Chapter 13 Flashcards

1
Q

What must leaders cultivate in every stage of team development

A

A healthy team spirit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the five critical attributes present in all healthy teams

A

Trust, ethical behavior sharing information, critical judgment and cooperation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What attribute is the core of all healthy team interactions

A

Trust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Trust gives teams the freedom to communicate openly, honesty and directly within the group T/F

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How might AMN respond to team members that they do not trust

A

By alienating them ,ignoring their input and withholding vital information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Trust is vital when sharing and accepting ____ I n a team

A

Information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Leaders can promote a tasting atmosphere in a team by being trustworthy and by testing their workers. What else can a leader do to promote trust

A

Value individual differences and encourage open and honest communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Unethical behavior enhances team spirit T/F

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In a tema, ethical behaviors conform to your professions accepted principles of right and wrong. What does this include

A

Honestly, integrity, and concern for doing what is right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What must teams potently share inside and outside the group in order to be successful

A

Information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How can you encourage positive, open and sincere commuicationamong team members while building a team

A

By actively listening and sharing information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A lack of sharing information within teams may cause confusion, frustration and the inability to complete

A

Taskings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How can a leader increase a teams success

A
  1. Giving complete access to all necessary data
  2. Discourgagin members from discounting ideas or feelings
  3. Encoriuaging active listen gin and vaping individual differences
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In a tema, teh willingness to accept and encourage constructive criticism increase self awareness. What else does it do

A

It improves tema effectiveness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What must teams do to examine their processes and prxctacies.

A

Accept tintragroup feedback and outside evaluations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do intragorup circitism and outside evaluations help build teams

A

By redirecting their focus and energy and quickly correcting problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Critical ____ consistently focuses the tema in the right direction

A

Judgment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cooperation creates _____ an faster results from a. at team

A

Synergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How do successful teams manage differences

A

through win/win negotiations and reaching decisions by consensus, not voting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What benefits are created through cooperation in a team

A

Shared ownership of team results and achieving objectives increases team pride and a healthy tema spirit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Competing within a team enhances cooperation T/F

A

Falise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How can team leaders reduce power play behavior

A

By reemphasizing the specific roles and respoinblitles of each team member

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Team members must be comfortable with and confident in one another T/F

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Why is it vital that leaders establish a health team spirite

A

To drive performance and develop effective teams to accomplish the mission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What system establishes priorities, chooses policies and acts to obtain the desired results and required resources at an acceptable cost

A

The Resource Management System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The Resource Mamangemnt System is not a single system. What does it involve

A
  1. Various systems that focus on outputs and resources used
  2. Managers effectively using resources
  3. Measuring actual versus planned performance
  4. Using financial plans and accounting to enhance management controls at each organizational level
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Resource Management System elements include the execution plan, management and account systems. Name three other elements

A

Participatory and committee management, resource management teams, and resource management training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

AF managers oversee activities that cost money, but what do Resource Management System duties refer to in terms resources

A

The stewardship of money, manpower and equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

HAF and MAJCOPMS make decision about using resources. What role do base level resource managers play in this process

A

They must effectively manage resources, bt do not control initial resource allocations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Financial management is inherent to command T/F

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Commanders actively review financial programs for each work center respoinbilty center that reports to them. How do they improve resource management

A

They inquire about program conditions, review causes, wight alternatives, direct actions and allocate sufficient resources to RMS training and resource management team efforts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Who provides sound financial management and adivce tot he commander and staff in RMS and promotes respoible and proper financial management to ensure the economical and effiencent use of resources

A

Comptrollers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What do responsibility center mangers do

A

Plan, direct and coordinate subordinate organizations actives
Analyze subordinate organiztional plans
Identify imbalances in resource distribution
Analyze alternative actions
Balance Programs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The cost center is the basic production flight or work center. What do cost center managers do

A

They regulate the consumption of work hours, supplies, equipment and services within their cost center and shift resources to or from various production tasks within the cost center to ensure the proper mix or provide emphasis where required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

RA are appointed in writing by the respoinbilty center manager. In RMS what resapibnlied do they have

A
  1. Monito and help prepare resource estimates
  2. Help develop obligations and expense fund targets
  3. Compare resource us in daily operations to projected conuspotion levels
  4. Serve as the primary POC on resource management matters of their responsibility center
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What board detainees RMS priorities and ensures effective resources allocation

