Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pathophysiology > Ch-15 Alteration in Cognitive Systems, Cerebral Hemodynamics and Motor Function > Flashcards

Ch-15 Alteration in Cognitive Systems, Cerebral Hemodynamics and Motor Function Flashcards

1
Q

What does cognitive behavior functional competence mean?

A

integrated process of cognitive, sensory and motor systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is full consciousness?

A

state of awareness of oneself and appropriate responses to environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 2 components of consciousness?

A

arousal (state of awakeness) & awareness (content of thought)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is structural alterations?

A

divided according to their location of dysfunction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the disorders of structural alterations?

A

supratentorial disorders & infratentorial disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where is supratentorial disorders located and how does this affect our body?

A

located above tentorium cerebelli; produces changes in arousal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where does infratentorial disorders located and how does this affect the body?

A

located below tentorium cerebelli; produce decline in arousal by dysfuntion of reticular activating system or brainstem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is metabolic alterations?

A

disorders produce a decline in arousal by alteration in delivery of energy substrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the 5 patterns of neurological functions for alterations in arousal?

A

(1) level of consciousness
(2) pattern of breathing
(3) pupillary reaction
(4) oculomotor responses
(5) motor responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the 5 patterns is the most critical index of NS function?

A

level of consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Highest level of consciousness = person _____/oriented to oneself, others, place & time.

A

alert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

T or F: For level of consciousness, the changes indicate improvement or deterioration.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is apneusis?

A

prolonged inspiratory time and a pause before expiration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is ataxic breathing?

A

complete irregularity of breathing with increasing periods of apnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

T or F: For pattern of breathing, normal breathing = rhythmic pattern.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

As consciousness diminishes, breathing responds to changes in ______ levels.

A

PaCO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cheynes-Stokes is directly related to _____

A

PaCO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the altered period of tachypnea & apnea?

A

Cheyne-Stokes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pupillary reaction indicate the presence/level of ______ dysfuntion.

A

brainstem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What causes pinpoint pupils?

A

hypothermia/opiates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the pupil rxn for when ischemia occurs?

A

dilated/fixated pupils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Oculomotor responses is when resting, spontaneous and reflexive ______ movements change at various levels of brain dysfunction.

A

eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the normal response for oculomotor responses.

A

eyes move together to side opposite from turn of head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is an abnormal response for oculomotor responses?

A

eyes do not turn together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is an absent response for oculomotor responses?

A

eyes move in direction of head movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is an example to test oculomotor responses?

A

Caloric Ice Water Test - injected into ear canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the normal response for caloric ice water test?

A

eyes turn together to side of head where ice injected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the abnormal response for caloric ice water test?

A

eyes do not move together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is an absent response for caloric ice water test?

A

no eye movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What does motor responses determine?

A

it determines brain dysfunction & indicate most severely damaged side of brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are some pattern of response for motor responses?

A
  • purposeful
  • inappropriate, generalized movement
  • not present
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Motor signs indicate loss of _______ _______

A

cortical inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Loss of cortical inhibition = decreased ______ which is associated with performance of ______ reflexes and rigidity.

A

consciousness; primitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What disorder is associated with rigidity?

A

paratonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

T or F: Grasp reflex is an example of primitive reflexes

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are some complex reflex-like motor responses? Where does this integrated in?

A

vomiting, yawning & hiccups; brainstem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Dysfunction of what brain area results in compulsive/repetitive production of vomiting, yawning and hiccups

A

medulla oblongata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the two forms of neurological death?

A

brain death (1) & cerebral death (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the two categories of outcomes of alterations in arousal?

A

disability (morbidity) & mortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is brain death?

A
  • brain damaged; irreversible; cannot maintain homeostasis.
  • aka total brain death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What form is neurological death is neurological determination of death (NDD) associated with?

A

brain death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the three Canadian criteria for NDD

A

unresponsive coma (1), no brainstem functions (2) & no spontaneous respiration (e.g., apnea) (3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is cerebral death?

A
  • aka irreversible coma
  • death of cerebral hemispheres except brainstem and cerebellum
  • brain continue to maintain homeostasis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

T or F: Brain death means there is a permanent brain damage.

A

FALSE; cerebral death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What areas of brain are not affected by cerebral death?

A

brainstem & cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the three types of cerebral death?

A

persistent vegetive state (1), minimally conscious state (2) & locked-in syndrome (3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which type of cerebral death is associated with blinking as means of communication?

