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CPT exam prep > Chapter 6 Prep(Assesments) > Flashcards

Chapter 6 Prep(Assesments) Flashcards

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1
Q

A health and fitness assessment is designed to:
A. diagnose the medical or health conditions of a client.
B. observe and document a client’s individual structural and functional status.
C. prescribe medication based on a client’s health conditions.
D. provide the best treatment to a client using new scientific methods.

A

B

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2
Q

A health and fitness professional should:
A. diagnose medical or health conditions of clients.
B. screen clients for exercise limitations.
C. provide treatment for clients’ health conditions.
D. prescribe different diets for different clients.

A

B

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3
Q 
Which of the following is part of the subjective information gathered in a fitness assessment? C
A. Physiological measurement
B. Pulse
C. Occupation 
D. Body composition
A

C

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4
Q

In the context of preparticipation health screening, an individual who has no signs or symptoms of cardiovascular, pulmonary, or metabolic disease but has greater than two cardiovascular disease risk factors is considered to be at:
A. no risk.
B. low risk.
C. high risk.

A

C

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5
Q

_____ is a questionnaire that has been designed to determine the safety or possible risk of exercising for a client based on the answers to specific health history questions.
A. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)
B. Inhibitory control test
C. McGill Pain Questionnaire
D. Remote Associates Test (RAT)

A

A

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6
Q 
Prolonged periods of sitting throughout the day are indicative of: 
A. high energy expenditure.
B. low energy expenditure.
C. good cardiorespiratory conditioning.
D. good muscle conditioning.
A

B

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7
Q

What happens as a result of repetitive movements?
A. They help avoid musculoskeletal injury and dysfunction.
B. They lead to poor cardiorespiratory conditioning.
C. They create a pattern overload to muscles and joints.
D. They provide good functioning of the kinetic chain.

A

C

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8
Q 
Working with the arms overhead for long periods can lead to shoulder and neck soreness as a result of:
A. tightness in the latissimus dorsi.
B. weakness in the gastrocnemius.
C. weakness in the rotator cuff.
D. tightness in the soleus.
A

A

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9
Q

In addition to elevated resting heart rate, blood pressure, and ventilation at rest and exercise, mental stress can lead to:
A. tightness in the gastrocnemius.
B. abnormal breathing patterns.
C. increased dorsiflexion.
D. poor control of the lower extremities.

A

B

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10
Q

Which of the following is an effect of an ankle sprain?
A. A decrease in the neural control to the gluteus medius and gluteus maximus muscles
B. A decrease in the neural control to muscles that stabilize the patella
C. Decreased neural control to stabilizing muscles of the core of the ankle
D. Decreased neural control of the rotator cuff muscles

A

A

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11
Q

Knee injuries involving ligaments lead to:
A. an increase in the neural control to the gluteus medius and gluteus maximus muscles.
B. increased neural control to stabilizing muscles of the core of the knee.
C. a decrease in the neural control to muscles that stabilize the patella.
D. decreased neural control of the rotator cuff muscles.

A

c

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12
Q

Low-back injuries can cause:
A. an increase in the neural control to muscles that stabilize the patella.
B. a decrease in the neural control to the gluteus medius and gluteus maximus muscle.
C. increased neural control of the rotator cuff muscles.
D. decreased neural control to stabilizing muscles of the core.

A

D

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13
Q

Shoulder injuries result in:
A. a decrease in the neural control to the gluteus medius and gluteus maximus muscles.
B. altered neural control of the rotator cuff muscles.
C. decreased neural control to stabilizing muscles of the core of the spine.
D. an increase in the neural control to muscles that stabilize the patella.

A

B

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14
Q

Which of the following is true of beta-blockers? D
A. They are generally used as antihypertensive.
B. They are prescribed for psychiatric disorders.
C. They are prescribed for peripheral edema.
D. They are usually used to treat angina.

