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PDG 2017 E-8-2s > Chapter 16 > Flashcards

Chapter 16 Flashcards

1
Q

Why is an effective leave program an essential military requiremetn

A

Because lengthy respites tend to have psychological and phsycial benefits

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2
Q

DoDI ____ Leave and liberty plicy and precdures, states that all officers in command, major headquters and military departnets shall ensure that secondary and nonessential efforst do not prevent and effective leave program

A

DoDI 1327.6

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3
Q

Leave accures at a rate of ____ calder days per motnh of active duty service

A

2 1/2 days

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4
Q

Annual leave accrual is temporariy increased from a total of 60 days to ____ until 30 Sept 2015

A

75 Days

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5
Q

When accuring leave, what does the expression “use or loe” mean

A

Leave in excess of 75 days is lost if not used by the end of theFY

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6
Q

You may reqest to carry over excess leave from one FY to the next if mission requriemetn preclude using it prior to 30 spet T/F

A

True

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7
Q

When can the AF pay you for unused leave

A

Upon reenlistment, retirement, separation under honorable conditions or death

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8
Q

You cannot reciev3e accured leave payment for more than ___ days of accured leave druign yoru military career

A

60 days

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9
Q

When does leave not accrue

A 
AWAOl
in an unauthorized leave status
confineded for a court martial sentence
in an excess leave status
on appellate leave under title 10 section 876
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10
Q

How long can you keep special leave accrual earned in combat zones or in support of operatoins

A

Combat zones - four FY

Support ofoperations - Two FY

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11
Q

Describe the additional one time special leave accrual sell back authorized for enlistd service members

A

You may sell back up to 30 days of SLA that counts toward your 60 day career cap

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12
Q

Memebers lose leave in excess of 75 days at the end of the FY unless they are eligible for special leave accrual T/F

A

True

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13
Q

Elibiable members who lose leave on 1 October may have only the portion of leave restored that cold not possibley be used befoe the end of the FY not to exceed ____ days

A

120 days

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14
Q

Who approves special leave accrual for an orgnaization

A

MAJCOM or FOA directors or personnel or equievlants (colonel or above)

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15
Q

Any commander in the chain of command may dny a member request for SLA without referring it to a higher level authority when the rquest does not meet the criteria for SLA condierations T/F

A

True

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16
Q

Until 30 Sept ___ Members who serve on active duty while entitled to hostile fire imminent danger pay for 120 consecutive days may retain SLA until the end of th Fourth FY following the FY in wich the udty asisggnemnt in terminated

A

2015

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17
Q

Members not assigned to a hostile fire imminenet danger pay area for at least 120 consecutive days are autrized dto retain SLA up to how many days

A

120 Days

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18
Q

Leave must being and end in the local area, meantin what

A

The palce of residence from wich the member commutes to the duty station on a daily basis

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19
Q

How is the local area defined when your enroute to a PCS or TDY assigbnmet

A

The old Permante Duty Station for beginning leave, the new PDS for ending leave

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20
Q

AF form 8988 is used for all types of leave an permistive TDY when leave web cannot be usted, with what expection

A

When mbmebers take leave en route with PCS or tdy travel, the FSO uses the travel voucher to detmin authorized tavel and chargeable leave

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21
Q

When are non duty days and holidays chargeable leave days

A

when they cocur during th authorized period of leave

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22
Q

If leve includes a weekend, can it end on a Friday and begin again on a monday

A

No

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23
Q

Are successive Monday torugh firday leaves ever approved

A

Only under memebercy or unusual circumstances

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24
Q

If a member is incapacitated and unable to reparot for duty up on expiration of leave because of illness or injry who may notify the leave approving autorty on the mbmers behalf

A

Next of kin, attending physician, representative at th nearest medial treatment facility

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25
Q

what happens to your leave status if your hospitalized or on quarters status

A

Chargeable leave ends the day before and restarts the day following hosptiaztion or quarters status, regardless of the hour of admission, discharge or realease rom quaters

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26
Q

Who changes the leave status to AWOL when a member fails to return to deyt at eh end of their lreave period

A

MPS and the AF personnel center casualty services branch

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27
Q

Extension of leave must b rquertsd orally or in wirting. What time constraints apply

A

The extension must be rquested early enough to allow the member to return to duty on tme if the approval authority disapproves the extnesion

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28
Q

When may unit commanders recal members from leave

A

For military necessity or in the best interest of the AF

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29
Q

If your unit commadner authorized resumption of leave after you complet the duty that resulted in recal are new leave forms or orders rquied

A

Yes

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30
Q

TO resume leave a new AF form ___ or orders must be prepared aftery ou complet th eeduty that rsulted in recal

A

998

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31
Q

Identify five of the many types of leave

A 
Annual
advance
convalescent
emergency
en route
terminal
excess
Envionrmtn and Moral Leave
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32
Q