A

locked in syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What type of cerebral death is associated with complete paralysis of voluntary muscles except for eye movement?

A

locked in syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

In locked in syndrome, content of thought and level of arousal are intact, meaning they are fully ______

A

conscious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What type of cerebral death is associated with following simple commands, manipulate objects and give yes/no responses?

A

minimally conscious state (MCS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What type of cerebral death is responsbile for complete unawareness of self or environment, does not speak, sleep-wake cycles present and cerebral function is absent.

A

persistent vegetative state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

T or F: Minimally conscious state (MCS) is associated with the presence of sleep wake cycles.

A

False; persistent vegetative state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

T or F: Minimally conscious state has something to so with complete unawareness of self or environment.

A

FALSE; persistent vegetative state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

T or F: In persistent vegetative state. the cerebral function is present.

A

False; absent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

T or F: Minimally conscious state includes giving yes/no responses, manipulate objects and follow simple commands.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

T or F: Arousal encompasses all cognitive function.

A

FALSE; awareness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is awareness mediated by?

A

Executive Attention Networks (EAN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The EAN, includes selective _____ and _____ and involve abstract reasoning, planning, decision making, judgement and self-control.

A

attention; memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is selective attention?

A

ability to select information and focus on related specific task

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

T or F: Selective attention includes selective visual and auditory attention.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the 3 types of executive attention deficits?

A

initial detection, mild deficit & severe deficit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which executive attention deficits is associated with a person failure to stay alert & orientate to stimuli?

A

initial detection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the mild deficit of executive attention deficits?

A

grooming and social graces are lacking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which type of executive attention deficits is associated with motionless, lack of response and doesn’t react with surroundings?

A

severe deficit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The characteristics of executive attention deficits is the inability to maintain sustained _____ and inability to set _____ and ____ when goal is achieved.

A

attention; goals; recognize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is memory?

A

recording, retention and retrieval of ifo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is amnesia?

A

loss of memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

T or F: Retrograde amnesia is the inability to form new memories.

A

FALSE; anterograde amnesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

T or F: Anterograde amnesia is the difficulty retrieving past memories.

A

FALSE; Retrograde amnesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are the 5 data processing deficits?

A
  1. Agnosia
  2. Dysphasia
  3. Acute Confusional State & Delirium
  4. Dementia (Alzeheimer’s)
  5. frontotemporal dementia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What does data-processing deficits mean?

A

problems associated with recognizing & processing sensory information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

T or F: Agnosia affects more than one sense.

A

FALSE; affects only one.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

T or F: Agnosia is associated with cerebrovascular accidents to specific brain areas.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is agnosia?

A

-defect of pattern recognition
- failure to recognized form and nature of objects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is dysphasia?

A

impairment of comprehension or production of language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Name the 2 types of dysphasia?

A

expressive dysphasia & receptive dysphasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is another term for expressive dysphasia?

A

Broca’s dysphasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is expressive dysphasia?

A

loss of ability to produce spoken or writing language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

T or F: In expressive dysphasia, verbal comprehension is usually present.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is another term for receptive dysphasia?

A

Wernicke dysphasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is receptive dysphasia?

A

inability to understand written or spoken language.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

T or F: Expressive dysphasia is associated with speech being fluent but words and phrases have no meaning.

A

False; Receptive dysphasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

The pathology of dysphasia is due to occlusion of middle ____ _____

A

cerebral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

One of the ____ major middle cerebral arteries supplies blood to brain

A

three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are the causes of acute confusional states and delirium?

A

drug intoxication, alcohol withdrawal, post anethesia and electrolyte imbalance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Acute confusional states and delirium are the _____ disorders of awareness and may have sudden or ____ onset.

A

transient; gradual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Where does delirium most commonly occurs?

A

in critical care unit over 2-3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are the neurotransmitters involved in delirium?

A

dysfuntion of acetylcholine & dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Another name for delirium?

A

Hyperactive acute confusional state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Another name of excited delirium syndrome?

A

agitated delirium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How do you evaluate acute confusional state & delirium?

A

CAM-ICU: Confusion Assessment Method for Intensive Care Unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

When the person acquires acute confusional states and delirium, there is a disruption of _______ system, thalamus, cortex and _____ system

A

reticular; limbic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are some manifestations for acute confusional states and delirium?

A

terrifying dream, hallucinations, gross alteration of perception, individual cannot sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What are some signs for excited delirium syndrome?

A

rapid breathing, high tolerance to pain and superhuman strenght

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

T or F: Hyperkinetic delirium is an excited delirium syndrome that can lead to sudden death.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is dementia?

