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Foundations Of Speech Pathology > Chapter 4 > Flashcards

Chapter 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Definition of assessment

A

The systematic process of gathering information about an individual’s background, history, skills, knowledge, perceptions, and feelings.

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2
Q

Four purposes of assessment

A

To identify skills that a person does/does not have in a particular area of communication

To guide the design of intervention for enhancing a person’s skills in a particular area of communication

To monitor a person’s communicative growth and performance over time

To qualify a person for special services

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3
Q

Five Stages of the Assessment Process

A

Referral and Screening

Designing and Administering the Assessment Protocol

Interpreting Assessment Findings

Developing an Intervention Plan

Monitoring Progress and Outcomes

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4
Q

Definition of Screening

A

the delivery of a test that provides a quick check of an individual’s performance in a particular area

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5
Q

Four ways screening differs from assessment

A

Screening is broad, where as assessment is focused and in-depth in an area

Time

Cost

Training Requirement of Tester

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6
Q

Developmental screening

A

this type of screening is done at a developmental point in life

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7
Q

Injury-related screening

A

this type of screening is used to identify the extent of an illness or injury

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8
Q

definition of referral

A

the process by which the involvement of speech, language, and hearing professionals is formally requested

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9
Q

True or False: Assessment is often multidisciplinary

A

true

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10
Q

True or False: Assessment is more than testing

A

true

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11
Q

True or False: the screening and referral process typically identifies a specific area of concern for an individual

A

true

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12
Q

definition of sensitive protocol

A

a protocol that accurately identifies whether a problem is present and characterizes the severity of the problem

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13
Q

true or false: sensitive protocol is not affected by a false positive but can be affected by a false negative

A

false - it cannot be affected by either

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14
Q

definition of comprehensive protocol

A

a protocol that accurately identifies all the dimensions of the problem

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15
Q

definition of nonbiased protocol

A

a protocol that accurately characterizes communicative performance regardless of a person’s race, ethnicity, gender, socioeconomic background, culture, or native language

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16
Q

definition of family-centered protocol

A

a protocol that in which family members are involved to share their understandings about strengths and needs of the individual being assessed

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17
Q

definition of chart review

A

the examination of an individual’s developmental, educational, and medical history that has been collected by other professionals

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18
Q

What does IFSP stand for?

A

Individualized Family Service Plan

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19
Q

What is IFSP used for?

A

a document used to identify services and outcomes for infants and toddlers

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20
Q

What does IEP stand for?

A

Individualized Education Plan

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21
Q

What is IEP used for?

A

a document used to identify services and outcomes for children aged 3 and older

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22
Q

definition of interview

A

collecting information from individuals, their families and caregivers, and other professionals

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23
Q

what an interview provides

A

information about the impact of a disorder on a person’s life

how the characteristics of a disorder have changed over time

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24
Q

definition of Systematic observation

A

the process of observing how an individual uses communication for functional purposes in real-life activities

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25
Q

Definition of Questionnaires and surveys

A

formal mechanisms for gathering information

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26
Q

definition of testing

A

a formal evaluation a person’s communication skills in a standardized manner

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27
Q

instrumentation

A

used to assess many types of communication disorders

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28
Q

Definition of Online performance

A

studying a communicative process as it happens

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29
Q

Definition of Offline assessment

A

studies communicative processes after they happen

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30
Q

Two steps in interpreting assessment findings

A

determine whether a disorder is present and if one is, to identify it

determine the severity of the disorder

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31
Q

Two things that have to be present to diagnose a disorder

A

an aspect of communication is markedly discrepant from what is observed in the typical population

has some adverse effects on the person’s functional activities

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32
Q

definition of Differential diagnosis

A

the process of differentiating a disorder from other possible alternatives to arrive at an accurate diagnosis

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33
Q

True or False: Prognosis statements are objective predictions

A

False - they are subjective

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34
Q

Definition of prognosis

A

changes expected as a result of treatment

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35
Q

three things involved in developing an intervention plan

A

identifying treatment goals

describing the possible length and frequency of treatment

describing treatment contexts and activities

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36
Q

Goals identified through the assessment process should exhibit these 3 things

A

functionality

measurability

attainability

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37
Q

Definition of functional goals

A

Goals should directly improve the client’s life in some way

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38
Q

Definition of measurable goals

A

Goals should link directly to some aspect of measurement so that progress toward the goal can be documented

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39
Q

Definition of attainable goals

A

Goals should be realistic and achievable for the client so that progress, however incremental, is possible

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40
Q

True or False - assessment is an ongoing process

A

true

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41
Q

three things assessment is used for as an ongoing process

A

used to monitor a client’s progress during treatment

modify the treatment plan as progress is made

determine when a client should be discharged from treatment

42
Q

when is “profound” used as a severity option?

A

mental retardation and hearing disorders

43
Q

All assessment instruments should exhibit these two critical qualities

A

validity and reliability

44
Q

Definition of validity

A

the extent to which a particular instrument measures what it says it measures

45
Q

Definition of construct validity

A

the extent to which an instrument examines the underlying theoretical construct it was designed to examine

46
Q

Definition of face validity

A

the extent to which an instrument appears superficially to test what it purports to test

47
Q

Definition of criterion-related validity

A

the extent to which the outcomes of an instrument reflect the outcomes from other instruments measuring the same construct

48
Q

Definition of Concurrent validity

A

how an instrument’s outcomes relate to outcomes on other, similar measures

49
Q

definition of Reliability

A

the extent to which a particular instrument is consistent in its measurement of a particular skill