A

A

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15
Q 
Nitrates are generally prescribed for:C
A. peripheral edema.
B. low blood pressure.
C. congestive heart failure.
D. bronchial smooth muscle constriction.
A

C

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16
Q 
Which of the following medications is used in the treatment of various psychiatric and emotional disorders? C
A. Nitrates
B. Antihypertensives
C. Antidepressants
D. Vasodilators
A

C

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17
Q 
Which of the following medications is used in the treatment of angina? 
A. Beta-blockers
B. Calcium-channel blockers
C. Bronchodilators
D. Antidepressants
A

B

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18
Q 
What is the effect of diuretics on the heart?
A. They increase the heart rate.
B. They decrease the heart rate.
C. They stop the heartbeat.
D. They have no effect on the heartbeat.
A

D

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19
Q 
What is the effect of beta-blockers on the heart?
A. They increase the heart rate.
B. They decrease the heart rate.
C. They stop the heartbeat.
D. They have no effect on the heartbeat.
A

B

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20
Q

What are the effects of vasodilators on the heart rate and blood pressure?
A. They increase the heart rate and decrease the blood pressure.
B. They decrease the heart rate and increase the blood pressure.
C. They do not have any effect on the heart rate and blood pressure.
D. They have no effect on the heart rate but increase the blood pressure.

A

A

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21
Q 
Which of the following is part of the objective information collected in a fitness assessment?
A. Lifestyle
B. Occupation
C. Food consumption habits
D. Physiological measurements
A

D

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22
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_ is recorded on the inside of the wrist.
A. Axillary pulse
B. Brachial pulse
C. Radial pulse
D. Carotid pulse
A

C

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23
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_ is recorded on the neck to the side of the larynx.
A. Brachial pulse
B. Carotid pulse
C. Radial pulse
D. Axillary pulse
A

B

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24
Q 
Which is the preferred pulse point to record a person’s heart rate?
A. Radial artery
B. Brachial artery
C. Axillary artery
D. Carotid artery
A

A

25
Q 
The typical resting heart rate of a human being is between:
A. 10 and 40 beats per minute.
B. 50 and 70 beats per minute.
C. 70 and 80 beats per minute.
D. 90 and 100 beats per minute.
A

C

26
Q

What is the purpose of exercising at target heart rate training zone one?
A. It increases muscle mass and strength.
B. It builds high-end work capacity.
C. It builds aerobic base and aids in recovery.
D. It increases aerobic and anaerobic endurance.

A

C

27
Q

Aerobic and anaerobic endurance are increased by training at:
A. target heart rate training zone one.
B. target heart rate training zone two.
C. target heart rate training zone three.
D. target heart rate training zone four.

A

B

28
Q

The purpose of target heart rate training zone three is to:
A. build muscle mass and strength.
B. build high-end work capacity.
C. build aerobic base and aid in recovery.
D. increase aerobic and anaerobic endurance.

A

B

29
Q 
A person’s estimated maximal heart rate is found by subtracting his or her age from the number \_\_\_\_\_.
A. 200
B. 210
C. 220
D. 230
A

C

30
Q

What is blood pressure (BP)?
A. It is the pressure of the circulating blood against the walls of the blood vessels.
B. It is the pressure created by the heart each time it interrupts blood flow.
C. It is the pressure within the arterial system when the heart is beating rapidly.
D. It is the pressure within the arterial system before the heart contracts.

A

A

31
Q 
According to blood pressure measurements, \_\_\_\_\_ represents the pressure within the arterial system after the heart contracts. 
A. distal
B. systolic
C. medial
D. diastolic
A

B

32
Q 
In the context of blood pressure measurements, \_\_\_\_\_ represents the pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood.
A. systolic
B. medial
C. diastolic
D. distal
A

C

33
Q

Body composition refers to:
A. the percentage of body weight.
B. the relative percentage of body weight that is fat tissue.
C. the relative percentage of body weight that is fat-free tissue.
D. the relative percentage of body weight that is fat versus fat-free tissue.

A

D

34
Q 
Which of the following body composition assessment methods is based on the principle that lean mass sinks, whereas body fat floats?
A. Skinfold measurement
B. Bioelectrical impedance
C. Body mass index
D. Hydrostatic weighing
A

D

35
Q 
Identify the method used to estimate the amount of subcutaneous fat beneath the skin.
A. Circumference measurement
B. Skinfold measurement
C. Body mass index
D. Underwater weighing
A

B

36
Q 
According to the Durnin formula to calculate a person’s percentage of body fat, \_\_\_\_\_ is one of the sites of skinfold measurement. 
A. waist
B. chest
C. triceps
D. calves
A

B

37
Q 
A female client’s waist measures 32 inches, and her hips measure 40 inches. In this scenario, her waist-to-hip ratio can be calculated as:
A. 0.20.
B. 0.40.
C. 0.60.
D. 0.80.
A

D

38
Q

Body Mass Index (BMI) is a quick and easy method to determine:
A. a client’s lean body mass.
B. a client’s muscle mass.
C. whether a client’s weight is appropriate for his or her height.
D. whether a client’s fat mass is within his or her percent fat recommendations.