A

deterioration/progressive failure of many cerebral functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What causes dementia?

A

cerebral neuron degeneration, atherosclerosis & genetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What are some manifestations for dementia?

A

no specific cure exists, maximizing remaining capacities & helping family to understand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What disease is the leading cause of severe cognitive dsyfunction in older adults/ exact cause is unknown?

A

Alzheimer’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What are the three forms of Alzheimer’s disease?

A

(1) Nonhereditary sporadic late-onset AD
(2) Early-onset familial AD
(3) Early-onset AD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

T or F: Early-onset AD is very rare.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

T or F: Early-onset familial AD is the most common form of AD.

A

False; Nonhereditary sporadic late-onset AD

103
Q

T or F: Nonhereditary sporadic late-onset has no specific genetic association.

A

True

104
Q

What % of Nonhereditary sporadic late-onset AD are there?

A

70-90%

105
Q

Which form of AD is linked to chromosomal 21 mutations?

A

Early-onset familial AD

106
Q

Which form of AD is linked to chromosomal 19 mutations?

A

Early-onset AD

107
Q

T or F: The pathological alterations of all types of Alzheimer’s are different.

A

FALSE; all pathological alteration of all types of AD are same

108
Q

The key components of AD are the accumulation of ____ fragments of ______ plaques (1),

loss of _____ in forebrain cholinergic neurons = _____ of neurons, (2)

____ proteins (microtubule) form neurofibrillary tangles within the neuron = _____ neural death (3),

neurofibrillary tangle are concentrated in ______ cortex (4)

Brain atrophy via widening of ____ (grooves) and ____ of gyrus (5)

A

toxic; acetylcholine, death; tau, increased; cerebral; sulcus, shrinking

109
Q

T or F: Sulcus are grooves.

A

True

110
Q

What are the first symptoms of AD?

A

memory loss & impaired learning

111
Q

What are the continuation of symptoms of AD?

A
  • language
  • reasoning
  • social behavior
  • dyspraxia
112
Q

What is dyspraxia?

A

loss of movement and co-ordination

113
Q

T or F: When person has AD, the progression from STM loss to total loss of cognitive function.

A

true

114
Q

T or F: The pathophysiological changes of AD can occur decades before dementia syndrome.

A

true

115
Q

Which data-processing deficits is previously known as ‘pick disease’?

A

frontotemporal deficits

116
Q

T or F: Frontotemporal dementia is the second most know form of dementia.

A

true

117
Q

The frontotemporal dementia is an umbrella term for disorders that affect _____ and _____ regions of brain.

A

frontal; temporal

118
Q

What are the first symptom of frontotemporal dementia?

A

apathy, poor judgement/ reasoning, break laws

119
Q

T or F: Frontotemporal dementia involves mutation of tau encoding genes.

A

true

120
Q

Frontotemporal dementia has ____ component with onset at less than _____ years old.

A

genetic; 60

121
Q

Seizures represent a _____ of disease, not a specific disease entity.

A

manifestation

122
Q

What is seizure?

A

sudden disruption in brain electrical function caused by ab excessive discharge of cortical neurons (interneurons)

123
Q

What is epilepsy?

A

recurrence of seizures where no known cause for seizures can be found.

124
Q

What are convulsions?

A

jerky, contact-relax movements associated with seizures.

125
Q

What are some probable causes of seizures for older adults?

A

alcohol, drug withdrawal; metabolic disorders; CNS degeneration

126
Q

What are some probable causes of seizures for young adults?

A

alcohol, drug withdrawal; brain tumour; peri-natal insults

127
Q

When does peri-natal insults occur?

A

between 28 weeks of gestation to 28 days after birth

128
Q

What are the three anatomy of a seizures?

A

(1) epileptogenic focus
(2) tonic phase
(3) clonic phase

129
Q

Which anatomy of seizures involves muscles contraction with increased muscle tone, thus associated with loss of consciousness?

A

tonic phase

130
Q

What happens to the brain during clonic phase?

A

there is reduced in O2, leading to the switch to anaerobic metabolism, thus there is an accumulation of lactic acid

131
Q

What is the cause of the seizure cessation during clonic phase?

A

due to epileptogenic neurons being exhauted

132
Q

T or F: Increase in number of seizures = decrease in brain damage.

A

FALSE; increase in brain damage

133
Q

What is the result of clonic phase?