What is another name for ordinary leave

A

Annual leave

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33
Q

Wha tis annual leave used for

A

Vacations, family needs such as illness, traditional national holidays, spiritual events or other religious observance or as terminal leave with retirement or separation from active duty

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34
Q

____ leave is granted based on a resonalbe expectation that a member will accrue at least that much leave during the remaiing period of active military service

A

Advance

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35
Q

What is the uprupose of advance leave

A

To enable members to resolve emergencies or urgent persanl situation when they have limited or no accrured leave

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36
Q

When ammeber has teken all possible advance leave that will be accrured druing the remaing period of active service, unti commanders change his or her leave status from adavace to ____ leave

A

Excess

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37
Q

____ leave is not chargeable

A

Convalescent

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38
Q

Can convalescent leave be used if a member elects civilian medical car eat personal expense and an AF physican determines the medical procedure is condiered electve

A

No

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39
Q

Can convalescent leave be used if a member elects civilian medical care for a medically necessary procedure such as childbirth

A

Yes

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40
Q

When may emergency leave be granted

A

This chargeable leave may be granted for personal or family emergencies involving the immediate family

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41
Q

Unit commanders approve emergency leave. To whom may they delegate this task

A

No lower than the first sergeant for enlisted personnel

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42
Q

What is the usual initial period for emergency leave

A

No more than 30 days

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43
Q

Can you be granted and extension of leave, beyond the initial 30 days, when on emergency leave

A

Yes up to an additional 30 days

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44
Q

If an emergency leave period extends more than 60 days what should unit commanders advise members to do

A

Apply for a humanitarian or exceptional family member reassignment or hardship discharge

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45
Q

Who approves emergency leave if the leave requested results in member having a cumulative negative leave balance of over 30 days

A

AFPC

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46
Q

Can members request emergency leave to attend court hearing s or to resolve marital or financial problems

A

No

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47
Q

____ leave is ordinary leave used in connection with PCS, including the first PCS upon completion of tech school

A

En Route

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48
Q

Losing unit CC normally approve up to ___ days of en route leave with any pcs if the leave does not interfere with the reporting date to either a port or new assignment

A

30 days

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49
Q

How many days of leave en route may members who complete basic or Tech school request if their first duty stat is in the Conus and If it is an overseas assignment

A

10 days ; 14 Days

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50
Q

What is terminal leave

A

Chargeable leave taken in conjunction with retirement or separation from active duty

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51
Q

Normally a member does not return to duty after terminal leave begins T/F

A

True

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52
Q

____ leave is normally used for personal or family emergencies when members cannot request advance leave

A

Excess

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53
Q

Why does entitlement to pay and allowances and leave accrual stop on the members first day of excess leave

A

Because excess leave is a no pay status

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54
Q

Will a member receive disability pay if injured while on excess leave

A

No

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55
Q

Where is environmental and moral leave authorized

A

At OS installations where adverse environmental conditions requires special arrangements for leave in desirable places at periodic intervals

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56
Q

What is funded Environmental and Morale leave leav3e

A

Funded EML is charged as ordinary leave, but members may us DoD owned or controlled aircraft. Travel time to and from EML destination is not charged as leave

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57
Q

What is unfunded EML Leave

A

Unfunded EML is charged as ordinary leave, but members receive space a air transportation from the duty location and travel time to and from the leave destination is charged as leave

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58
Q

A pass period is an authorized absence from duty for a relatively short time. When does it starts and end

A

It starts at the end of normal work hours on a duty day and ends at the beginning of normal work hours the next duty day

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59
Q

There are mileage restrictions for pass periods T/F

A

False

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60
Q

A regular pass includes the non duty days of Saturday and Sunday and a holiday if a member normally works Monday through Friday, or up to four days if a member works a nontraditional work schedule. The combination of non duty days and a public holiday may not exceed ___ days

A

Four

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61
Q

Is an authorized 4 day holiday period consistent of a holiday, compensatory time off day and a weekend considered a regular or special pass period

A

Regular

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62
Q

Why do unit CC award 3 or 4 day special passes

A

For special occasions or circumstances or for some type of special recognition or compensatory time off

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63
Q

To what level may unit commanders delegate the approval authority for special passes

A

To a level no lower then Squadron Section commander, deputies or equivalents

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64
Q

When do special passes start and stop

A

They start after normal work hours on a given day and stop at the beginning of normal work hours on either the 4th day for a 3 day special pass or the 5 day for a 4 day special pass

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65
Q

You may take a special pass in conjunction with leave without a duty day between the pass and leave period T/F

A

True

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66
Q

What is PTDY

A

A period of authorized absence to attend or participate in a designated official or semi official program for which funded TDY is not appropriate

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67
Q

Two situations where per missive TDY is not authorized

A

A PME graduation when the graduate is a coworker friend or military spouse
A change of command or retirement ceremony

