Chapter 12 ( Speed, Agility, Quickness)

Question 1

Which of the following is otherwise known as reactive training?
A. Isotonic training
B. Plyometric training 
C. Isometric training
D. Weight training

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Which of the following refers to the ability to move the body in one intended direction as fast as possible?
A. Agility
B. Speed
C. Flexibility
D. Quickness

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Which of the following statements is true of speed in speed training?
A. Speed is the product of stride length and stride rate.
B. Speed is the ability to change direction quickly, while maintaining proper posture.
C. Speed is otherwise known as reaction time.
D. Speed is usually independent of any genetic factor.

Answer 3

A

Question 4

Which of the following refers to the velocity of distance covered divided by time?
A. Speed
B. Agility
C. Quickness
D. Resilience

Answer 4

A

Question 5

Which of the following refers to the number of strides taken in a given amount of time or distance?
A. Stride rate
B. Stride length
C. Stride span
D. Stride area

Answer 5

A

Question 6

Which of the following is true of movement speed?
A. The magnitude of movement speed is usually population specific.
B. The risk of injury deceases with increase in movement speed.
C. It is constant and same for any population.
D. It is otherwise known as reaction time.

Answer 6

A

Question 7

Which of the following refers to the distance covered in one stride during running?
A. Stride rate
B. Stride length
C. Stride frequency
D. Stride count

Answer 7

B

Question 8

Which of the following statements is true of the frontside mechanics of sprint technique?
A. It involves the overextension of the hip and the knee.
B. It is associated with a stronger push phase.
C. It usually deals with gluteal contraction.
D. It includes the triple flexion of the ankle, knee, and the hip.

Answer 8

D

Question 9

Which of the following statements is true of the backside mechanics of sprint technique?
A. It involves the triple extension of the hip, ankle, and knee in appropriate synchrony.
B. It is associated with a less braking force.
C. It deals with increased forward diving forces.
D. It includes inflexion of the hip.

Answer 9

A

Question 10

Frontisde mechanics of sprint technique is associated with:
A. higher braking forces.
B. increased forward driving forces.
C. a stronger push phase.
D. a stronger hip-knee extension.

Answer 10

B

Question 11

Backside mechanics of sprint technique is associated with:
A. stronger push phases.
B. higher braking forces.
C. an increased forward driving force.
D. a stronger hip-knee inflexion.

Answer 11

A

Question 12

Which of the following should be ensured while executing frontside mechanic drills?
A. The pelvis should stay neutral.
B. The hip and the knee should be extended.
C. The drill should involve a strong push phase.
D. The drill should focus on gluteal contraction.

Answer 12

A

Question 13

Which of the following refers to the ability to start (or accelerate), stop (or decelerate and stabilize), and change direction quickly, while maintaining proper posture?
A. Speed
B. Quickness
C. Nimbleness
D. Agility

Answer 13

D

Question 14

Which of the following is true of a kinetic chain checkpoint during running movements?
A. In a lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC), the body should have a slight lean during acceleration.
B. In a knee complex, the knees must be turned in.
C. The neck and head should compensate and move into extension.
D. The head should be beyond the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC) to ensure stability.

Answer 14

A

Question 15

Vincent ran for a short duration of 20 minutes. During the course of his run, he experienced abnormal stress that caused his overall performance to deteriorate. Which of the following, if true, would have most likely caused this fall in his overall performance?

Answer 15

C

Question 16

Isla ran for a period of 15 minutes. She experienced no stress or pain during the course of her run. Which of the following would have helped improve the overall performance of her running activity?
A. Her body being upright during acceleration
B. Her foot and ankle being pointed straight in a dorsiflexed position when it hit the ground
C. Ensuring the over flattening of her foot during the course of her run
D. Ensuring that her lumbo-pelvic-hip (LPHC) complex was at maximum during maximal velocity

Answer 16

B

Question 17

Which of the following refers to the ability to react and change body position with maximal rate of force production, in all planes of motion and from all body positions, during functional activities?
A. Speed
B. Agility
C. Quickness
D. Nimbleness

Answer 17

C

Question 18

Which of the following indicates quickness in an activity?
A. Swerving to avoid a car accident 
B. Warming up for a marathon
C. Performing weight lifts
D. Doing vertical jumps

Answer 18

A(REACTION TIME)

Question 19

Which of the following statements is true about quickness in quickness training?
A. It involves the ability to assess kinesthetic stimuli in determining the reaction time of the body in any situation.
B. It refers to the ability to move the body in one intended direction as fast as possible.
C. It excludes assessing visual and auditory stimuli in determining a quick physical response in any situation.
D. It involves using minimal rate of force production to react without changing the body position.

Answer 19

A

Question 20

Which of the following is otherwise referred to as reaction time?
A. Quickness
B. Agility
C. Speed
D. Nimbleness

Answer 20

A

Question 21

Which of the following is true of Speed, Agility, and Quickness (SAQ) drills for nonathletic populations?
A. An SAQ training can exclude a warm-up protocol from its training program.
B. The biologic demand is of very low intensity with SAQ protocols.
C. Personal trainers are required to perform extensive client evaluations examining exercise experience before beginning an SAQ training program.
D. The health history and injury profile of clients should ideally be excluded from evaluation before the commencement of SAQ programs.

Answer 21

C

Question 22

Which of the following is true of Speed, Agility, and Quickness (SAQ) drills for nonathletic populations?
A. An SAQ training can exclude a warm-up protocol from its training program.
B. The biologic demand is of very low intensity with SAQ protocols.
C. Personal trainers are required to perform extensive client evaluations examining exercise experience before beginning an SAQ training program.
D. The health history and injury profile of clients should ideally be excluded from evaluation before the commencement of SAQ programs.

