of vertebral arch. Its also a degeneration or ____ of PI

A

pars interarticularis; fracture

241
Q

What discs is most affected in herniated intervertebral disc?

A

L4-L5, L-5-S1

242
Q

What is nucleus pulposus? What disorder of spine is it associated with?

A

herniation which compresses spinal nerve thus the pain local/radiated. Associated with herniated interverterbal disc

243
Q

What is the herniation of an intervertebral disk?

A

displacement of nucleus pulposus beyond intervertebral disc space

Pathophysiology (20 decks)

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