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68
Q

AF policy upgraded the status of retirement ceremony from personal in nature to an official function This made it possible for CC to fund permissive tdy travel for the presiding official. Can thy also fund travel for attendees not officiating in the ceremonies

A

no

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69
Q

Why did the SECDEF direct establishment of the post deployment/mobilization respite absence program

A

To support total force policy and recognize members who are required to mobilize or deploy with a frequency beyond established rotation goals

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70
Q

Post deployment mobilization respite absence is a new category of administrative absence that applies to creditable deployment and mobilizations underway on or commencing after 19 Jan ____

A

2007

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71
Q

What is the yearly deployment to dwell ratio for the active component under PDMRA

A

1:2

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72
Q

What is the yearly mobilization to dwell ratio for reserve components under PDMRA

A

1:5

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73
Q

When do AF members accrue PDMRA

A

During creditable deployment temporary duty to the land areas of Afghanistan or Iraq

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74
Q

Aircrew participating in mission into and out of within or over the area of eligibility in support of military operations count each day of operations one day of PDMRA. How is deployment defined

A

As a member TDY under contingency, exercise and deployment orders to the land areas of Afghanistan or Iraq

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75
Q

Creditable PDMRA time continues to accrue during periods of R and R leave and for TDY of ____ or less consecutive days outside of Afghanistan or Ira

A

30 or less consecutive days

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76
Q

Who usually approves ordinary leave requests

A

Commanders delegate approval to the lowest supervisory level that meets the needs of the unit

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77
Q

Leave authorization numbers will not normally be given earlier than____ days prior to the leave effective date

A

14 days

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78
Q

Members on leave should us ____ management principles t assess all hazards and control risks before excessive or hazardous travel, especially when traveling by automobiles

A

Risk

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79
Q

How do supervisors process the AF form 988 when it is not digitally processed

A

The supervisor sends Part I with the authorization number to the servicing finance office and gives part II to the member after obtaining a leave authorization number. The supervisor retains Part III for completion after the member returns from leave

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80
Q

Upon returning from leave the member signs part III of AF Form 988. The supervisor certifies the dates of leave and sends it to whom

A

The commander support staff

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81
Q

Why did the AF adopt the current method of recording leave

A

To prevent fraud in the leave reporting system

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82
Q

What system automates the method of requesting an processing leave in lieu of using the hard copy AF Form 988

A

Leave Web

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83
Q

What is the purpose of the mishap prevention program

A

To minimize loss of AF resources and protect AMN from death, injuries or occupational illnesses by managing risk on and off duty

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84
Q

the challenge of ____ technologically advanced combat systems and changing duty requirements demands strong on duty mishap prevention programs

A

Deployments

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85
Q

Who has responsibilities in the Mishap Prevention Program

A

All AF Personnel

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86
Q

AF personnel use sound risk management principles, processes tools and techniques to assess and mitigate only on duty risks T/F

A

False

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87
Q

An AF ____ is an unplanned occurrence or series of occurrences resulting in damage to public or private property, occupational illness to AF personnel, or death or injury to on or off duty AF military personnel

A

Mishap

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88
Q

What constitutes a Class A mishap

A

Direct mishap cost totals $2M
A dod ACFT excluding RPA 1, 2, 3 is destroyed
Fatality or permanent total disability

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89
Q

Describe a Class B mishap

A

Cost $500K or more but less then $2M
Permanent partial disability
Inpatient hospitalization of three or more personnel, not including observation or diagnostic care

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90
Q

A Class ___ mishap is defined by direct mishap cost that total $50K or more, but less then $500K

A

Class C

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91
Q

The least damaging mishap is the class

A

Class D

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92
Q

`What does an effective mishap prevention program depend on

A

Individual integrating mishap prevention principles at every functional level and complying with applicable safety standard

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93
Q

Who implements the mishap prevention programs at the installation level

A

The safety staff, host and tenant unit

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94
Q

Commanders at all levels implement the US AF mishap prevention program. Name three ways installation commanders accomplish this

A

Provide safe and healthful workplaces for all installation employees
Ensure leadership is accountable for enforcing safety and occupational health standards
Chair the installation safety council and or environment safety and occupational health council

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95
Q

CCs below installation level implement the US AF mishap prevention program and a safety and health program in their unit or AOR. Describe their other two mishap prevention responsibilities

A

Appointing a primary and alternate USR where commanders are not authorized full time safety personnel
Ensuring a proactive mishap prevention program is implemented, including procurement and proper use of PPE and worker facility compliance with standards

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96
Q

What form must be used when necessary to identify and report hazardous s conditions that place AF personnel or property at risk

A

AF Form 457

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97
Q

HFAC are about people in their working and recreational environment, and how the features of individuals tools, task and working environment influence human performance. T/F

A

False

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98
Q

When considering the influence of Human factors on mishaps, what four things can a systematic root cause analysis achieve