A

C

39
Q 
The \_\_\_\_\_ estimates an individual’s cardiorespiratory fitness level on the basis of a submaximal bout of stair climbing at a set pace for a standard time limit.
A. Cycle ergometer test
B. YMCA 3-minute step test
C. Rockport Walk Test
D. Run test
A

B

40
Q 
The \_\_\_\_\_ is designed to estimate a cardiovascular starting point, which is then modified based on ability level.
A. Cycle ergometer test
B. YMCA 3-minute step test
C. Rockport Walk Test
D. Spirometry test
A

C

41
Q 
A pronation distortion syndrome is characterized by:
A. an anterior tilt to the pelvis.
B. outwardly rotated knees.
C. a backward head and flat shoulders.
D. flat feet and adducted knees.
A

D

42
Q 
A lower crossed syndrome is characterized by:
A. an anterior tilt to the pelvis.
B. forward head and rounded shoulders.
C. flat feet and knock knees.
D. a backward head and flat shoulders.
A

A

43
Q 
An upper crossed syndrome is characterized by:
A. an anterior tilt to the pelvis.
B. a forward head and rounded shoulders.
C. flat feet and adducted knees.
D. outwardly rotated knees.
A

B

44
Q 
Which of the following is a kinetic chain checkpoint?
A. Wrist
B. Neck
C. Knee
D. Waist
A

C

45
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_ is designed to assess dynamic flexibility, core strength, balance, and overall neuromuscular control.
A. Davies Test
B. Push-up test
C. Pulling assessment
D. Overhead squat assessment
A

D

46
Q

The appropriate position for pushing assessment is _____.
A. standing with arms raised overhead with elbows fully extended
B. standing with abdomen drawn inward, feet in a split stance and toes pointing forward
C. standing with feet shoulders-width apart in a squat position
D. standing with hands on the hips and eyes focused on an object straight ahead

A

B

47
Q

What is the purpose of a push-up test?
A. To measure muscular endurance of the upper body
B. To estimate a cardiovascular starting point
C. To assess lower extremity agility
D. To reduce the pressure within the arterial system

A

A

48
Q 
Identify a performance assessment test used to measure upper extremity agility and stabilization.
A. Rockport Walk Test
B. Shark skill test
C. Davies test
D. YMCA 3-Minute Step Test
A

C

49
Q 
Which of the following assessments involves positioning a client in the center box of a grid, with hands on hips and standing on one leg?
A. Overhead squat assessment
B. Davies test
C. Pulling assessment
D. Shark skill test
A

D

50
Q 
The \_\_\_\_\_ can also be used to determine training intensities of the bench press.
A. upper extremity strength assessment
B. single-leg squat assessment
C. lower extremity strength assessment
D. overhead squat assessment
A

A

51
Q 
1. Which of the following assessments BEST measures cardiovascular efficiency? 
	•	Bioelectrical Impedance 
	•	Shark Skill Test  
	•	YMCA Step Test 
	•	Davies Test
A

YMCA Step Test

52
Q

What is the proper formula to calculate BMI?

A

Weight (kg)/ Height (m2)

53
Q 
If a client demonstrates knees that cave in during the overhead squat assessment what muscle(s) are MOST likely tight (overactive)? 
	•	Gluteus medius  
	•	Gluteus maximus  
	•	Vastus medialis oblique  
	•	Adductor complex
A

Adductor Complex

54
Q 
4. What muscle(s) are MOST likely tight (overactive) if a client demonstrates an arching low back during the overhead squat assessment? 
	•	Transverse abdominus  
	•	Gluteus maximus 
	•	Hip Flexors 
	•	Multifidus
A

Hip Flexors

55
Q 
5. What muscle(s) are MOST likely weak (underactive) if a client demonstrates knees move inward during the overhead squat assessment? 
	•	Latissimus dorsi
	•	Psoas  
	•	Gluteus medius
	•	Soleus
A

Gluteus Medius

56
Q 
6. If a client demonstrates arms that fall forward during the overhead squat, which muscle(s) are MOST likely weak (underactive)? 
	•	Teres major  
	•	Lower trapezius 
	•	Latissimus dorsi 
	•	Pectoralis major
A

Lower Trapezius

57
Q
  1. True or false, “how do you feel?” is an example of an objective criteria? A
    • True
    • False
A

False

58
Q
  1. True or false, beta blockers increase heart rate?
    • True
    • False
A

False, they decrease

CPT exam prep (20 decks)

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