A

seizure discharge is interrupted, thus intermittent contractions diminish and cease

134
Q

Which anatomy of seizures involves alternative contraction and relaxation of muscles.

A

clonic phase

135
Q

Clonic phase begins when _____ neurons in thalamus and basal ganglia react to cortical excitation.

A

inhibitory

136
Q

Where is the focus of epileptogenic seizures?

A

brain site where seizure originates; aka epileptogenic zone

137
Q

Neurons in epileptogenic focus are ______ and activated by numerus stimuli

A

hypersensitive

138
Q

What is SPECT?

A

test that detects blood flow changes in brain

139
Q

T or F: During seizure focus can be determined by activated SPECT.

A

true

140
Q

The cerebral blood flow (CBF) related to _____ injury states.

A

three

141
Q

What are the three injury states of CBF?

A

(1) inadequate cerebral perfusion
(2) normal perfusion but with elevated intracranial pressure (ICP)
(3)Excessive blood volume (CBV)

142
Q

What is the normal ICP?

A

1-15 mmHg

143
Q

ICP results from _____ in intracranial content due to tumour, edema, hemorrhage, etc

A

increase

144
Q

What is the first thing to be removed in order to increase content?

A

displacement of cerebral spinal fluid (CSF)

145
Q

What is the result of continued high ICP?

A

alterations in cerebral blood volume and blood flow.

146
Q

What is the result of alterations of cerebral blood volume and blood flow?

A

four stages of ICP that lead to death

147
Q

Which stages of ICP is associated with the cranial vasoconstriction and systemic adjustments?

A

Stage 1

148
Q

During stage 1 of ICP, the cranial ______ and systemic _____ result in a ______ in ICP.

A

vasoconstriction; adjustments decrease

149
Q

T or F: There are no detectable symptoms of ICP during stage 1.

A

True

150
Q

During stage 2 of ICP, the pressure begins to affect neuron _____

A

oxygenation

151
Q

With the continual expansion of intracranial contents during stage 2, the ICP ______ compensatory mechanisms

A

exceeds

152
Q

What are some manifestations during stage 2 of ICP?

A

confusion, restlessness and lethargy

153
Q

The pupils and breathing during stage 2 of ICP remain ______

A

normal

154
Q

What is best intervention for stage 2 of ICP?

A

surgical intevention

155
Q

What is autoregulation?

A

mechanism to alter diameter of intracranial blood vessels to maintain a constant blood flow during changes in ICP

156
Q

T or F: Autoregulation is lost in stage 4.

A

False; lost in stage 3

157
Q

When autoregulation is loss, ICP approaches _____ pressure.

A

arterial

158
Q

During stage 3 of ICP, severe ______, hypercapnia, and _____ occur.

A

hypoxia; acidosis

159
Q

What are some manifestations for stage 3 of ICP?

A

loss of peripheral vision, blindness and tinnitus

160
Q

During stage 3 of ICP, ______ intervention is ______ here.

A

surgical; needed

161
Q

What is the condition of pupils during stage 3 of ICP?

A

small & sluggish

162
Q

During stage 3 of ICP, there is ______ of pulse pressure.

A

widening

163
Q

Herniated brain tissue in stage 4 of ICP, means there is ______ in blood supply

A

reduction

164
Q

During stage 4 of ICP, the brain tissue shifts or _____ from greater pressure to lesser pressure

A

herniates

165
Q

T or F: Herniations rapidly increases ICP.

A

true

166
Q

What are the conditions of pupils during stage 4 of ICP?

A

bilateral dilation and fixation

167
Q

The breathing during stage 4 of ICP is ______

A

Cheyne-Stokes breathing

168
Q

The mental status during stage 4 of ICP?

A

progresses to deep coma

169
Q

During stage 4 of ICP, surgical intervention is _____ here. Thus ______ occur

A

futile; death

170
Q

What are the three types of cerebral edema?

A

vasogenic edema (1), cytotoxic edema (2) & interstitial edema (3)

171
Q

What is the most important type of cerebral edema?

A

vasogenic edema

172
Q

What causes vasogenic edema?

A

increased capillary permeability/disruption of BBB

173
Q

What are some manifestations of vasogenic edema?

A

consciousness disturbances and increases in ICP

174
Q

What is the resolution for vasogenic edema?

A

slow diffusion

175
Q

During vasogenic edema, the plasma proteins and fluid leak into cranial _____. So the fluid accumulates in _____ matter which leads to ______ of myelinated fibers.