A

Identify HFAC deficiencies
Apply mitigations strategies
improve organizational cultures
establish processes to interrupt chains of events and avoid mishaps

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99
Q

Name the four levels used to determine the root cause of a mishap when dealing with the Human factors analysis and classification system

A

Organizational influences
supervision
precondition
acts

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100
Q

When analyzing the root causes of mishaps, at what level does upper level management directly or indirectly affect the operator resulting in system failure, human error or an unsafe situation

A

Organization influences

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101
Q

When analyzing the root cause4s of mishaps the level where supervision fails to correct known problems, leading to unsafe acts is known as command influences T/F

A

False

102
Q

What are preconditions for unsafe acts, as they pertain to analyzing the root cause of a mishap

A

Condition of the operators, environmental factors or personnel factors that result in human error or an unsafe situation

103
Q

When analyzing the root causes of mishaps, unsafe acts fall into three categories T/F

A

False (Violations and errors)

104
Q

Explain the difference between an unsafe act that is a violation and one that is an error

A

A violation involves an operator disregarding rules and instructions. An error is a more commonly undertows human factor and can be classified as a skill based error a judgment and decision making error or a perception error

105
Q

Reckless behavior and unwise decision are not tolerated T/F

A

True

106
Q

Who ensures that personnel understand the implications of poor decisions and the importance of compliance

A

Supervisors

107
Q

What role do commanders play in reinforcing accountability

A

Ensure personnel are ware of AFIS
Enforce compliance
May direct an additional investigation for disciplinary purposes

108
Q

What can filed or absent defenses in organizational factors, unsafe supervision, pre conditions for unsafe acts and unsafe acts cause

A

A mishap

109
Q

If an AMN is injured or dies due to his or her own misconduct, affecting LOD determination what may happened

A

the AMN or family may lose substantial benefit’s

110
Q

What does the AMNs career and life, along with his or her family well begin depend upon

A

Wise decisions

111
Q

Why are supervisors in the best potion to identify hazards, assess risks associated with those hazards and correct unsafe work practices or safety deficiencies

A

Because they are responsible for training, establishing work methods and job instructions, assigning jobs and supervising personnel

112
Q

What does the occupational safety program create to achieve successful mission accomplishment

A

A highly trained workforce that recognizes the importance of safety precautions and procedures and adheres to standards incorporating the basic elements of RM

113
Q

Safety training may only be integrating into tasks performance training T/F

A

False

114
Q

Before any operation begins or any safety training takes place, what helps the supervisor determine where people may be injured or equipment damaged

A

A job safety analysis

115
Q

Supervisors use what methods to eliminate or control unsafe and unhealthy working conditions

A

Engineering, administrative controls, or the use of PPPE

116
Q

When is use of PPE appropriate

A

Only when other controls are not possible or practical for non routine use

117
Q

Commanders must provide PPE for AF military members and civilian employees T/F

A

True

118
Q

List three methods of documentation that can be used for occupational safety program

A

AF Form 55
Electronic mediums
Locally developed products

119
Q

Name five of the fiscal year 2013 top 10 most frequently cited OSHA violations

A 
Fall protection
Hazard communication
Scaffolding
Respiratory protection
Electrical wiring 
Powered industrial trucks
Ladders
Hazardous energy control
Electrical, system design
Machine guarding
120
Q

How must the areas around exits be kept in order to enforce safety standards

A

Free of obstructions

121
Q

If ladders are defective in any way, what must be done to enforce safety standards

A

They must be removed from service

122
Q

In order to enforce safety standards, fully insult plugs so that no part of the ___ is exposed

A

Prongs

123
Q

In order to enforce safety standards when using a plug with a their or grounding prong what must you do

A

Check frequently to ensure that it is secure

124
Q

Circuit breakers and disconnect switches must be readily accessible to workers and building management personnel. What else must be accessible in order to enforce safety standards

A

Fuses

125
Q

To enforce safety standards, why must you never tape circuit breakers in the On Position

A

Breakers that trip frequently indicate electrical problems

126
Q

To enforce safety standards, where must you never durum cords

A

Through holes in walls, ceilings, floors, doorways, windows, etc…

127
Q

To enforce safety standards, only us __- surge protectors to power computers and related equipment

A

Multi receptacle

128
Q

To enforce safety standards, never sue surge protectors or extension cords for ___ items

A

high CURRENT

129
Q

electrical OUTLEST, SWIT CHES AND JUNCTION BOXES MUST BE KEPT IN GOOD CONDTION IN ORDER TO ENFORCE SAFETY STANDARDS. what ELSE DO THEY REQURIED

A

Secure Cover plates

130
Q

To enforce safety standards, ensure one or more methods of ____ is provided to protect the operator and others in the machine area

A

Machine guarding

131
Q

How do you report hazards that cannot be eliminated immediately

A

AF Form 457

132
Q

Within 10 duty days, the investigator of a hazard reported by AF Form 457 must respond in writing about the corrective action or plans. What else must the investigator do