Answer 22

B

Question 23

Which of the following statements is true of Speed, Agility, and Quickness (SAQ) training for weight loss?
A. Interval training is ineffective in improving health-related issues.
B. High-intensity, short-duration programs are better than moderate-intensity, long-duration programs for functional capacity and muscular power.
C. High-intensity, short bouts of SAQ drills are a poor choice for interval training.
D. Moderate-intensity, long-duration programs are better than high-intensity, short-duration programs for fat and weight loss.

Answer 23

B

Question 24

Loss of bone density is known as \_\_\_\_\_.
A. osteopenia
B. hemophilia
C. achalasia
D. hematoma

Answer 24

A

Question 25

Which of the following statements is true of sarcopenia?
A. It is more common in young infants than in older adults.
B. Resistance training is usually ineffective in improving the condition of the patients suffering from sarcopenia.
C. Increased speed of movement and rate of force production similar to Speed, Agility, and Quickness (SAQ) protocols aid in reversing sarcopenia.
D. It is a condition describing the loss of bone density in older women.

Answer 25

C

Question 26

Which of the following refers to the age-related loss of skeletal muscle mass?
A. Osteopenia,
B. Hemophilia
C. Sarcopenia
D. Hematoma

Answer 26

C

Question 27

Which of the following statements is true of osteopenia?
A. It is particularly common in women.
B. It has little effect on fractures or skeletal disorders.
C. It is independent of the aging process in people.
D. It is a condition describing the loss of skeletal muscle mass in younger adults.

Answer 27

A

Question 28

Which of the following should be part of the program design for a client at stabilization level?
A. Speed, Agility, and Quickness (SAQ) drill without any rest period
B. 6–8 SAQ drills of high inertia
C. 1–2 sets of cone shuffles
D. Partner mirror drills for 3–5 sets

Answer 28

C

Question 29

Which of the following should be part of the program design for a client at strength level?
A. Any Speed, Agility, and Quickness (SAQ) drill without any rest period.
B. 6–8 SAQ drills with greater horizontal inertia but limited predictability.
C. 1–2 sets of cone shuffles.
D. Partner mirror drills for a minimum of 10 sets.

Answer 29

B

Question 30

Which of the following should be part of the program design for a client at power level?
A. Any Speed, Agility, and Quickness (SAQ) drill without any rest period.
B. 6–8 SAQ drills with little inertia but limited predictability.
C. Modified box drill for 3–5 sets.
D. Partner mirror drills for a minimum of 15 sets.

Answer 30

C

Question 31

A client at the stabilization level of an Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model should ideally be given drills with:
A. limited horizontal inertia. 
B. moderate unpredictability.
C. high unpredictability.
D. maximum horizontal inertia.

Answer 31

A

Question 32

Which of the following should be part of the program design for a client at strength level?
A. Any Speed, Agility, and Quickness (SAQ) drill without any rest period.
B. 6–8 SAQ drills with greater horizontal inertia but limited predictability.
C. 1–2 sets of cone shuffles.
D. Partner mirror drills for a minimum of 10 sets.

Answer 32

B

Question 33

A client at the stabilization level of an Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model should ideally be given drills with:
A. limited horizontal inertia. 
B. moderate unpredictability.
C. high unpredictability.
D. maximum horizontal inertia.

Answer 33

A

Question 34

A client at the power level of an Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model should ideally be given drills with:
A. moderate horizontal inertia. 
B. moderate unpredictability.
C. limited unpredictability.
D. maximal horizontal inertia.

Answer 34

D

Question 35

A client at the strength level of an Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model should ideally be given drills with:
A. minimal horizontal inertia.
B. maximal unpredictability.
C. limited unpredictability.
D. limited horizontal inertia.

Answer 35

C

Question 36

Partner mirror drills and timed drills for 3 to 5 sets are usually given to clients at the \_\_\_\_\_ level.
A. intermediate
B. stabilized
C. strength
D. power

Answer 36

D

Question 37

SAQ Variables 
OPT LEVEL: Stabilization
SAQ exercises:
sets
reps
rest

Answer 37

1-2 sets, 2-3 reps, 0-90 rest

ex: limited horizontal inertia and unpredictability.
i. e cone shuffle and agility ladder

Question 38

SAQ Variables 
OPT LEVEL: Strength
SAQ exercises:
sets
reps
rest

Answer 38

3-4 sets, 3-5 reps, 0-60 rest

ex: greater horizontal inertia, limited unpredictability
i. e. 5-10-5, T-drill, box drill, stand up to figure 8

Question 39

SAQ Variables 
OPT LEVEL: Power
SAQ exercises:
sets
reps
rest

Answer 39

3-5 sets, 3-5 reps, 0-90 rest

Ex: maximal horizontal inertia, max unpredictability

i.e. modified box drill, partner mirror drill, timed drills

Question 40

1. The ability to move the body in one intended direction as fast as possible is known as
	•	Power
	•	Agility 
	•	Quickness
	•	Speed

Answer 40

Speed

Question 41

2. Which of the following is an accurate description of front side mechanics?
   • Proper alignment of the lead leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis.
   • Proper alignment of the lead leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, hip extension, and neutral pelvis.
   • Proper alignment of the rear leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle dorsiflexion, knee extension, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis.
   • Proper alignment of the rear leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis.

Answer 41

• Proper alignment of the lead leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis.

Question 42

Which of the following is an accurate description of backside mechanics?
• Proper alignment of the rear leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, hip extension, and neutral pelvis.
• Proper alignment of the lead leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis.
• Proper alignment of the lead leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle dorsiflexion, knee extension, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis.
• Proper alignment of the rear leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis.

Answer 42

• Proper alignment of the rear leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, hip extension, and neutral pelvis.