A

ECF; white; separation

176
Q

During brain edema, the lateral ventricles are ______ and the _____ flattened

A

compressed; gyri

177
Q

In cytotoxic edema the loss of ____ and gain large amounts of of ____ = change in intracellular osmolarity thus the cells _____

A

K+; Na+; swell

178
Q

Which type of cerebral edema is associated with toxic factors that affects neural, glial, and endothelial cells which results in loss of active transport mechanisms?

A

cytotoxic (metabolic) edema

179
Q

Which type of cerebral edema is associated with the movement of cerebral spinal fluid from ventricles into interstitial space?

A

interstitial edema

180
Q

What is the result of interstitial edema?

A

disappearance of myelination

181
Q

With interstitial edema, as fluid volume increases around ventricles, there is an increased pressure within ______ matters, which results in disappearance of _______.

A

white; myelination

182
Q

What is the condition in which there is an excess of cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) in ventricles or subarachnoid space?

A

hydroencephalus

183
Q

What is the cause of hydroencephalus?

A
  • increased CSF production –> obstruction in ventricles –> defective reabsorption of CSF fluid into systemic blood.
184
Q

What are the 2 types of hydroencephalus?

A

communicating hydrocephalus & noncommunicating hydrocephalus

185
Q

T or F: The cause of noncommunicating hydrocephalus is infection.

A

False; congenital

186
Q

T or F: Communicating hydrocephalus only occurs in adults.

A

FALSE; noncommunicating hydroencephalus

187
Q

T or F: Communicating hydrocephalus is the impairment absorption of CSF from subarachnoid space

A

True.

188
Q

What causes communicating hydrocephalus?

A

infection

189
Q

T or F: Noncommunicating hydrocephalus is present from birth (congenital)

A

true

190
Q

What is noncommunicating hydrocephalus?

A

obstruction of CSF between ventricles

191
Q

The word “communicating” refers to fact the _____ can still flow ____ the ventricles.

A

CSF; between

192
Q

Hydrocephalus is due to the _____ of CSF flow which increase pressure and ____ of ventricles. Leads to ______ of cerebral cortex and _______ of ______ matter

A

obstruction; dilation; atrophy; degeneration; white

193
Q

The manifestations for acute hydrocephalus is the ____ developing of ICP, which leads to deep _____

A

rapidly; coma

194
Q

T or F: Hydrocephalus develops slowly for normal pressure hydrocephalus.

A

true

195
Q

In normal pressure hydrocephalus, there the dilation of ventricles _____ increased pressure

A

without

195
Q

In normal pressure hydrocephalus, the family notices declines in _____.

A

memory

196
Q

What are the triad symptoms for normal pressure hydrocephalus?

A

broad-base gait, falling & incontinence.

197
Q

What is the tx for hydrocephalus?

A

shunt procedure

198
Q

T or F: Shunt procedure is one of the three most common neurosurgical procedures.

A

true

199
Q

T or F: Hypertonia is the decreased in muscle tone.

A

false; hypotonia

200
Q

People with hypotonia have joints that are _____ which can acquire positions requiring extreme joint mobility

A

hyperflexible

201
Q

What are some characteristics of hypotonia?

A

tire easily (1)
difficulty rising from sitting position (2)
muscle mass atrophy (3)
muscles appear flabby and flat (4)

202
Q

T or F: Hypotonia is the increased in muscle tone.

A

FALSE; hypertonia

203
Q

What are the symptoms of hypertonia?

A

enlargement of muscle mass, dev of firm muscles and muscle spasms

204
Q

Which muscle tone is associated with passive movement the occurs with increased resistance?

A

hypertonia

205
Q

What are the causes of alterations in muscle movement?

A

neurotransmitter dopamine involved in several disorders (1) & other disorders are neurological disorder (2)

206
Q

What is hyperkinesia?

A

excessive, purposeless movement

207
Q

What are the 3 types of hyperkinesia?

A
  1. Paroxysmal dyskinesias
  2. Tardive dyskinesias
  3. Ballism
208
Q

Which type of hyperkinesia is associated with the muscle disorder with wild flinging movement of limbs?

A

ballism

209
Q

What are some characteristics of tardive dyskinesias?

A

rapid repetitive stereotypical movements like continually chewing or tongue protrusions.

210
Q

A disorder that involves tardive dyskinesias is _____ syndrome

A

tourette

211
Q

Tardive dyskinesias involves _______ movement of face, lips, tongue and extremeties.

A

involuntary

212
Q

what often caused tardive dyskinesia?