A

Conduct follow up reviews until the corrective action is completed

133
Q

Why must each AF installation have an effective traffic safety program as part of its mishap prevention program

A

Because Traffic mishaps cause the highest number of AF injury related deaths each year

134
Q

Reckless behaviors account for more then ____ percent of PMV fatalities in the last 10 years

A

70 Percent

135
Q

What activities have recently begun to cause more PMV accidents

A

Distraction by non driving activities such as talking on cell phones, texting or using a navigation device

136
Q

What is risk management

A

RM is decision making process that systematically evaluations possible courses of actin, identifies risks and benefits, and determines the best COA for any given situation

137
Q

How does RM help commander, functional managers, supervisors and individuals maximize capabilities while limiting risk

A

By applying a simple, systematic process appropriate for all personnel and functions, in both on and off duty situations

138
Q

What four principles govern all actions associated with the management of risk and are applicable 24 hrs a day 7 days a week, by all personnel for all on and off duty operations, task and activities

A

Accept no unnecessary risk
Make risk decisions at the appropriate level
Integrate RM into operations an planning at all levels
Apply the process cyclically and continuously

139
Q

What is an unnecessary risk

A

An unnecessary risk comes without a commensurate return in terms of real benefits or available opportunities.
It will not contribute meaningfully to mission or activity accomplishment and needlessly jeopardizes personnel or other assets

140
Q

Explain the RM principle Accept no unnecessary risk

A

All AF missions and daily routines involve risk. Make logical choices that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk

141
Q

Should airmen be completely risk averse

A

No

142
Q

When making risk decision, why is it important to engage personnel with prior knowledge and experience of the mission or activity

A

they help ensure a proper balance between benefits and costs

143
Q

Explain the RM principle Make risk decisions at the appropriate level

A

anyone can make a risk decision that impacts personnel wellbeing, but some risk acceptance decisions must com from an appropriate decision making authority that can allocate resources and implement controls to mitigate or eliminate risks. W

144
Q

Who must be fully engaged in the risk decision process

A

Those accountable for the success or failure of the mission or activity

145
Q

Explain the RM principle integrate risk management into operations and planning at all levels

A

Integrating risk management into planning at all levels and as early as possible provides the greatest opportunity to make well informed risk decisions and implement effective risk controls

146
Q

When are risk assessments of operations and activities most successful

A

When they are accomplished in the normal sequence of events by individuals directly involved in the event and not as a last minute or add on process

147
Q

Explain RM principle apply the process cyclically and continuously

A

Using the process cyclically and continuously helps identify and assess hazards, develop and implement controls, evaluate outcomes and provide feedback to airman

148
Q

There are two primary levels of RM that dictate the effort and scope of evaluation risk. What are they

A

Deliberate

Real time

149
Q

Deliberate and real time RM are interrelated when it comes to making RM decisions T/F

A

True

150
Q

A strong, effective RM process involved careful and deliberate planning coupled with effective Real time RM. What does this full spectrum approach ensure

A

Comprehensive risk mitigation and the likelihood of mission or activity success

151
Q

What process must be formally applied during deliberate RM

A

The 5 Step RM process

152
Q

What type of RM planning is reserved for complex operations, systems, high priority or visibility situations or circumstances in which hazards are not well understood

A

In depth RM

153
Q

In depth RM is usually implemented well in advance of the planned system, mission, even t or activity T/F

A

true

154
Q

While using deliberate RM it is important to always include experience, expertise, and knowledge of ___ to identify known hazards risks and strategies to effectively mitigate risks

A

Experienced personnel

155
Q

RM is used on the fly when time is limited and Deliberate RM planning is impractical. Instead of using the full 5 step RM process what should you apply

A

The easy to remember Assess the situation
Balance controls
Communicate
Decide and debrief (ABCD) mnemonic

156
Q

Each step in the RM process addresses a unique aspect of how to effectively deal with risk. Identify these five steps

A 
Step 1 - Identify the Hazards
Step 2 - Assess the Hazards
Step 3 - Develop Controls and Make decisions
Step 4 - Implement Controls
Step 5 - Supervise and Evaluate
157
Q

What are the key aspects of step 1 of the RM process, Identify the Hazards

A

Mission task analysis
List Hazards
List causes

158
Q

How are hazards defined during step 1 of the RM process, Identify the Hazards

A

Any real or potential condition that can cause mission degradation, injury, illness, death to personnel, or damage to or loss of equipment property

159
Q

Which step of RM process involves the application of quantitative and or qualitative measures to determine the probability and severity of negative effects that may result from exposure to risks hazards

A

Step 2 - Assess the hazards

160
Q

What are the key aspects of step 2 of the RM process, Assess the Hazards

A 
Assess Hazard exposure
Assess Hazard severity
Assess probability
Assess risk levels
Complete risk assessment
161
Q

A single model of RA matrix is suitable for all situation T/F

A

False

162
Q

What document offers a complete and in depth description of a RA matrix

A

AFPAM 90-803

163
Q

What are the four sample levels of severity given in the sample RA matrix in Chapter 16

A

Catastrophic
Critical
Moderate
Negligible

164
Q

What step of the RM process involves the development and selection of specific strategies and controls to reduce or eliminate risk

A

Step 3 - Develop Controls and Make decisions

165
Q

What are the key aspects of step 3 of the RM process, Develop Controls and make decisions

A 
Identifying control options
Determining control effects
Prioritizing risk controls
Selecting risk controls
Making risk control decisions
166
Q

In step 3 of the RM process Develop Controls and make decisions, effective mitigation measures will reduce one of what three3 components of risk

A

Probability, severity or exposure

167
Q

In step 3 of the RM process, Develop Controls and make decisions, the higher the risk, the lower the decision level needs to be to ensure an appropriate analysis of overall costs compared to benefits T/F

A

False

168
Q

What is the standard for establishing levels of RM decision authority across the AF

A

There is no Standard

169
Q

in Step 3 of the RM process develop controls and make decision, decision makers must choose the most mission supportive risk ____ consistent with RM principles that provide the best solutions of hazards

A

Controls

170
Q

When identifying control options during step 3 of the RM process, develop controls and make decisions, what should each hazard have

A

One or more controls that can effectively eliminate, avoid or reduce the risk to an acceptable level

171
Q

When determining control effected during step 3 of the RM process, develop controls and make decisions, what qualities will the best controls possess

A

They will be consistent with mission objective and optimize use of available resources

172
Q

When selecting risk controls during step 3 of the RM process, develop controls and make decisions, select the risk controls that reduce risk to what level

A

An acceptable level

173
Q

When making risk control decision during step 3 of the RM process, develop controls and make decisions, what should you do if the risks outweigh the benefits and you cannot identify any new controls

A

Inform the next level in the chain of command that, based on the evaluation the risk of the mission exceeds the benefits and should be modified

174
Q

As circumstances change for a mission or activity what must ensure that pervious go, no go decisions are valid

A

The benefit to risk comparison

175
Q

What step of the RM process develops and carries out an implementation strategy to identify the who what when where and costs associated with the control measure

A

Step 4 - Implement Controls

176
Q

What are the key aspect of step 4 of the RM process, implement controls

A

Make implementation clear
Establish accountability
Provide support

177
Q

During step 4 of the RM process, implement controls, why must accountability for mission related controls be emphasized across all levels of leadership and personnel involved

A

So there is a clear understanding of the risk and responsibilities of commanders and subordinates alike

178
Q

During step 4 of the RM process, implement controls, there must always be accountability for acceptance of risk, regardless of circumstances T/F

A

True

179
Q

When making implementation clear during step 4 of the RM process, implement controls, provide a ____ for implementation and a vision of the end stat

A

Road Map

180
Q

When establishing accountability during step 4 of the RM process, implement controls individuals involved in a specific risk management process must know who is responsible and accountable at each stage of an activity. What else must they know

A

If possible, when decisions will be elevated to the next level

181
Q

To be successful when providing support during step 4 of the RM process Implement controls, who must be behind the control measures put into place

A

Command/Leadership

182
Q

What step of the RM process continues through the life cycle of a system, mission or activity

A

Step 5 - Supervise and evaluate

183
Q

What are the key aspects of step 5 of the RM process supervise and evaluate

A

Supervise
Evaluate
Feedback

184
Q

In step 5 of the RM process Supervise and evaluate, action is taken when necessary to correct ineffective risk controls and reinitiate risk management steps in response to new hazards T/F

A

True

185
Q

When are risks and controls reevaluated as part of step 5 of the RM process, Supervise and evaluate

A

Anytime the personnel, equipment, mission or activity change or new actions are anticipated in an environment not covered in the original RM analysis

186
Q

During leadership changes, what does step 5 of the RM process, supervise and evaluate stipulate that outgoing leaders share with incoming leaders to provide a positive transition of risk acceptance and reduce volatility

A

Knowledge, experiences and lessons

187
Q

Every risk analysis should be perfect the first time T/F

A

False

188
Q

Name three excellent tools for measurements conducted as part of the RM process

A

After action reports
Surveys
In process reviews

189
Q

A RM feedback system ensures that corrective and preventative action was effective and identifies, analyzes and corrects new hazards. What else does it do

A

Informs all involved about the implementation process and controls

190
Q

____ in the RM process can occur in the form of briefings, lessons learned, cross tell report, benchmarking and database reports

A

Feedback

191
Q

When it is essential to streamline the 5 step RM process for situations involving quick decision, AMN can use the easy to remember ABCD mnemonic, what does it stand for

A

Assess the situation
Balance Controls
Communicate
Decide and debrief

192
Q

In the assess the situation step of the real time RM process, what does a complete assessment require

A

Perception of what is happening
Integration of information and goals
projection into the future

193
Q

The assess the situation step of the real time RM process combines which two step of the 5 step RM process

A

Step 1 - Identify the Hazards

Step 2 - Assess the Hazards

194
Q

In the balance controls step of the Real time RM process, personnel must consider all controls to facilitate mission or activity success and to eliminate or mitigate risk. What can make this step more effective

A

Better preparation

195
Q

The balance control step of the Real Time RM process is specifically tied to making risk control decision, similar to which step of the 5 step RM process

A

Step 3 - Develop Controls and Make decisions

196
Q

In the communicate step of the Real time RM process, personnel experience stress and loss of situational awareness, which may lead to diminished communication skills and tunnel vision. How can it help individuals to know that they are losing situational awareness

A

They can make corrections and communicate with teammates and leadership in real time situations. they can also step back to reevaluate options

197
Q

In the communicate step of the real time RM process, communication can take various forms. List three examples

A

Real Tim communication with leadership to discuss problems or intentions
Internal team/crew communication to discuss real time hazards and mitigation
Individuals internalizing a situation to evaluate whether they are on the right path

198
Q

Explain what happens in the decide and debrief step of Real time RM

A

Amn decide whether to continue, modify or abandon the mission
Make every effort to weigh risk decision before selecting the best COA
Examine what worked and what did not work to improve performance and future activities

199
Q

How does the Decide and debrief step of the real time RM process differ from Step 4 of the 5 step RM process, implement controls

A

An impanation strategy is not carefully developed and carried out in step 4. Instead real time RM relies on an individual or small group taking immediate or near immediate action to mitigate risks in real time

200
Q

Sexual assault is a ___ and is not tolerated by the US AF

A

Crime

201
Q

Sexual assault falls well short of the standards America expects of its men and women in uniform. It also violates AF core values T/F

A

True

202
Q

____ for self, others and the AF institution is inherent in the core values

A

Respect

203
Q

The DoDs definition of sexual assault, for training and educational purposes, affects the definition of offenses under the CUMJ T/F

A

False

204
Q

Sexual assault is defined by the DoD as intentional sexual contact, characterized by what

A

Use of force, threats, intimidation or abuse of authority, or if the victim does not or cannot consent

205
Q

Sexual assault includes a broad category of sexual offenses. List three examples

A 
Rape
Sexual assault
Aggravated sexual contact
Abusive sexual contact 
Forcible Sodomy
Attempts to commit any of these offenses
206
Q

Consent requires words or overt acts by a ___ person that indicate freely given agreement to sexual conduct

A

Competent

207
Q

A person must express lack of consent to sexual conduct through words T/F

A

False

208
Q

Does a lack of verbal or physical resistance to sexual conduct constitute consent

A

No

209
Q

A pervious or current dating relationship, or a persona ___ of ___ does not constitute consent to sexual conduct

A

Manner of Dress

210
Q

Does consent to sexual conduct exist if a person is sleeping or incapacitated

A

No

211
Q

Who ensures the implementation of the sexual assault prevention and response program, including sexual assault awareness, prevention and response training

A

The SARC

212
Q

To whom does the SARC report

A

The installation commander t

213
Q

The SARC ensures appropriate care is coordinated and provided to ____ victims of sexual assault perpetrated by someone other than the victims spouse or partner

A

Adult

214
Q

A SARC may obtain a written waiver from the installation commander in lieu of proper training and credentials T/F

A

False

215
Q

Who provides non clinical crisis intervention, referral and ongoing non clinical support to adult victims of sexual assault perpetrated by someone other than the victims souse or partner

A

VA

216
Q

What support does a sexual assault VA provide

A

Information on available options and resources
Liaison assistance with other organizations and agencies on victim care matters
Performance of victim advocacy duties

217
Q

What are the two types of sexual assault VA

A

Sexual Assault prevention and response VA

Volunteer VA

218
Q

All sexual assault VA must be trained and ____

A

Credentialed

219
Q

Who may be a sexual assault prevention and response VA

A

A full time general service civilian employee selected and trained by the SARC

220
Q

Who may be a volunteer sexual assault VA

A

Military and DoD civilian employee volunteers selected and trained by the SARC

221
Q

What two reporting options are available when you report a sexual assault

A

Unrestricted Reporting

Restricted reporting

222
Q

_____ reporting of sexual assault activates victim services and accountability responses and its essential to eliminating the crime

A

Unrestricted

223
Q

Restricted reporting to sexual assault offers an option for victims who do not want ____ or AF law enforcing involvement

A

Command

224
Q

Restricted reporting of sexual assault provides access to all victim care services but will not trigger an investigation or notify the chain of command T/F

A

True

225
Q

Who must report sexual assault incidents involving subordinates in their supervisory chain to the SAR, commander and OSI

A

Military members and civilian employees, unless authorized to received confidential communication or exempt by law, regulation or policy

226
Q

Must military members an civilian employees report sexual assault incidents not involving subordinates in their supervisory chain to the SARC

A

No, but they are strongly encouraged to report the incident or to encourage the victim to do so

227
Q

Upon notification of a sexual assault, what does the SARC do immediately

A

Response to the victim, or directs a VA to respond

228
Q

May the victim of a sexual assault request a different VA

A

Yes if one is available

229
Q

Unless the victim declines assistance following a sexual assault, what information does the SARC or VA provide

A 
The sexual assault response process
Restricted or unrestricted reporting
Healthcare treatment
Sexual assault forensic examinations
Special Victims Counsel
230
Q

What sexual assault prevention and response support services are available to AFR component members in Title 10 status who are sexually assaulted while performing active service and inactive duty training

A

Full services, including response support services from a SARC or VA

231
Q

AFR component members who were sexually assaulted prior to or while not performing active service or inactive training, when not in title 10 statues, are eligible for ____ sexual assault prevention and response support services

A

Limited

232
Q

What two types of non military individuals are only eligible to make unrestricted sexual assault report and receive emergency medical services at no cost, unless otherwise eligible as a service member or TRICARE beneficiary

A

DoD civilian employees and dependents 18 years or older, when stationed or performing duties outside the CONUS and eligible for treatment military facilities there
US citizen DoD contractor personnel, when authorized to accompany the armed forces in a contingency operation outside the CONUS

233
Q

What option is available to report allegations of sexual assault without imitating the investigative process

A

Restricted reporting

234
Q

What is the purpose of restricted reporting of sexual assault allegations

A

To remove barriers to medical care and support, and give victims additional time and increase control over the release and management of personal information

235
Q

The AF is committed to treating victims of sexual assault with dignity and respect and protecting their privacy. What other commitment does the AF uphold

A

To provide them with support, advocacy and care

236
Q

Who may receive a restricted report of a sexual assault allegation

A

SARC, healthcare personnel and VA

237
Q

Chaplains and other individuals entitled to privileged communications are authorized to accept a report of sexual assault T/F

A

False

238
Q

What requirement of AFI 44-102, is waived for restricted reports of sexual assault incidents

A

Reporting sexual assault incidents to the AF OSI or other appropriate authorities

239
Q

If a VA is contacted by a victim wishing to make a restricted report, but has not been assigned by the SARC to the victim, what should the VA do

A

Immediately refer the victim to the SARC

240
Q

Whom must the SARC notify within 24 hours of receiving a restricted report of an alleged sexual assault

A

The installation or host wing commander

241
Q

Commanders and law enforcement may not use in formation from restricted reports of sexual assault allegations to initiate an investigation T/F

A

True

242
Q

An unrestricted report of a sexual assault is one made through normal reporting channels. What channels does this include

A

The victims chain of command
Law enforcement
AF OSI
Other criminal Investigative services

243
Q

A report of an alleged sexual assault is made to a SARC, VA or healthcare personnel and the individual elects unrestricted reporting. What happens tot he report

A

It is forwarded to OSI

244
Q

Who is routinely deemed to have a valid need to know about an unrestricted report of sexual assault allegation

A 
Law enforcement
The commanders and first sergeants of the victim and the alleged assailant
Legal personnel
SARC
VA assigned to the victim
Health care providers
245
Q

What steps must a commander take immediately when notified of a sexual assault through unrestricted reporting

A

Ensure the victims physical safety, emotional security and medical treatment needs are met
The OSI or appropriate criminal investigative agency, SARC are notified
The victim or alleged assailant is temporarily reassigned or relocated if appropriate

246
Q

If you consult the SARC about a sexual assault, then elect not to report , must the SARC inform investigators or commanders about the report

A

No

247
Q

A sexual assault investigation may uncover evidence that the victim engaged in misconduct. Name several examples

A

Underage drinking or other related alcohol offenses
Adultery
Drug abuse
Fraternization
other violations of instructions, regulations or orders

248
Q

If an investigation of sexual assault uncovers evidence that the victim engaged in misconduct, commanders must balance accountability for misconduct against what two things

A

Avoid unnecessary additional trauma to the victim

Encourage reports of sexual assault

249
Q

Deploying members receive training on sexual assault issues before departing T/F

A

True

250
Q

The AF only identifies trained military SARC for AEF rotational support for global contingency operations, consistent with requirements established by a commander, Air Force Forces T/F

A

False

251
Q

Normally each AEW warrants at least one SARC requirement. What are the requirements for deployments smaller than an AEF

A

Deployed commanders must provide a sexual assault response capability consistent with AF requirements

252
Q

Home station unit commanders must ensure that AF members, prior to deployment are trained on annual and pre deployment sexual assault and response training requirements T/F

A

True

PDG 2017 E-8-2s (19 decks)

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