50
Q

definition of Test-retest reliability

A

the stability of an individual’s test performance over time

51
Q

definition of inter-rater reliability

A

the consistency of assessment outcomes over multiple observers

52
Q

Five types of assessments

A

Norm-referenced instrument

Criterion-referenced assessment

Performance-based assessment

Dynamic assessment

progress-Monitoring Assessment

53
Q

definition of Norm-referenced assessment

A

this assessment compares an individual’s performance to that of his same-age peers

54
Q

definition of Criterion-referenced assessment

A

this assessment is useful for probing at what a person can do in a specific aspect of communication and often used to document treatment progress

55
Q

definition of Performance-based assessment (PBA)

A

this assessment examines an individual’s skills within real-life contexts

56
Q

definition of Dynamic assessment

A

this assessment analyzes how much and what types of support or assistance is needed

57
Q

definition of progress-Monitoring Assessment

A

this assessment analyzes an individual’s progress during a course of intervention and is used to compare actual rates of growth to expected rates of growth, and adjust intervention techniques accordingly

58
Q

Definition of Standardized tests

A

tests given in a uniform and scripted manner

59
Q

Definition of Normative sample

A

a group of individuals who are given the test to identify standards of performance at specific age levels; representative of who will be taking the test for comparison

60
Q

Definition of Standard score

A

the index that identifies how a person’s test performance compares to that of her normative peers

61
Q

Definition of Raw score

A

the number of items scored as incorrect or correct

62
Q

Definition of normal distribution / normal curve

A

Standard scores are arranged along a standard normal distribution, or normal curve, with a mean score of 100 and a standard deviation of 15

63
Q

Definition of Standard deviation

A

the spread of scores

64
Q

Definition of Percentile rank

A

the percentage of people in the normative reference group whose scores were at or below a given point

65
Q

True or false: criterion-referenced assessments are norm-based

A

false, they are not normed but instead used to document progress in a particular aspect of communication

66
Q

Two reasons to use PBA tests

A

communicative skills are highly influenced by context and therefore vary across different situations

to design interventions that promote functional, meaningful outcomes

67
Q

How does dynamic assessment differ from other assessments?

A

used after other techniques have identified an individual’s independent level of skill

identifies the type of supports needed to bring performance to higher levels

68
Q

how does progress-monitoring assessments differ from other assessments?

A

this is used specifically to look at rates of growth over time.

69
Q

Definition of intervention

A

the implementation of a plan of action to improve an individual’s communicative abilities

70
Q

three things to consider when designing and implementing interventions

A

effectiveness

efficiency

adherence

71
Q

Definition of effectiveness of intervention

A

the likelihood that an intervention will have the expected outcome and has value for a certain population

72
Q

Definition of efficiency of intervention

A

the expected time it takes for an intervention to result in change

73
Q

Definition of adherence of intervention

A

a person’s implementation of an intervention following the professional’s prescription

74
Q

True or False: an efficient intervention effects change relatively quickly compared to other treatment options

A

true

75
Q

Definition of theoretical knowledge

A

knowledge gained through typical communication and how a particular disorder impacts communication

76
Q

Definition of empirical knowledge

A

knowledge derived from the scientific literature on the disorder, including knowledge of the effectiveness and efficiency of different treatment options

77
Q

Definition of practical knowledge

A

knowledge gained through clinical experience with other clients with this disorder

78
Q

Definition of personal knowledge

A

knowledge gained through knowing the values and needs of clients and their families

79
Q

Definition of evidence-based practice

A

the process by which the clinician integrates 4 areas of knowledge to arrive at the best plan of action

80
Q

Definition of fringe therapies

A

treatments for which there is no scientific evidence of validity

81
Q

which practice guards against fringe therapies?

A

evidence-based practice

82
Q

Three Primary Purposes of Intervention

A

prevention

remediation

compensation

83
Q

Definition of prevention intervention

A

an intervention designed to prevent a disorder from emerging

84
Q

Definition of remediation intervention

A

an intervention designed to slow the progress or reverse the course of a disorder once it has emerged

85
Q

Definition of compensation intervention

A

an intervention that helps a person cope with a disorder whose symptoms are not likely to dissipate

86
Q

Definition of Outreach intervention

A

the process of identifying people who are at risk of developing a particular disorder

87
Q

True or False: Preventive interventions are delivered by an array of professionals but not a “one size fits all” approach

A

false - delivered by an array of professionals, but often uses a “one size fits all” approach

88
Q

three types of goals involved in intervention planning

A

long-term goals

short-term goals

session-level goals

89
Q

Definition of long-term goals

A

broad changes expected to result from treatment, and when these goals are achieved treatment can be terminated

90
Q

Definition of short-term goals

A

these goals lead to the desired long-term goals

91
Q

Definition of session-level goals

A

these goals are addressed in a specific therapy session and over time lead to the attainment of the short-term and long-term goals

must be measurable and objective

92
Q

Definition of intervention procedures

A

the clinician’s plan of action

93
Q

Three intervention models

A

Pull-out/Direct service

co-teaching / Parallel instruction

intervention consultation

94
Q

Definition of Direct service

A

The professional provides services directly to the individual who has the disorder

95
Q

Definition of indirect service

A

The professional serves as a consultant

96
Q

Definition of pull-out intervention

A

A therapist provides intervention to an individual or small group, used in almost all clinical settings

97
Q

Definition of co-teaching / Parallel instruction intervention

A

Two or more therapists work together to provide intervention to an individual or group

98
Q

Definition of intervention consultation

A

therapist provides guidance to other professionals or to family members concerning assessment data and intervention approaches but does not work directly with the individual

99
Q

True or false: co-teaching/parallel is becoming increasingly common in early intervention and school-based programs

A

true

100
Q

where is intervention consultation most prevalent?

A

clinical settings

Foundations Of Speech Pathology (13 decks)

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