A

prolonged antipsychotic meds

213
Q

Which type of hyperkinesia is associated with involuntary movements that occur as spasms

A

paroxysmal dyskinesias

214
Q

What is huntington’s disease known as?

A

chorea

215
Q

T or F: Huntington’s disease symptoms are hallmark of hyperkinesia.

A

true

216
Q

What is the onset for HD?

A

25-45 years old

217
Q

What brain areas involved in HD?

A

basal ganglia and cerebral cortex

218
Q

HD is relatively rare degrative _______ disorder

A

hyperkinetic

219
Q

What are some manifestations for HD?

A
  • begins in face & arms –> eventually the whole body
  • thinking is slow
  • alterations in euphoria and depression are common
  • involuntary fragmented movements.
220
Q

HD is an inherited disease, _______ dominant trait

A

autosomal

221
Q

T or F: The age of disease onset for HD is determined by number of repeated amino acid chains.

A

true

222
Q

HD: increase amino acid chains = _____ toxicity of protein = _______ age of onset

A

increased; earlier

223
Q

How many does healthy gene repeats?

A

10-26

224
Q

In HD, altered amino acids chain = _____ toxic to neurons

A

protein

225
Q

There is a mutation in chromosome ____ for HD that result in _____ long protein caused by cytosine-adenine-guanine (____) trinucleotide.

A

4; abnormally; CAG

226
Q

Hypokinesia means there is a _____ in movement

A

decreased

227
Q

What is hypokinesia?

A

loss of voluntary movement despite preserved consciousness.

228
Q

What are the two types of hypokinesia?

A

akinesia (1) & bradykinesia (2)

229
Q

T or F: Bradykinesia is the lack of spontaneous movement or associated movements.

A

FALSE; akinesia

230
Q

What is bradykinesia?

A

slowing of performed movements

231
Q

What is akinesia?

A

lack of movement

232
Q

What is Parkinson’s disease (PD)?

A

complex motor disorder accompanied by systemic nonmotor and neurological symptoms

233
Q

When does primary PD begin?

A

after 40 years old with increased incident after 60 years old

234
Q

T or F: Secondary PD is the leading cause of neurological disability in people over 60 years old.

A

FALSE; primary PD

235
Q

________ intoxication PD is the most common secondary form and most often reversible.

A

medication

236
Q

What are the causes of medication intoxication PD?

A
  • neuroleptics –> antipsychotics (treat hallucinations, delusion)
  • antiemetics –> prescribed to address nausea and vomiting
  • anti-hypersentives
237
Q

Secondary PD is caused by ______ other than PD (e.g., head trauma, infections, toxins and meds intoxication).

A

disorder

238
Q

T or F: PD involves single gene mutations.

A

FALSE; several gene mutations

239
Q

What is the pathology for PD?

A

basal ganglia dysfunction due to misfolded proteins

240
Q

Symptoms like muscle tremor and rigidity produce _____ movement called _____’s

A

abnormal; Parkinson

241
Q

PD: Because of the basal ganglia dysfunction due to misfolded proteins, there is a loss of _____-producing neuorns in ______ ____

A

dopamine; substantia nigra

242
Q

What are some manifestations for PD?

A
  • resting tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia, dysarthria
  • loss of smell can be an early symptom
243
Q

Dysarthria = _____ ____

A

slurring speech

244
Q

What is the result of disorders of equilibrium?

A

falls like a post

245
Q

T or F: PD can make appropriate postural adjustments to tilting

A

FALSE; can’t make appropriate postural adjustments to tilting

246
Q

What is the principle feature of Lou Gehrig’s disease?

A

degeneration of both lower and upper motor neurons

247
Q

How does Lou Gehrig’s disease affect lower motor neurons?

A

denervation of motor units

248
Q

How does Lou Gehrig’s disease affect upper motor neurons?

A
  • decrease in large motor neurons in CNS
  • motor neurons death results in demyelination and glia proliferation and sclerosis (scarring)
249
Q

What are some manifestations for Lou Gehrig’s disease?

A
  • muscle weakness starting in arms and legs, progressing to difficulty speaking and swallowing.
  • no associated mental or sensory symptoms.
250
Q

T or F: There is an associated mental or sensory symptoms in Lou Gehrig’s disease

A

FALSE; no associated mental or sensory symptoms

251
Q

What is the tx for Lou Gehrig’s disease?

A

meds: rilutek extends time before ventilatory assistance is required

252
Q
A

Pathophysiology (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions