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PDG 2017 E-8-2s > Chapter 4 > Flashcards

Chapter 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Define AF Doctrine

A

A statement of officially sanctioned beliefs, war fighting principles and terminology that describe4s and guides the proper military use of air space and cyberspace power

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2
Q

Doctrine provides a common frame of reference regarding the best way to do what

A

Prepare and employ AF forces

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3
Q

Doctrine shapes how the AF organizes trains and equips and sustains its forces T/F

A

True

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4
Q

Does doctrine provide unique terminology for Air and space forces? T/F

A

False (It provides common terminology

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5
Q

Should you apply doctrine judiciously or follow it to the letter

A

Use it Judiciously

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6
Q

Doctrine gives Amn an informed starting point for making decisions during continuous deployments . It solves up to ____ % of basic issues

A

90%

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7
Q

Many things remain constant between operations, the remainder are usually tailored to specific operations T/F

A

True

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8
Q

Explain the differences between good and bad doctrine

A

Good doctrine informs , provides a sound departure point, allows flexibility and must be intelligently applied. Bad doctrine overly restricts creativity, can be corrupted by parochialism and other biases within or between services and can result in inefficiency and effectiveness

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9
Q

Is doctrine about war fighting or about the physics of the domain within which a system operates

A

War fighting

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10
Q

Doctrine focuses on the best means to obtain war fighting effects, regardless of the domain by integrating air, space and ____ domains

A

Cyberspace

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11
Q

Doctrine ties specific weapon systems to specific tasks or effects T/F

A

False (It focuses on the desired outcome, not the platform)

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12
Q

Does doctrine carve up the operational environment into service ownership or function ownership

A

Neither

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13
Q

How does doctrine help organize a total, tailored decisive Joint force

A

Doctrine explains preferred organizational structures and effective command structures

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14
Q

Describe how Joint force must be organized to achieve unity of effort and unity of command

A

It must have a single, cohesive organization with clearly defined lines of command and commanders with requisites authorities at appropriate levels

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15
Q

Organizing according to doctrine helps the Rapid ____ of joint and service organizations during rapidly evolving situations

A

Standup

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16
Q

From a command and control viewpoint, segregation is the simples, most efficient way to manage elements of diverse joint force T/F

A

False (synergy and integration of effort are required)

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17
Q

To achieve the Joint Force Commanders objectives, should AMN have access to the entire theater of operations or should they be restricted from areas for fire support coordination measures

A

Airmen should have access to the entire theater of operations

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18
Q

Segregating the operational environment into small areas of operation may reduce combat effectiveness and create completion for what type of capabilities

A

For scarce, high demand, low density capabilities

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19
Q

Airmen should ____ , not just synchronize, joint operational planning

A

Integrate

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20
Q

_____ arranges Military actions to produce maximum relative combat power at a decisive place and time

A

Synchronization

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21
Q

_____ arranges military forces and their actions so they operate by engaging as a whole

A

Integration

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22
Q

Does integration of forces work form the top down or from the bottom up

A

It starts at the top with a single cohesive plan and works downward

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23
Q

Good doctrine doesn’t focus on the relative value of one service over another. What does it focus on instead

A

The right capability to best accomplish the mission

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24
Q

What should the proper mix of service components within a Joint Force be tailored to

A

To the Task

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25
Q

What are the three levels of airpower doctrine

A
  1. Basic
  2. Operational
  3. Tactical
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26
Q

Which publication is the AMNs basic doctrine

A

AFDD 1.

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27
Q

Which level of doctrine states the fundamental, broad and enduring beliefs that describe and guide the proper us presentation and organization of the AF capabilities

A

Basic Doctrine

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28
Q

Basic Doctrine describes the guides the “_____ properties” of airpower from the AMNs perspective

A

Elemental Properties

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29
Q

Which level of doctrine describes the Org of AF forces in more detail and applies basic doctrines principles to military actions

A

Operational Doctrine

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30
Q

______ annexes contain operational doctrine

A

Doctrine annexes

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31
Q

Operational doctrine guides the organization and employment of forces within what four contexts

A
  1. Distinct objectives
  2. Force capabilities
  3. Broad functional areas
  4. Operational environments
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32
Q

Operational doctrine develops missions and tasks that must be executed through ____ doctrine

A

Tactical Doctrine

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33
Q

How do 3 series manuals codify tactical doctrine

A

As tactics, techniques and procedures

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34
Q

Tactical doctrine describes the proper employment of specific US AF assets to accomplish detailed objectives. Does it deal with employing assets individually or in concert with other assets

A

Both individually and in concert

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35
Q

_____ considers particular object ices and conditions and describes how AF assets accomplish the tactical objectives

A

Tactical doctrine

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36
Q

Which level of doctrine changes relatively slowly. Which may change rapidly

A

Basic doctrine changes slowly, Tactical doctrine may change rapidly

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37
Q

What are the four key doctrine components

A
  1. Amns perspective
  2. Principles of war
  3. Tenets of Airpower
  4. AF operations
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38
Q

What term did General Henry H Hap Arnold coin for the unique airman’s perspective

A

Airmindedeness

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39
Q

What unique aspects of airpower does the AMNs perspective reflect

A

The range, speed and capabilities of airpower as well as its unique threats and survival imperatives

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40
Q

Control of the vertical dimension is generally a necessary predestination for control of the surface T/F

A

True

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41
Q

Describe the first mission of an AF

A

To defeat or neutralize enemy Air forces so friendly land, sea and air and space operations can proceed unhindered and to protect its own military forces and critical vulnerabilities from air attack

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42
Q

Airpower is an inherently ____ force, for both war and non lethal activates

A

Strategic

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43
Q

Airpower can simultaneously exploit the principals of ____ and _____ quickly concentrating power at any point

A

Mass and maneuver

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44
Q

Airpower dominates the fourth dimension time. By compressing events how does it affect the adversary

A

It produces physical and psychological shock

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45
Q

Airpower applies force against which facets of an enemy’s power - diplomatic, informational, military economic or social

A

Against any or all, simultaneously or separately

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46
Q

how does airpower create a smaller cultural foot print than surface forces when deployed

A

It can operate from bases over the horizon or from a few in country bases

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47
Q

Speed, range and flexibility make airpower the most versatile component of military power. what is the versatility derived from

A

The inherent characteristic of Air forces an how they are organized and controlled

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48
Q

All six aspects of airpower are essential, interdepend and rely on the performance of AMN. List them

A
  1. Capabilities
  2. People
  3. Weapons
  4. Bases
  5. Logistics
  6. All support infrastructure
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49
Q

The choice of appropriate capabilities is key. How should weapons be selected

A

Based on their ability to influence an adversary’s capability and will

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50
Q

Airpower mobility eliminates the need to consider the availability and operability of suitable bases during employment planning and execution T/F

A

False (supporting bases are essential to launch and recover)

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51
Q

Airpowers unique characteristics require it to be _____ controlled by Airmen

A

Centrally

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52
Q

With regard to airpower, why must airmen take a broader view of war

A

Because the weapons they command have effects at broader levels of war.

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53
Q

Through what tenet do AMN apply airpower

A

The tenet of centralized control and decentralized execution

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54
Q

Which key doctrine concept encompasses those aspects of warfare that are universally true and relevant providing general guidance on achieving military victory

A

Principles of war

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55
Q

What are the nine principals of ware

A
  1. Unity of command
  2. Objective
  3. Offensive
  4. Mass
  5. Maneuver
  6. economy of force
  7. security
    8 surprise
    9 simplicity
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56
Q

Unity of command concentrates effort for all objective under how many commanders

A

One

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57
Q

Which principle of war allows airpower to concentrate on theater or campaign priorities and avoids siphoning force elements to fragmented objectives

A

Objective

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58
Q

How can AMN can overcome challenges imposed by time and distance

A

By integrating the potential of Air, space an cyberspace capabilities

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59
Q

In application objective refers to _____ of effort in purpose, space and time

A

Unity of effort

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60
Q

Name the principle of ware that seizes, retains and exploits the initiative

A

Offensive

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61
Q

The offensive principle of war holds that the ____ must be seized quickly, retained and fully exploited, so joint forces can dictate operations

A

Initiative

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62
Q

Airpower is best used defensively T/F

A

False

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63
Q

What aspects of attacking airpower give it a signification offensive advantage over other forces

A

Speed and range

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64
Q

By focusing solely on air capabilities, airmen enhance the advantages of speed, range and persistence found in airpower T/F

A

False

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65
Q

Which principle of war concentrates combat power at the most advantageous place and time to achieve decisive results

A

Mass

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66
Q

Airpower achieves mass faster then surface forces. What do air and space forces rely on instead of overwhelming forces and material

A

Effectiveness of attack

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67
Q

What allow dispersed forces to collaborate to rapidly find, fix track and target fleeting targets and mass a response in new ways

A

Air Force cyberspace capabilities

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68
Q

Previously, planners and operators worked in relative proximity within the same theater of operations. How does that differ from how they work today

A

Now they leverage distributed capabilities to apply precise effects around the globe

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69
Q

The capability of airpower to act quickly, mas effects and mass other military power combines the principals of mass with the principle of ____

A

Maneuver

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70
Q

Which principle of war places the enemy at a disadvantage through flexible application of combat power in a multi dimension combat space

A

Maneuver

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71
Q

How does airpower use maneuver as a principle of war to force the enemy to react

A

Airpower allows engagement anywhere from any direction and at any time forcing the enemy to be on guard everywhere

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72
Q

Which principle of war judiciously employs and distributes forces, allocating minim essential resources to secondary efforts

A

Economy of force

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73
Q

Economy of force requires amn to maintain a ____ operational view as they seek clear objectives and priorities

A

Broader

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74
Q

When applying the principle of ware economy of for, Guard again ___using more force then reasonably necessary

A

Overkill

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75
Q

Which principle of war goal is to never let the enemy acquire an unexpected advantage

A

Security

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76
Q

Security must embrace physical security operations security and security of the ___ environment

A

information environment

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77
Q

Where is airpower most vulnerable to attack

A

on the ground

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78
Q

From an AMNs perspective, security may be obtained by staying beyond the enemies reach, physically and virtually T/F

A

True

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79
Q

Amn must bear in mind the concepts of necessity and ____ when exercising the right to self defense

A

Proportionality

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80
Q

When does necessity exist if an Amn is exercising the right to self defense

A

When an enemy commits a hostile act or shows hostel intent. Use of force is then authorized while the enemy continues to act hostilely or exhibit such intent

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81
Q

Proportionally means the use of ___ should be sufficient to respond decisively.

A

Force

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82
Q

The concepts of necessity and proportionality in self defense are the same as those applicable of the law of armed conflict T/F

A

False

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83
Q

Attacking the enemy at a time, place or in a manner for which they are not prepared demonstrates which principle of war

A

Surprise

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84
Q

Which principle of war avoids unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning and conducting operations

A

Simplicity

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85
Q

List two way to overcome complexity in keeping with simplicity as a principle of war

A
  1. Simple and direct guidance, plans and orders
  2. Common equipment
  3. Common understanding of service and joint doctrine
  4. Joint exercises and training that make procedures familiar
  5. Unambiguous organizational and command relationships
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86
Q

The ____ of airpower are fundamental guiding truths specific to airpower

A

Tenets

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87
Q

Persistence is one of the seven tenets of airpower. What are the other six

A
  1. Centralized control and decentralized execution
  2. Flexibility and versatility
  3. Synergistic effects
  4. Concentration
  5. Priority
    7 Balance
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88
Q

The tents of airpower are interconnected, overlapping and often interlock. Which tenet is the master tenet, without which all others are empty phrases

A

Centralized control and decentralized execution

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89
Q

As with the principles of war, why is an Amns expertise required to apply the tenets of airpower

A

Because it requires informed judgment, skillful blending to tailor tenets to the ever changing operational environment, and balancing the competing demands of principles and tenets

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90
Q

Which tenet is the fundamental organizing principle of airpower

A

Centralized control and decentralized execution

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91
Q

Who should control airpower to maintain a broad, strategic perspective

A

A single Airman

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92
Q

Who does decentralized execution delegate authority to

A

To designated lower level commanders and other tactical level decision makers

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93
Q

List several benefits of decentralized execution

A
  1. Achieves effective span of control
  2. Fosters disciplined initiative and tactical flexibility
  3. Allows subordinates to split situational responsiveness and fleeting opportunities
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94
Q

When are the benefits of decentralized execution maximized

A

When a commander clearly communicates intent

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95
Q

The centralized control and _____ execution tenet of airpower provides a critical broad global or theater wide focus while allowing operational flexibility to meet military objectives

A

Decentralized

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96
Q

Give an example of a front line decisions maker who should make on scene decisions during complex rapidly unfolding operations under decentralized execution

A

Strike package leaders, air battle managers or forward air controllers

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97
Q

Why should commanders refrain from taking control of distant events and overriding the decisions of forward leaders

A

Despite gains in date exploitation and automated decision aids, no one person can achieve situational awareness of a conflict involving many simultaneous engagements in a large area

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98
Q

Under decentralized execution subordinates should be allowed to take the initiative with what caveat

A

Their decision should support the commanders intent and meet campaign objectives

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99
Q

Which aspect of the tenet of flexibility and versatility exploits mass and maneuver simultaneously

A

Flexibility

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100
Q

Explain the difference between flexibility and versatility as they relate to the tents of air power and space power

A

Flexibility allows a quick and decisive shift from one campaign object to another. Versatility is the ability to effectively employ airpower at strategic, operational and tactical levels

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101
Q

Which capabilities are especially able to simultaneously support multiple tasking’s around the globe and support tasks at all levels of warfare

A

Space and cyberspace capabilities

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102
Q

Which tenet of airpower properly applies coordinated force to produce effects that exceed those of individually employed forces

A

Synergistic effects

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103
Q

Destroying a large number of targets through attrition warfare is rarely the key objective in modern war. What is

A

The precise coordinated application of various elements of airpower and surface power to bring disproportionate pressure on enemy leaders to comply with our national will

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104
Q

Air space and cyberspace operations may be conducted continuously against a broad spectrum of targets. Airpower forces can visit and revisit wide range of target nearly at will. These are examples of which tenets of airpower

A

Persistence

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105
Q

Space systems offer potential persistent overhead access. What may do the same within the atmosphere

A

Unmanned Aircraft Systems

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106
Q

Give an example of a persist operations

A
  1. Maintaining a continuous flow of material to peacetime distressed areas
  2. Monitoring adversaries to ensure they cannot conduct actions counter to those agreed upon
  3. Assuring targets are kept continually out of commission
  4. ensuring resources and facilities are denied to an enemy or provided to an ally during a specified time
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107
Q

What is the end result of persistent operations

A

To deny the opponent the chance to seize initiative and to directly accomplish assigned tasks

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108
Q

Why sis the tenet concentration crucial for Airmen

A

Because concentrating power at the decisive time and place is crucial and AMN must guard against inadvertently diluting and fragmenting airpower due to high demand

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109
Q

Careful planning ensures that demand for airpower never exceeds available resources T/F

A

False

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110
Q

Prioritizing applies the Amns strategic perspective along with which other tenet and which three principles

A

The tenet of concentration and the principals of mass, offensive and economy of force

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111
Q

List the five considerations an air component commander should balance against the risk of friendly forces

A
  1. Combat opportunity
  2. Necessity
  3. Effectiveness
  4. Efficiency
  5. Impact on accomplishing assigned objectives
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112
Q

Who is uniquely and best suited to determine the proper theater wide balance between offensive and defensive operations and among strategic , operational and tactical applications

A

An Airman

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113
Q

Strategic attack operations employ offensive action specifically selected to achieve ____ or _____ strategic objectives

A

national or military

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114
Q

Strategic attack involves the systematic application of force against enemy systems and their centers of gravity T/F

A

True

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115
Q

What type of AF operations are conducted across all domains and determine the level or degree of air control

A

Counter air Operations

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116
Q

What describes a level of influence in the air domain relative to an adversary

A

Air Control

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117
Q

______ is the level of Air control at which one force does not have air superiority over others

A

Air parity

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118
Q

If the level of air is control is categorized as air parity, aerial maneuver halts and a standoff occurs T/F

A

False

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119
Q

_____ is the level of air control at which one force dominates in the air battle, permitting the conduct of operations without prohibitive interference by the opposing force

A

Air superiority

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120
Q

Once air superiority is achieved, it is by definition brad and enduring T/F

A

False (It can be localized)

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121
Q

____ Is the level of air control which one force dominates in the air battle, permitting the conduct of operations without effective interference by the opposing force

A

Air Supremacy

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122
Q

Air Supremacy is normally the highest level of air control T/F

A

True

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123
Q

_____ operations are airpower operations against enemy land force capabilities to create effects that achieve joint force commander objectives

A

Counter land

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124
Q

Counter land operations are usually associated with support to friendly surface forces. May they be conducted independent of friendly surface forces

A

Yes

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125
Q

How does air interdiction prevent enemy military potentially from being brought to bear against friendly forces

A

By diverting, disrupting, delaying or destroying the enemies military potential before this can occur

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126
Q

What is defend as action by fixed and rotary winged aircraft against hostile targets that are in close proximity to friendly forces and that require detailed integration of each air mission with the fire an movement for those forces

A

Close Air support

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127
Q

_____ operations attain and maintain maritime superiority by destroying , disrupting, delaying , diverting or neutralizing threats in the maritime domain and preventing enemies from doing the same

A

Counter sea

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128
Q

What is maritime superiority

A

Denial of the maritime domain to the adversary while assuring access and freedom of maneuver for th eUS and allied maritime forces

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129
Q

From a military perspective, is the maritime domain limited to the open seas

A

No

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130
Q

What is the authority of a joint force cc to accomplish assigned missions, based upon the most effective use of available resources

A

Command and Control

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131
Q

_____ is a process used to increase operational effectiveness by promoting the safe, efficient and flexible use of airspace

A

airspace control

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132
Q

Airspace control operations are often static T/F

A

False

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133
Q

To optimize airspace use, what should airspace control accommodate

A

Users with varied technical capabilities

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134
Q

Airspace control accomplishes the joint force commanders objectives and allows all users to access needed airspace while prevene4ting conflicts T/F

A

True

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135
Q

what are the three characterizations of operational airspace

A
  1. Permissive combat airspace
  2. Contested combat airspace
  3. Denied access combat airspace
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136
Q

Permissive combat airspace entails a ____ risk for US and coalition aircraft

A

Low risk

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137
Q

Contested combat airspace entails a ____ risk

A

Medium Risk

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138
Q

Denied access combat airspace entails a high risk for many, but not all, US and coalition aircraft. What can you expect from operations in this airspace

A

High losses or denial of sustained operations until a measure of air superiority is achieved

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139
Q

Space operations are internal to joint force planning and operations. What do they involve

A

Space superiority and mission assurance

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140
Q

what is space superiority

A

The degree of dominance in space that permits land, sea, air space and special operations without prohibitive interference with a goal of maintaining our own space capabilities when contested and ensuring unhindered mission continuity

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141
Q

Space superiority may be localized in time and space or be broad and enduring T.F

A

True

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142
Q

List some external orgs that form partnerships with AF space operations

A
  1. other military services
  2. allies
  3. national and civil agencies
  4. commercial and foreign enterprises
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143
Q

Cyberspace operations employ cyberspace capabilities with the primary purpose of achieving ____ objectives or effects in or through cyberspace

A

Military objectives

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144
Q

Cyberspace operations are synonymous with information operations T/ F

A

False They can b performed in cyberspace and other domains

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145
Q

How does the cyberspace domain interact with other domains

A

Activities in cyberspace can enable freedom of action for activities in other domains and activities in other domains can create effect is in and through cyberspace

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146
Q

What is the rapid movement of perosonnel, material and forces to and from or within a theater by air

A

Air Mobility

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147
Q

Define airlift

A

Operations to transport and deliver forces and material through the air to support strategic, operational or tactical objectives

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148
Q

Air refueling is the process of supplying fuel to any aircraft, regardless of its current positions T/F

A

False

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149
Q

Air mobility ____ provides command and control, aerial port and maintenance for mobility forces

A

Support

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150
Q

How does aeromedical evacuation provide time sensitive en route casualty care to and between medical treatment facilities

A

Via aircraft with trained medical aircrews

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151
Q

What kind of operations require unique modes of employment, tactical techniques, equipment and training

A

special operations

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152
Q

List several characteristics of special operations

A
  1. Conducted in hostile, denied or politically sensitive environments
  2. Time sensitive
  3. Clandestine
  4. Low visibility
  5. Conducted with or through indigenous forces
  6. Require regional expertise
  7. Highly risky
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153
Q

Special operations forces should complement and not come with nor be a substitute for conventional forces T/F

A

True

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154
Q

Special operations forces include aviation units, battlefield AMN, dedicated special operation forces intelligence, surveillance, reconnaissance units, aviation foreign internal defense and ___ capabilities

A

Support Capabilities

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155
Q

Command and control of special operations forces is normally executed within the standard chain of command T/F

A

False

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156
Q

Homeland operations is the umbrella construct through which the AF supports homeland defense, defense support of ____ authorities and emergency preparedness

A

Civil Authorities

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157
Q

The us enjoys sovereignty 12 miles out to sea and exercises respionbitlies extending ____ miles from the coast

A

200 Miles

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158
Q

What is homeland defense

A

The protectin of US sovereignty, territory, domestic population and critical defense infrastructure against external threats and aggression or other threats as directed by the president

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159
Q

Defense support of civil authorities, as falls under the umbrella contruct of homeland oeprations, involves DoD suppor to US civili auathories for ____ emergencies and for designated law enforcement and othe ractivites

A

Domestic emergencies

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160
Q

Doe Emergency preparedness fall under the umbrella construct of homeland operations

A

YEs

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161
Q

Describe the AF role in nuclear operations

A
  1. Organize, train, equip and sustain forces with the capability to deter adversaires from attacking th eUS and its interest with nuclear arsenals or other weapons of mass destruction
  2. Dissuade competitors from developoing weapons of mas destruction
  3. Assure allies and partners that the US has the ability and detmination to protect thtm
  4. hold a risk a spekfici range of targets
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162
Q

______ reductiosn have reduced the specter of a cold war type nuclear exchange, athoguh the possibility of their use remains

A

Force reductions

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163
Q

Nuclear compoonets are less visible as a component of national security tan they were during the cold war, but they underpin us deterrence T/F

A

True

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164
Q

What is a violent struggle amont state and not stat actors for legitimacy and influcen ove rhet relevant populations

A

Irregular warfare

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165
Q

____ warfar favors indirect and asymmetric approaches, though it may employ the full range of military and other capbilites to erode an adversarys power, influcne and will

A

Information warefare

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166
Q

Dut to the overwhelming dominance of the us in recent conveitinal wars, to whom have irregular forms of warfare become attractive

A

Terroritss, insurgents, criminal networks and non friendly staes

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167
Q

How do infomraiton and traditional warfare both seek to resolve confilct

A

By compelling change in adversarial behavior

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168
Q

Information warfare focusses on population centric approaches that affect actors behaviors relationships and stability in the area or region of interest T/F

A

Trues

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169
Q

What are the five principle information warfare acirivites the AF is prepared to support and conduct

A
  1. Foreing internal defense
  2. Unconventional warfare
  3. Counterinsurgency
  4. COunteterrorsim
  5. Stability operations
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170
Q

What are the four key activities related to the AF principle information warfare activities, all of which may be used to counter irregular threats

A
  1. Security force assitance
  2. Information operations
  3. Civili military operations
  4. Support to law enforcement, medical and counterintelligence oeprations
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171
Q

Across the range of information warfare scenarios a set of overarching concepts provide a foundation for planning and employing AF e=capaibiltes. Do this apply to all conceive situations

A

No, They represent broad concepts that all Awn should consider

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172
Q

Define foreign internal defense

A

Prarticipation by civilian and milathyr agencies of a government in any of the action programs taken by another government to free and protect its society form subversion lawlessness and insurgency

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173
Q

Most AF foreign internal defines involves working by with and through foreign aviation forces to achieve us strategic and operational objectives. With presidential direction what else can it ential

A

The U=use of US combat units and advisors in coercive roles to stabilizes the security and survival of a foreign regime and vital insinuations under siege by insurgent sor terroritst

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174
Q

Foreign internal defense includes military trianginand equipping, technical asistnac, _____ support, infrastrutuct development and tactical operations

A

Advisory support

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175
Q

What broad category do AF foreign internal dense operations fall under

A

National assistance

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176
Q

What are the. three separate but complementary programs that comprise nation assistance

A
  1. Humanitarian and civic Assistance
  2. Security assistance
  3. Foreign Internal defense
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177
Q

How does the AF define global integrated intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance

A

Cros domain synchronization and integration of the planning an operation of intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance assets, sensors, processing, exploitation and disemeinations systems and analysis and production capabilities across the glove to enable current and future operations

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178
Q

What ar the five phases of the process by which the AF conducts global integrated intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance operations

A
  1. Planning and direction
  2. Colleciotn
  3. Processing and expllitation
  4. Analysis and production
  5. Dissemination
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179
Q

The process by which the AF conducts global integrated intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance operations in linear T/F

A

False (It represents a network of interrelated, simultaneous operations that can feed or be fed by other operations)

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180
Q

What phase of the process by which the AF conducts global integrated intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance operations increases the utility of collective data by converting it into useable information

A

Processing and exlpoitation

181
Q

What phase of the process by wit=ch the AF conducts global integrated intelligence, surveillance and reconnsance operations ensures the commanders achieves intelligence in time to make effective decisions

A

Dissemination

182
Q

_____ is the process of selecting and prioritizing targets and matching the appropratiate response to them

A

Targeting

183
Q

Targeting is a command function require commanders oversight and involvement for proper exectuiiosn T?F

A

True

184
Q

How does the targeting help translate strategy into discrete actions against targets

A

By linking ends ways means and risks

185
Q

By what virtue do potential targets derive importance and criticality

A

By virtue of the extent to which they enable enemy capability sand actions that must be affect in order to achieve the commanders objectives cities

186
Q

Must actions agains a target always be kinetic

A

No

187
Q

Multiple actions may e taken against a single target, and actions may be taken againkst multiple targets T/F

A

True

188
Q

define information operations

A

The integrated employment during military operations of information related capabilities to influcens dirtupt corrupt or usurp the decision making of adversaries and potential adversaries while protecting our own

189
Q

What is the purpose of information operations

A

To affect adversary and potential adversary decisions making with the intent to ultimately affect their behavior

190
Q

How can you target and adversary decisionmmakingprocess

A

By understanding the cognitive factors related to their decisions making process, the information they use and how they receive and send information

191
Q

Inlfucne, disrupt, =corrupt or usurp and adversary deicioin making process by incorporate the use of capability that _____ their information

A

Touch

192
Q

How can an adversary decision making process be modeled

A

With a cycle of steps coalalled the OODA (Observe, Orient, Decide, Act) Loop

193
Q

The steps o the OODA loop occur within the information enifviormnentmtn. W hat three targetable dimensions do they give

A
  1. Informational dimension
  2. Physical dimension
  3. Cognitive dimension
194
Q

Information operation is fundamental to the overall military objective of influenceing an adversary T.F

A

True

195
Q

Is information operations planning a stand alone process

A

No

196
Q

Though planning, execution and ____ processes, information operation provides the means to employ the right capabilities to achieve the desired aeffect

A

Assessment

197
Q

Electronic warfare is military action involving the use of ____ and directed energy to control the electorocmanitc spectrum or to attack the enemy

A

Electromagnetic

198
Q

The electormangnetice spectrum is the full range of frequencies of electormentic radiation from near zero to infinity. Into how many alphabetically designated bids is ti devided

A

26

199
Q

Why is electronic warfare waged

A

To secure and maintain freedom of a action in the electonmageneitce spectrum

200
Q

Military forces depend on the elctormaantic spectrum for applications such as communication, detection identification nd targeting T/F

A

True

201
Q

What can improperly coordinated electronic warfare do

A

Distrupt our own command and control

202
Q

What does proper employment of electronic warefware enhance

A

The commanders ability to achieve operational superiority

203
Q

Electric warfare is speciallized capability that enhances many air, space and ____ functions at all levels of conflict

A

Cyberspace

204
Q

Define personnel recovery

A

The sum of military diplomatic and civiil efforts to recover and return US military DoD civilians and DoDcontroor personnel who are isolated or missing while paritcipaitn ia a US government acnctioned Military activity or in a mission in an uncertain or hiostile einviornement, or as determined by the Sec Def

205
Q

The AF organizes. trains and equips peronsnnel to conduct _____ operations using the fastest and most effective means

A

Peronsnnel recovery operations

206
Q

AF personnel recovery operations forces deploy to recover peronsnnel or equipment with stnadnared issue Aircraft and vehicles T/F

A

False

207
Q

What is the primary mission of AF personnel recover operations

A

To use specially trained airmen and unique equipment to recover isolated personnel

208
Q

Define AEF Doctrine

A

A collection of beliefs distilled through experience and passed on from one generation of man to the next that guide what we do codified practi=ces on how best to employ air and space power

209
Q

What is the mechanism for managing and scheduling forces for expeeditioanr e Use

A

The AEF

210
Q

the AEF concept is a means to provide forces and support on a rotation and more predictablee basis T/F

A

True

211
Q

What kind of period do deployed units undergo before entering another deployment period

A

A period of dwell

212
Q

The AF supports global Combat CC requirement s through what combinations

A

Assigned, attached and bomitly forces that may be forward deployed, transient or operating from home station

213
Q

What are the four major elements of the AEF structure

A
  1. Readily available force
  2. An enabler force
  3. In place support
  4. An institutional force
214
Q

The readily avaailbel force is the ____ jpool from which the AF fulfills global force management allocation plan requirements

A

Primary

215
Q

To meet Global force management allocation plan requirement, how does the AF align its wwarfighting capabilities

A

Based on requirement s=relative to assign drotation capapiblites for each vubulnerability period

216
Q

Name the two types of in place support

A

Forces that almost exclusively employ in direct support of a Combat CC mission and this that represent the minimum number of requirements to support critical home station operations

217
Q

A ____ force includes common user assets that provide support to authorized organizations whiten and outside the DoD

A

Enabler force

218
Q

List who common users assets included in an enabler force

A

Any two of

  1. Global mobility
  2. Special operations forces
  3. Personennel recover
  4. Sapce
  5. Other uniquely categorized
219
Q

Most High Demand Lows supply assets are postured as enabler forces androtate as oration requirements dictate. What tow other elements are included in the posturing

A

The national Air Mobility System and Theater Air Ctonrol systems

220
Q

Due to their unique nature, enabler forces do not operate within a _____ month life cycle and cannot be easlily aligned tin AEF battle rhythm

A

24 Months

221
Q

A. _____ force consists of thise forces assigned to orgs responsible for carrying out the SECAF directed Title 10 Functions at th AF level

A

Institutional Force

222
Q

Who must grant a waiver for institutional forces to posture unit type codes int he AEF capability library

A

Headquaerrts AF

223
Q

Even thought insitiutnal force orgs do not repreent a _____ capability, the individuals assigned to them are _____

A

Warefighting …. Deployeable

224
Q

The AEF operated on a _____ month life cycle

A

24 Month

225
Q

What does the AEF life cycle include

A
  1. Normal straining
  2. Preparation
  3. Deployment vulnerability
226
Q

Foer most forces the majority of the AEF battle rhythm is spent in ____ training

A

Normal

227
Q

Contingency and deployment training is also used to fill the units assigned committed mission requirements filling requirement for how many days

A

30 Days or less

228
Q

Post deployment reconstitution is included in the AEF battler rhythm T/F

A

True

229
Q

PCS or permanent change of assignment moves into and out of the unit will be deconflicted to the maximum extent posibleto occur during the ____ month period immediately after the vulnerability period

A

Three month

230
Q

Unit CCs should develop a deployment schedule that provides a measure of predictability for forces aligned with what other forces

A

Enabler Forces

231
Q

Who ensures appropriate mechanisms are in place to ensure AMN postured as enablers are povided a measure of predicability and stability

A

MAJCOM Vice CCs

232
Q

What is the process the SecDef and the Chairman of the Joint chiefs of Staff use to assign forces to CCDR for mission accomplishment

A

Global Force Management (GFM)

233
Q

what does. Global Force Management (GFM) allow senior deacon makers to assess

A

The impact and risk of proposed changes in force assignment apportionment and allocation

234
Q

How many life cycles does the AEF schedule ecncompas

A

Two 12 Month life cycles that align with the GFM cycle and coincide with FYs

235
Q

Who revalidates the deployment to dwell period alligmmetn of their respective capability areas and readings forces if necessary

A

AF specialty funcional area managers (Prior to the beginning of every AEF cycle)

236
Q

How often isa new 24 Month AEF schedule established

A

Every 12 Months

237
Q

The AF has t transitioned to the AEF _____. Concept

A

Teaming

238
Q

Describe the AEF teaming Conttruct

A

The contract provides a better teaming concept through larger groupings of UTCs from fewer units bases in order to allow AMN to deploy with their supervisors and members of their unit base, and allows for shared common experiences thought the deployment process

239
Q

Dut to the new AEF Teaming construct, there will be major changes to how the AF presents forces T/F

A

False

240
Q

What is the basic building block used in force paling and the deployment of forces

A

The unit type code (UTC)

241
Q

What is a unit type cod

A

A UTC is a JCS developed and assigned code. It is a five charter alphanumeric designator that uniquely idientifieseach type of unit in the Armed forces and its force acapbiltiy with personnel and or equipment requirements

242
Q

What does the assignbemet of uTC cod categorized

A

Each typ organization into a class or kind of unit having common distuiginging charterireistic

243
Q

All AF peronslle contribute to the AEF and are inherently deployable or employable in place T/F

A

True

244
Q

Which organization posture unit type codes

A

Combat, combat support, combat service support or War Fighting organizations

245
Q

On what is posturing of UTC based

A

On an organization funded miltary authorizations ass how in the Unit Manpower document (UMPD)

246
Q

AEF forces can be postured as ready to deploy to support CCDRs worldwide requiemtns, home station requirement or ____ support of rCCDRs

A

Reach back

247
Q

Who must determine which UTC to posture, based on operational need, organizational specifics and posturing codes within their function areas

A

MAJCOM functional area managers with unit chain of command involvement, MJACOM leadership and or AEF cell oversight

248
Q

All UTC are postured T/F

A

False (Units may be tasked to support a UTC they have not postured as long as the unit can meet the UTC mission capability statement)

249
Q

What are P codes

A

Posturing codes that indicate the number of unit type codes required for assigned committed missions, critical home station requirements and the number of UTC available to be xsimultanieoulsy tasked for deployment

250
Q

List and describe the three types of P codes

A
  1. DP - The minimum number of unit type codes required to accomplish the units assign dcommited mission either deployed or in place
  2. DX - The minimum number UTC equipment stolen support critical home station operations
  3. DW - The maximum number of UTC requirements amiable t support combatant commanders rotational mission
251
Q

Which P Code includes. CCDR missions as well as those of external orgs agencies that the unit must accomplish

A

DP

252
Q

Which P code includes mission not assitioed with the assgiebd commite dmission

A

DX

253
Q

When are AMN given can E indicator

A

Within 15 days af Date arrived station

254
Q

With what does the AEF indicator correspond for individuals assigned to readily available forces

A

The same AEF period as the units unit type code

255
Q

its what does and AEF indictor correspond for individuals assigned to the Institutional force

A

An AEF vulnerability period detained by the AMNs commander or equipmvalent

256
Q

Individuals will deploy during their associate AEF vulnerability period. with what exception

A

IN passes of reaching forward

257
Q

When can an individuals AEF indicator be changed

A

Only under extenuating circumstances, along with PCS or PCA

258
Q

When’d od unit commanders review AEF indicator codes of assigned AMN to ensure they match the UTC alignment

A

Prior to the start of each AEF schedule

259
Q

In the case of the insitutaitonal force, organization cCCs will review AEF indicator codes to ensure equal distribution across the ____ vulnerability periods to the maximum extent possible while meeting the need of the Org

A

Five

260
Q

Joint operation planning and execution system (JOPES) is a system of joint policies, procedures and reprint gsturxctures. What too types of systems support it

A
  1. Communicaitons Systmes

2. Compute systems

261
Q

Do joint planners us JOPES to monitor plan and execute planning actives during peace or during crisiss

A

During both peace and crisis

262
Q

List the six acivies the tJOPES encompasses

A
  1. Mobilization
  2. Deployment
  3. Employment
  4. Sustainment
  5. Redeployment
  6. Demobilization
263
Q

All Join, conventional time phase force deployment databases are developed by and reside in ____

A

Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES)

264
Q

What does the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) system provide for the Air Staff, AF planners and AF CCs

A

The current policies, chairmen, joint chiefs of Staff apportioned forces and planning factors for conducting an supporting operations (It is the Bfs supporting document to the Joint Strategic Capbabiilieis Plan)

265
Q

What does the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) establish

A

Requirements for developing mobilization and planning programs to support and sustain contingency operations, and it encompasses all basic functions necessary to match facilities, personnel and materials resources wth planned wartime activiy

266
Q

How many volumes are the the WMP

A

Five (and associated databases)

267
Q

What volume of the WMP includes functional supplants that provide a more detailed guidance for near term support forces to aid AF planners to develop war and contingency planes

A

Volume 1 (WMP-1) Basic plan an supporting supplements

268
Q

What volume of the WMP is a single source document that provides the listing of all active plans with time phased for eploydesmnt data

A

Volume 2 (WMP-2) Plans listing and summary

269
Q

What volume of the WmP has four parts

A

Volume 3 (WMP-3) Combat and support forces

270
Q

What part of Volume 3 of the WMP lists all available combat forces by type of aacft unit identification unit availbity date and scenarios or theaters for which they are apportioned in accordance with CJCS force apportionment for cointgency planning

A

Part 1

271
Q

What part of Volume 3 of the WMP is the official comprehensive data source for identifying all the AF unit type codes

A

Part 2

272
Q

What part of Volume 3 of the WMP identifies the readiness spare package authorization fore airborne assets

A

Part 3

273
Q

What volume to fit eWMP documents the deployment, position and employment activity of AF aviation units for each geographical location having ACFT passing through or operating from it in support of all regional operation plans and certain concept plans

A

Volume 4 Wartime aircraft activity

274
Q

What volume of the WMP provides approved USAF planning factors by aircraft type and theater, serving as a basis for establishing worldwide support for programmed force levels

A

Volume 5 (WMP-5) basic planning factors and data (Sortie rates, durations, and all war consumables)

275
Q

Name the AF war planning system that provides an AF feed to joint operation planning and execution system 9JOPES)

A

Deliberat and Crisis Action Planning and execution segment (DCAPES)

276
Q

DCAPES enables ____ unique operation planning and execution processes, including associated joint policy and procedures

A

Air Force Unique

277
Q

DCAPES provides standard data files, formats, application programs and management procedure. What are these primarily used for

A

Force planning, sourcing equipment and personnel requirements, transportation feasibility estimates, civil engineering and medial planning

278
Q

Who supports AEF operations by identifying the most ready and amiable forces

A

AFPC or another designate force manager

279
Q

The ____ is a document prepared by a parent MAJCOM that outlines each measured whites capabilities

A

Designated Operational Capabilities Statement (DOC Statement)

280
Q

What doe she DOC statement contain

A

Units

  1. Identificaiton
  2. Mission tasking narrative
  3. Mission specifics
  4. Measurable resoiurces
281
Q

For what purpose is the DOC statement used

A

To organize, train and equip the unit

282
Q

The ____ is a short paragraph describing the missing capabilities that higher headquarter s planners expect of a specific unit type code

A

Mission Capabilities Statement

283
Q

What does the Mission Capabilities Statement usually contain

A
  1. the Type of base where commanders will deploy the unit
  2. The units functional actiites
  3. Other augmentationrequiremtn to conduct specific missions
284
Q

The _____ is a single or series of plans connected to operations to be carried out simultaneously or in succession

A

Operation Plan

285
Q

What are Operation Plans based Upon

A

Stated assumptions and are in the form of directive employed by higher authority to permit subordinate eCCs to prepare support plans and orders

286
Q

Who prepares O Plans

A

CCDRs and CC of subordinate commands ( either as complete O Plans or Concept Plans)

287
Q

_____ is the database used to coordinate the movement of forces into their operational locations

A

Time Phased force and deployment data (TPFDD)

288
Q

What does the TPFDD include

A
  1. Forces from all services and their movement regiments
  2. Critical information in regards to time phasing of forces by C Dates to specific destinations
  3. Peronnel and equipment details
  4. Live data that changes frequently
  5. A prioritized list of what UTC deploy in support of particular plan
  6. A catalog of CCDR requirements
  7. Route forces
    8 Established transportation requirements
289
Q

Why must TPFDD be prioritized

A

Due to all services competing for the movement assets

290
Q

The ____ s responsible for identifying , validating and distributing deployment tasking and information

A

Installation Deployment Readiness Cell (IDRC)

291
Q

What permanent staff is included in the IDRC

A
  1. Installation deployment officer
  2. Logistic Readiness Squadron/Logistics Plans and Itegration
  3. Force Support Sq/Personnel Readiness Flight Personnel
292
Q

The _____ is a designated military or federal civilian fully qualified logistics readiness officer, who acts on behalf of the host installation/wing commander

A

Installation Deployment Officer

293
Q

What is the role of the Installation deployment offer

A

They direct, control, coordinate and executes the deployment of in place and aggregated coinitingecy forces and installation deployment excerisies

294
Q

The _____ is an office in fat force support Squadron, responsible for providing installation wide personnel deployment planning and execution

A

Installation peronsnnel readiness (IPR)

295
Q

For what doe sinstallatin personal readiness provide personnel support

A
  1. Deployment availability information
  2. Personnel accountability
  3. Duty status reporting fr cointigency, exercise and deployments
296
Q

Installation personaenl Readiness (IPR) responsible are covered in what five categories

A
  1. Planning
  2. Global command and control system
  3. Accountability
  4. Deployment processing
  5. General
297
Q

The _____ is appointed by the unit CC to manage all deployment readiness and training aspects for deployable personnel and equipment within their unit to ensure they are deployment ready

A

Unit deployment Mabnger

298
Q

UDMs support redeployeable personnel in the redeployment support process. To whom do they serve as the priory lieasison

A
  1. Unit training managers
  2. Flight/SQ leadership
  3. Wing training functions regarding deployment;oyment related issues
  4. IDRS
299
Q

In what step of the toking process does the installation deployment officer asccpet a tasking for the wing

A

Step 1

300
Q

In wha step of the tasking process is installation personnel readiness notifeid

A

Step 2.

301
Q

In what step of the tasking process do units process shortfalls, as required

A

Step 3.

302
Q

In Step ____ of the tasking process, units assign names and provide them to IPR

A

Step 4 (The AMN are then notified)

303
Q

When during the tasking process does IPR input names int eh system and creat orders

A

Step 5

304
Q

When during the tasking process do units prepare eligible AMN

A

Step 6

305
Q

In Step ____ of the tasking process, AMN acocomplish deployment requirement items

A

Step 7

306
Q

When during the tasking process do AMN complete final out processing through IPR

A

Step 8 (Individually or MASS)

307
Q

In what step of the tasking process do AMN depart

A

Step 9

308
Q

What tools are available on AEF online

A
  1. The CCs Toolkit
  2. The personal deploent preparedness tool
  3. The AEF UTC reporting tool
309
Q

What AEF online tool is a nonsecure Intent protocol rougher net based system that proceeds information on deployment readiness, including individual medial readiness data at the unit level

A

The Commander s Toolkit

310
Q

The _____ provides personalize information at the indiudal level for all uniforms AMN

A

Personal Deployment tPreparedness Tool

311
Q

What does the Personal Deployment Preparedness tool provide

A
  1. Duty Status
  2. Security Clearance
  3. AEF indicator
  4. Medical requirements
  5. Ttoal Force awareness traingin
  6. Tier 2A (expeditionary skills proficiency pre deployment training requirements)
312
Q

The _____ is the only assessment system that measures AEF readiness at th eUTC level

A

AEF UTC reprint gTool

313
Q

AFI _____ Provides guidelines for assessing ad reporting UTC capabilities, repairing guidelines and details daily maintnece requirements

A

AFI 10-244 (Reporign Status of AEF)

314
Q

What does the AEF reporting tool highlight

A

Missing sreousrces

315
Q

For what is the AEF reporign tool the primary system

A

Sourcing UTCs for tasking and contingencies

316
Q

Who ensures the AEF report Tool is accurate and up to date

A

Commanders

317
Q

What does inaccurate AEF reporting tool reporting lead to

A

Tasking that exceed capability, shortfalls, reclaims, delays in filling CCDRs requirements and AMN receiving short notice taskigns

318
Q

What are the two types of UTC assemsnts commanders us in AEF reporting Tool

A

Readiness and Tasking ASsessments

319
Q

______ indicate whether a unit type code can perform its mission capability statement anywhere in the world at the time of the assessment

A

Readiness Stoplight Assessments

320
Q

What are the three color opitnosfor readiness stoplight assessments

A
  1. Green
  2. Yellow
  3. Red
321
Q

To report accurately what must CCs and unit AEF dreprtign tool monitor know

A
  1. Their UTC requirments
  2. Status of their personnel and equiopmen
  3. Actions required to bring all UTC to green
322
Q

______ assists AMN to successfully operational as members of a Joint team

A

Joint Doctirne

323
Q

Joint doctrine represents what works best. What commonalities does it promote

A

Proven values and a common perspective on planning, trainmen and conducting miitlary operations

324
Q

Unity of ____ means all forces operate under a single CC with authority to direct them toward a common purpose

A

Unity of Command

325
Q

Unity of ____ requires coordination and cooperations among all forces toward a common objective

A

Unity of effort

326
Q

Unity of effort does not necessarily curie forces to be part of the same command structure T/F

A

True

327
Q

what four types of authorities are excised through operations chain of command

A
  1. Combatant Command (COCOM)
  2. Opertional Control (OPCON)
  3. Tactical Toncorl (TACON)
  4. Support Command
328
Q

Combatant Command is a Combatant Commanders authority. To whom ca it be delegated or transfer

A

IT cannot be delegate or transferred

329
Q

A CCDR exercises COCM authority over focus that accomplish what four functions

A
  1. Organize and employ commands andfores
  2. Assign Tasks
  3. Designate objectes
  4. Direct all aspect of military operations, joint training and logistics
330
Q

OPCON provides authority to organize and employ command and forces to accomplish assigned mission. Who can exercise OPCON or delegate it within the command

A

Commanders at or below the COCOM level

331
Q

Wich coommand authroigty is inherent int COCOM

A

OPCON

332
Q

TACTON may be delegated to ore excessed by commanders at what echelons

A

Commanders at or below the Level of COCM

333
Q

TACTON is command over what forces

A

Assigned ro attached forces or commands, or military capabilities or forces available for tasking

334
Q

TACON is limited to detailed direction and ctnorl of movements or maneuvers within the operation area T/F

A

True

335
Q

When one organization should aid, protect, complement or sustain another force a superior commander establishes a _____ relatihsiop between subordinate commanders

A

Support

336
Q

Commanders at what levels may cerise support authority

A

Commanders at or below the COCM level

337
Q

Who established support command relatiohsiops

A

The common superior commander

338
Q

Who sidisngtates support relaships between CCDRs

A

The SEDEF

339
Q

What authority does the administrative chain of command exercise

A

ADCON

340
Q

ADCON is drictopn oer authority over _____ or other organizations for adminsatring and support

A

Subordinate

341
Q

List five Organizational, train and equip functions under ADCON authority

A
  1. Organiztion of Serviceforces
  2. Contorl of resources and equipment
  3. Personnel managment
  4. Unit logistiists
  5. Individual and unit trainign
  6. Readinenss
  7. Mobilization
  8. Demobiliaztion
  9. Discipline
  10. Other matters not included in operational missions of the subordinate or thoeth organizations
342
Q

Does ADCON flow through service channels or through joint channels

A

Though Service Channels

343
Q

Who assigns all National Guard and reserve forces to the COCM unless specifically exempted

A

the SECDEF

344
Q

National guard and reserve forces are only available for operational mission under what two conditions

A
  1. Mobilized for specific periods according to law

2. Ordered to active duty

345
Q

Joint forces are established on a geographic area or functional basis. They can be established at what three levels

A
  1. Unified Commands
  2. Subordinate unified commands
  3. Joint Task forces
346
Q

Joint Forces are commanded by a _____

A

Joint force Commander (JFC)

347
Q

The joint force commander cane one of what three types of commanders

A
  1. Combatant Commander (CCDR)
  2. Subunified commander
  3. Joint Taks force commander
348
Q

JFC exercise command authority or operational control over a Joint force T/F

A

True

349
Q

Who established unified commands and specidifeid commands with broad continuing missions

A

The President

350
Q

A ______ command has a single commander awn dis composed of forces from two ro more military departments

A

Unified Command

351
Q

How many specified command currently are designated

A

None

352
Q

Commanders of unified commands may establish subordinate unified commands with who’se authorization

A

The SEDEF through the CJCS

353
Q

Who may constitute and deisngate a Joint force as. JTF

A

The SECDEF, CCDR, subordinate unified commander or existing JTF commander

354
Q

The operational branch of Joint force organizations runs from the President or SECDEF through end Unified CCDR to what tow levels

A

Through the sub unified CC to the Joint Task Force Commander

355
Q

Is the JTF established on a geographical basis or functional basis

A

Either a geographical or functional basis

356
Q

JTF missions have a broad objective and require overall centralized logixticl control T/F

A

False ( They have a specific limited objective and no need for over all control)

357
Q

What is the key to successful employment of /aF forces

A

Providing a single AF commander with he respionsbilty and authority to properly organize, train, equip and employ AF forces to accomplish assigned dfucntions and tasks

358
Q

Operationlly, how should the COMAFFOR be prepared to pemploy AF forces

A

As directed byt eh Joint force commander

359
Q

The requirements and respoinsbilties of the COMAFFOR and joint force air component commander are not critical to operational success T/F

A

False they are inextricably linked

360
Q

For what is the title of COMAFFORreserved

A

It is reserved exclusively for the single AF commander of an AF service component assigned or attached to a Joint force commander at the unified combatant camommnad, sub unified combatant command or joint taks force level

361
Q

Who may elect to permantley establish a subordinate unified combatant command or temporarily establish a subrodante joint taks force as part of his her organizational structure

A

The SecDef / Combatant commander

362
Q

The commanders of subordinate joint forces are at a higher level than the combatant commanders T/F

A

False

363
Q

The COMAFFOR should normally be designated at a _____ level above the operating forces and should not e _____ as commander of a subordinate operating unti

A

Command. and Dual hatted

364
Q

Who commands an AEF

A

The commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR)

365
Q

The AEF is a scalable organization contain what three elements

A
  1. The commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR)
  2. Command and Control mechanisms
  3. Tailored and fully supported forces
366
Q

Whoudl the AEF first draw from eh AEF currently on rotation or from in theater resources

A

Draw first from in theater resources, then as needed from the AEF currently on rotation

367
Q

Wich elements should fully support /AEF forces, whether in theater or deploy from out of theater

A

Maintenance, logistical support, health services and administrate elements

368
Q

How do forces form up within th AEF

A

As expeditionary wings, groups, squadrons, flights, determents or elements as necessary

369
Q

A _____ may be regional or functional and aligns with he purpose of the unified command it supports

A

Air and Space Air Operations Center (/aoc)

370
Q

Which of these does the COMAFFOR exercise, OPCON, TACON, ADCON or AOC

A

The COMAFFOR exercises all of them

371
Q

The character for AEF operations center varies, depending on the nature of the forces. Which may not be an AEF operations center. A large, fixed Falconer AOC, th Tanker Airlift Control Center at Scott AFB, or the Air Force Space AOC at Vandember AFB

A

They may all be an AEF oeprations Center, depending on the operation

372
Q

The COMAFFOR uses _____ staff for beds, beans and bullets sustainment and long range planning

A

Air Force Forces (AFFOR) Staff

373
Q

How should the AOC and AFFOR stafff be tailored in size and fucninog

A

Accoding to the theater and operations

374
Q

Some humanitarian operations can make do with a small control center that largely does scheddluign and reporting T/F

A

True

375
Q

Who can establish functional component commands

A

CCDRs, commanders of subordinate =ubnified commands and Joint Force Commanders

376
Q

List the four fucbntioanl commoner commanders in a JTF organization

A
  1. Joint force Land Component Commander (JFLCC) Land
  2. Joint Force Maritime Component Commander (JFMCC) Naval
  3. Joint Force Air Component Cmmnadeer (JFACC) Air and Space
  4. Joint Force Special Opoerations Component Commander (JFSOCC) special Ops
377
Q

List the five possible commanders of the service components in a JTF organization

A
  1. Commander, Army Forces (COMARFOR)
  2. Commander, Navy Forces (COMNAVFOR)
  3. Commander Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR)
  4. Commander, Marin Corps Forces (COMMARFOR)
  5. Commander, coast guard forces (COMCGFOR)
378
Q

How is a commander designated if air and spaces assets from more then one service are present within a joint force

A

The Joint Force Commander normally designates a Joint Force Air and Space Component Commander (JFACC)

379
Q

Which device component commander should be designate dat the Joint Force Air and Space Component Commander (JFACC)

A

The on with the preponderance of air and pace capabilities and the ability too plan, taks and ctonrol joint air and pace operations

380
Q

In a coalition or alliance operation, the Joint Force Air and Space Component Commander (JFACC) may be designated the _____

A

The combined Force Air And Space Component Commander

381
Q

One person will normally be dual hatted as Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR) and Joint Force Air and Space Component Commander (JFACC)/Combined Force Air and PScace Compeont Command Der (CFACC) T/F

A

True

382
Q

Because the JFACC and the JKFC typically maintain the same joint operating area/theater wide perspective the JFACC should be dual hatted as the JFC T/F

A

False

383
Q

A COMAFFOR excersices OPCON of AFFOR and exercises _____ of available Navy, army, marine and coalition air and space assets

A

TACON

384
Q

Functional component commanders normally excessive _____ of forces the JFC assigned to them

A

TACON

385
Q

______ Includes planning actives associated with joint military operations by CCDRS and their subordinate Joint force commanders in response to contingencies and crises

A

Joint Operation Planning

386
Q

_____ is now the process supporting cointigncy planning within the DoD

A

Adaptive Planning

387
Q

The adaptive planning and execution system ______ iterative dialogue and collaborative planning between the multiple echelons of command and _____ in a networked collaborative environment

A

Facilites - Operates

388
Q

What promotes clear, strategic guidance and frequent interaction between senior leaders and planners

A

Early understand of and agreement on planning assumptions, considerations, risks and other key factors

389
Q

What is conducted at every echelon of command and across the range of military opoeraitons

A

Planning

390
Q

When is the planning process highly sturctued to support the though and fully coordinated development of deliberate plans

A

IN peactime

391
Q

When is the planning precess shortened as needs to support eh tdybnnamic requirement son changing events

A

In crisis

392
Q

When is the planning process adapted to accommodate greater decentralization of joint operation planning actives

A

In wartiem

393
Q

How is joint operation planning donducted

A
  1. Contingency planning
  2. Campaign planning
  3. Crisis actionplanning
394
Q

How long does contingency planning usually take

A

Genrally takes 12 to 24 months and involves the entire joint planning and execution community

395
Q

What do the SECDEF, CCDRS and or JFC determination during contingency planning

A

The level of detail required

396
Q

What do campaign n plans drive

A

When to fight, what to accomplish and how operations are conducted and concluded

397
Q

What do campaign plans embody

A

A Commanders strategic vision for the arrangement of related operations necessary to attain theater strattgeci objectives

398
Q

Crisis action procedures are used in _____ sensitive situation to plan for military action

A

Time Senstitive

399
Q

What are the fiviecrisis action planning orders

A
  1. Warning Orders
  2. Planning oerders
  3. Alert Orders
  4. Execute Orders
  5. Prepare to deploy order, dployment oreder adn dredployment order
400
Q

The CJCS _____ initiates course of action development and applies to the supported command and supporting commands

A

Warning Order

401
Q

When is a warning order normally published

A

During planning

402
Q

What does a warning order establish

A

Command relatiohiopss and a tentative C day and L hour

403
Q

A warning order always aurhtises movement of Frxces T/F

A

False

404
Q

If the crisis is progressing rapidly, what may be issued instead

A

A planning or alert order

405
Q

When a warning or planning order is issued, the _____ prepares a time phased force deployment plan in DCAPES

A

Air Force component headquarters commander

406
Q

the CJCS can send a planning order to the supported commander and joint planning and execution commuinty to direct execution planning before course of action is formally approved by whom

A

The SECDEF and president

407
Q

What happens whebn a aplanning order is used in lieu of a warning order

A

It will include a course of action, provide combat forces and strategic lift for planning purposes and establish a tentative C Day and L Hour.

408
Q

The planning order is not used to deploy forces or increase readiness unless approved by the Secretary of Defense T/F

A

True

409
Q

The SecDef approves and transmits a ______ to the supported commander and joint planning and execution community announcing the elected course of actions

A

ALtert Order

410
Q

What does an alert order describe

A

The course of action sufficiently to allow the supported commander and joitn planning and execution community to begin or continue the detailed planning necessary to deploy forces

411
Q

What happnes when an alert order is used in lieu of a warning order

A

It will include a course of action provide combat forces and strgetic lift for planning purpose and establish a tentative C Day and L hour

412
Q

In a time sentsitive crisis a _____ may be issued in leisure of an later order

A

Execute order

413
Q

An execute order is issued by the authority and direction of the ______ and directs the deployment and or employemnt of rfofrces

A

SecDef

414
Q

What happens if an execute order is precede by a detailed alert order or planning order

A

The execute order simply directs the deployment and employment of races

415
Q

What is the goal of the crisis actin planning system in regards to the execute order

A

To reserve the execute order solely for initiating or terminating the employment of US military forces

416
Q

Which crisis action planning order is used to change force structured during an oepration

A

The deployemntn order

417
Q

What other orders are similar to the dpoyment order

A

The prepare to deploy order air redeployment oreder

418
Q

Who issues prepare to deploy, deployment or redeployment orders

A

The SecDef

419
Q

What are prepare to deploy, deployment or redepoyment orders used for

A

To prepare forces to deploy or to deploy forces without approving the execution of a plan or operation order

420
Q

What does Joint forces command do prior to issuing prepare to deploy, deployment or redeployment oreders

A

It develops a draft deployment order with recommended sourcing solutiopns

421
Q

With whom does the Joint staff coordinate the draft deployment orders

A

With agencies and office of the SecDef

422
Q

Upon recepit of the CJCS orders, who transmits deployment orders to ll USAF components and commands

A

The HQ AF criss action Team

423
Q

What will a draft deployment oreder elineate

A

All AF assets and taskings, as well as realionshiops and taskgin authority between the supported comp[onent headauaerts and supprintg AF command and agencies

424
Q

The AF must be _____ while ensuring all capabilities are _____

A

Indterdependendt Interoperable

425
Q

What founding intiitavie addresses joint dinterdependence and interopoerabiltiy

A

The Goldwater Nichols DoD reorganization Act of 1986

426
Q

What operations experienced one of the first successful combinations of Joint and coalition integrations

A

Operations Desert Shield and Desert Storm

427
Q

What was exploited during various phases of Operations Desert Shield and Dest Storm

A

The unique cpabilites of each US military service and our allies

428
Q

The combined force provided a _____ combat capability during operations desert shield and desert storm

A

Synergisitc

429
Q

Operations Desert Shield and Desert Storm reaffirmed the importance of joint and combined trinagin, the value of dforwqward presence and the validity of joint force sequencing for power projection T/F se

A

True

430
Q

After the gulf war, there was a near unanimous agreement that ____ based systems greatly increased the overall effectiveness of coalition forces

A

Space based

431
Q

What increase and or balances the successful outcome of a military objective

A

The strengths, resources and trainign of one service or nation

432
Q

The AF unity of ____ poriveds unique cpaiblites that bridge a comprehensive joint and coalition approach

A

Unity of effort

433
Q

What does the aF use to select the right resources and capaiblites from their joint and coalition partners

A

Interdependence

434
Q

Shifting balance from one service or nation to the next to support the best options describes what AF tenet

A

Centralized ctonnrl and decentralized execution

435
Q

What AF tent is never prosecuted alon

A

Airpower

436
Q

Operations ____ proved to the one of the greatest uses of joint and coalition capability in recent thistory

A

Operation Odyssey Dawn

437
Q

What unified COCOM led the Joint task force Odyssey Dwawn

A

US African Command (General Carter Ham)

438
Q

Admiral Sam Locklear executed tactical command for operation odyssey dawn from what location

A

The USS Mount Whitney in the Mediterranean Sea

439
Q

Name the supproitng commanders included in Joint Task Force Odyssey Danwwn

A
  1. Joint force Maritime Component Commander (Vice Admiral Harry B Harris
  2. Joint force Air compononet Commander ( Major General Margaret Woodward)
440
Q

What Libyan regime began using miltiary force against its citizens in an effort to repress their purising

A

The Muammar Al Qadhafi Regime

441
Q

What Arabe League met in Cairo to ask the UN security Council to impose a _____ over Libyaa to protect cilivialns from air attack

A

No Fly Zone

442
Q

The UN Security Council passed Resolution _____ Authorize all necessary measures to protect silvans in Liby

A

Resolution 1973

443
Q

Who took measures to envforce UN security Council Resolution 1973

A

The international Coalition

444
Q

Joint and coaltion capbilties during operations Odyssey Dawn illustrated effective ____ and _____

A

Interdependence. I interoperability

445
Q

Miltary contigencies and operations can’t opitiize objectives without what

A

/space or cyberspace

446
Q

What does airpower offer while demonstrating its success to meet homeland and International security challenges

A
  1. Speed
  2. Agility
  3. Flexibility
  4. Rankge
  5. Responsiveness to virutally every need
447
Q

What guaranetes the AF the capabilty to perat in any contest cyber domain

A

Cyber operations

448
Q

In interdepend domains, what unique capaiblites does the AF possess

A
  1. Ensuring global mobility
  2. Long range strike
  3. Intelligence, Surveillance and Reconnaissance
449
Q

What domains cominbed with joint and coalitonal capaiblites bprove to be the most valuable means of supproting the National Security Strategy of the US and its Allies

A

Air, space and cyberspace

PDG 2017 E-8-2s (19 decks)

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