A

The financial management board. They revel approve or disapprove recommendations made by the financial working group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What group composed of Line and Staff RA and responsibility center managers

A

The financial working group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The financial working group provides _____ guidance to base activities regarding their primary respoiinbity resources

A

Technical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What four roles do commanders, subordinates, supervisors and individuals play in supply discipline

A
  1. Accurately maintain property records to reflect current inventory and property conditions
  2. Ensure peronsll carefully and economically use and safeguard property
  3. Provide adequate security, protection and storage for poroperty
  4. Make recommendations for preventing FWA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A property _____ is any person designated by the Org commander or chief of staFF AGENCY RESPIBJLE FOR GOVENMENT PROPERTY IN HIS OR HER POSSESION

A

CUSTODIAN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

For what may property custodian she held liable

A

The loss ,d esgruciton or damage of any property or resources under their control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Who is responsible for the effiecnet and economical use of an organizations resources

A

All AF ccommanders and supervisors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

No AF resource are cost free T/F

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is everyones principal responsibility when dealing with resources that appear to be cost free assets

A

To ensure these resources are used in the most cost effective manner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which budget covers costs associated with the operation of all AF organizations

A

The operating Budget

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Abuse of the system , resource waste and acts of _____ costs the AF millions in dalliers and resources each year

A

Fraud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

_____ is intentional deception that unlawfully deprives the AF of something of value.

A

Fraud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

_____ is the extravagant, careless or needles expenditure of AF funds or consumption of AF property.

A

Waste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Should you consider wartime and emerbcuny operations when expelling possible waste in the AF

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Abuse is the _____ wrongful or improper us of AF resources

A

Intentionally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Preventing FWA is of minor concern to the AF T/F

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Who provides policy guidance, develops procedures and establishes and evaluates the AF complaints and FWA pgromas

A

The secretary of the AF , IG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

AF personnel have duty to promptly report FWA to whom

A

An appropriate supervisor or commander, an IG or other appropriate inspector, or through an established frievenace channel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which office investigates criminal allegation of FWA

A

OSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How may individuals submit FWA disclosures

A

By memorandum, in person or by FWA hotlines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

You must identify yourself when reporting gFWA T/F

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The information in FWA disclosure or complaint is privilege and confidential T/F

A

False (need to know basis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

When may FWA compliant information be disclosed

A
  1. When required by law or regulation
  2. When necessary to take adversary action against a subject
  3. With the approval of the SECAF/IG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Access to the FWA summary of results is limited in what ways

A

The nature of the allegation and findings deteirmen what information is releasable. Complaintants and witnesses have restricted access to IG records as provided by the FOIA and PA. Whistleblower witnesses have additional rights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Whistleblowers have no additional right in FWA summary T/F

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The AF follows a ____ based approach to envionromental management

A

Compliance based

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

operational needs and mission requirements are decent upon the availability of environmental resources T/F

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The AF and DoD establish and maintain an Envionromnetal Management System per EO _____ Strengthening Federal Envionomrnetal, Energy, and transportation Management

A

EO 13423

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Typically, installations meet environmental code of federal regulations promulgated by the ____ and implemented by the ____-

A

Environmental Protection Agency. States

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What four aspects of the EMS fall under the Plan Step

A
  1. Scope and environmental Policy
  2. Identify environmental aspects
  3. Legal and other regiments
  4. Objectives, targets and programs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Name seven aspects of the EMS that fall under the DO step

A
  1. EQ programming and budgeting
  2. Roles and responsibilities
  3. Internal external communications
  4. Docment and records management
  5. Emergency response
  6. Educations traingina nd awareness
  7. Operational controls
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What six aspects of the EMS fall under the Check step

A
  1. Compliance and conformance assessments
  2. Performance monitoring
  3. Natural infrastructure assessment
  4. Equipment calibration
  5. Corrective and preventive action
  6. Legal compliance tacking and reporting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Name the two aspects of the EMS that fall under the Act Step

A
  1. Environmental Safety and Occupational Health Council management review
  2. Continual improvement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What system integrates environmental impact analysis, operational risk management and prevention of solution mehtodies

A

AF environmental management system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Installations and Majcoms document aspects and impacts for the installations cities, products and services. How does the AF environmental management sytystem device an aspect

A

Aspects are elements of the activities, products and services that can interact with the einfomernmetn and produce either positive or negative enviornemtnal impacts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What process provides the resources necessary to achieve the goal and objectives of the AF strategic Plan, the organizational level, multi site or installation environmental management system and other major program objectives

A

The environmental programming and budgeting process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

When entering evnormnetal requirements into the AF approved programming tools software, what guidance must be followed

A

EI operations and maintenance programming guides, and supplemental budgeting policy and guidance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What must installations ensure adequate envornemtnal operational controls are in place

A

To control, mitigate or prevent negative environmental impacts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the types of envionrmntal operational controls

A

Physical, engineering, and administrative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What AFI gonverens the AF inspection program

A

AFI 90-201

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the ultimate objective of planning, programming, budgeting and execution process

A

Providing the best mix of forces, equipment and support attainable within fiscal constraints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The AF corporate structure implements the planning, programming, budgeting and execution process, increases ____ and enables senior leaderhisop to asses ____ methods of achieving PPBE objective

A

Management effusiveness; Alternative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Planning, programming, budgeting and execution is shared process within the AF, with significant responsibility delegated to whom

A
  1. Director of Programs, Deputy Chief of Staff for Plans and Programs (AF/A8P),
  2. Deputy Assistant Secretary for Budget, Office of the Assistant Secrtey of the AF for Finacial Management and Comnptroller
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

PPBE, the DoDs resource allocation system is an iterative process with what four interrelated and overlapping phases

A

Planning, Programming, budgeting and budget execution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The AF Translates top down guidance into meaningful plans and requirements to help develop _____

A

Future Years Defense Program (FYDP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

How does paling Programming, budgeting and execution planning anticipate changes an dudnderstand the long term implications of near term choices and decisions

A

By defining and examining alternative strategies and analyzing external conditions and trends

82
Q

How do streamlined planning and assessment documents help in the Planning Programming Budgeting and execution process

A

They prioritize objectives, assess strategies and provide the link between planning and programming

83
Q

PPBE palling provides a program objective to measure the programs ____ Success

A

Execution

84
Q

How do the AF and the military departments link planned requirements with the resources they need

A

Through PPBE programming process

85
Q

PPBE programming matches available resources against _____ requirements to achieve the strategic plan and submit program proposals

A

Validated

86
Q

When does th ePPBE budgeting phase occur

A

Concurrently with th programming phase

87
Q

During the PPBE process each DoD component ____ submits its proposed budget estimate and its program objective memorandupm

A

Simultaneously

88
Q

What three steps occur in the preparation of the Budget Estimate Submission of the PPBE process

A
  1. AF budget analysts identify where the program has put AF resources at risk of the Office of the Security of Defense or congressional reduction
  2. The comptroller applies the latest inflation figures, flying hour and manner rates
  3. The program is put into the OSD budget format and justification documeation is prepared
89
Q

Once the three steps in the Budgeting phase of the PPBE are complete the final position is called the ____ or Program Budget Reiview

A

Program Objective Memorandum Bdget Estimate Submission

90
Q

Who is the AF lead for PPBE budget and budget execution

A

Secretaty of the AF for financial Management and Comptroller

91
Q

What does PPBE Budget execution focus on

A

Running the AF day to day at Headquarters AF, Filed Operating Agency, MAJCOM, Wing and Unit levels

92
Q

During budget execution for he PPBE process, Congress prohibits flexibility whiten the operation budgets T/F

A

False

93
Q

One key part of PPBE budget execution is the MAJCOMs operations and Maintenance Operation Plan. When is the /af Program execution reviewed

A

During MAJCOM budget execution reviews held in February, April and July

94
Q

How do SNCOs contribute to the PPBE process

A

They help establish and forecast budgets to ensure sufficient funds are available to accomplish the mission

95
Q

Who has several responsibility and acocuntabilthy for the operation fo an AF isntallation

A

The installation commander

96
Q

Succesful Facility management releases heavily up the _____ organization

A

Using

97
Q

The unit CC reinstates primary and alternate facility managers for each facility assigned to the Org. What are the grade requirements for the positions

A

An Officer, E-5 or above, or a civilian equivalent

98
Q

Facility managers submit work requests utilizing established processes to whom

A

The base civil engineer customer service unit

99
Q

Emerby work is work that corrects an issue poing an immediate threat to what four things

A

Mission, life, safety or health

100
Q

Emebercny work must be iditnifed to the base civil engineer customer service unit by the quickest means possible T/F

A

True

101
Q

Facility managers submit and AF Form for all non emergency work

A

AF From 332

102
Q

Who is charged to provide, operate, maintain, restore and protect th built and natural infrastructure necessary to support the AF mission

A

The base civil engineer squadron

103
Q

What are the respoinsbilietes of the Base CE customer service unit

A
  1. Typically manages the installations facility manager program
  2. Provides initial and recurring training for facility manager
  3. Identifies the processes and procedures required fr submitting work requests
  4. Recives and reviews all incoming work request for validity
  5. Verifies scope
  6. Ensures the work request is coordinated with the appropriate agencies such as fire, safety and environmental.
104
Q

What is the difference between direct scheduled facility work and planned facility work

A

Direct scheduled work does not need detailed planning and can be sent directly to the required shop for execution. Plan work requires detailed planning, scheduling of multiple shops and lead time for material acquisition

105
Q

Is relocating a doorway and associated exit signs cdirect scheduled work or planned work

A

Planned work

106
Q

When facility work exceeds the scope orcapbility of the operations flight, who does the operations flight chief pass the request to

A

The base civil engineers engineering flight

107
Q

The real property inventory must be complete and put do ate with source documentation for audit perupsoses to support finical improvement and audit readiness T/F

A

True

108
Q

In facility management, ____ is the identification fo facility work to statist current and future mission reuiemtnes

A

Planning

109
Q

Name five methods the base civil engineer uses to identify facility requirements

A
  1. Annual space utilization surveys
  2. Biennial commanders facility assessments
  3. Envionronental compliance status assessments
  4. Asset management plans
  5. User or occupant identified requirements
110
Q

In faculty management. _______ is the process of acquiring the authority and resources necessary to accomplish planned facility work

A

Programming

111
Q

What is a key element of programming facility requirements

A

Proper work classifcation

112
Q

Work authorization, approval levels and fund sources vary with work ____ in facility management

A

Classification

113
Q

How is real property maintnece work xclassifeid

A

As maintenance, repair or construction

114
Q

Operaiotns and mangement (O and M) appropriation funded unspecified minor military consutrion projects may not exceed $750,000 in cost with what exception

A

Active component projects intended solely to correct a deficeicney that is life, health or safety treating (1.5 Milion is the limit)

115
Q

Whos prior approval and notification is required when facility projects are solely t correct a life, health or safety treating deficiency and cost more than 750,000

A

The assistant secretary of the AF, Installations, with congressional notification

116
Q

Who utilizes the real property inventory to make panning, programming, and budgeting decisions

A

AF leadership, The DoD and Congress

117
Q

What information does the audit trail formed from teh real property inventory reveal

A

When a facility was constructed as well as the cost for any alterations and improvements accomplished by miltary and minor construction

118
Q

A complete real property inventory consists of what three things for which the AF has real property approval documentation from the base civil engineer and be filed with the ____ ad directed

A

Real property Officer

119
Q

Who is the nations target energy consumer

A

The federal government

120
Q

By the end of FY15 the goal is to improve enegery efficiency through he reduction of facility enemy intensity by a Toal of _____ percent compared to energy use in FY03

A

30 Percent

121
Q

The greenhouse gases reduction goal aims to reduce emissions in absolute terms by FY _____ relative to a 2008 baseline

A

FY 20

122
Q

New construction and major renovation of facilities must comply with AF sustainable design and development policy and incorporate sustainable practices. What percentage of existing facility inventory must incorporate sustainable practices by the end fo FY15

A

15%

123
Q

All new construction and major faculty renovations must become ______ energy faciilteys by 2030

A

Net Zero

124
Q

Give several examples of agency acquired goods and services that incorporate the use of sustainable environmental practices

A

Biobased, environmentally preferred, energy efficient, water efficient and recycled content products

125
Q

Relative to FY05, petroleum consumption is to be reduce by _____% annually, and alternative fuel is to be increase by _____% annually though FY20

A

2%; 10%

126
Q

The energy policy act of 2005 requires that ____% of electrical consumption be generated by renewable recourses from FY10 through FY12 and ____ % thereafter

A

5%; 7.5%

127
Q

With respect fo proving energy management, each agency shall reduce the use of petroleum within its facilities. how may they accomplish the reduction

A

By switching to a less greenhouse gas intensive, neonpetromum engird source such as synoptic or renewable energy sources

128
Q

Electronic products procured must be at least 98% compliant with electronic product enviornemtnal assessment tool standards T/F

A

False bust be 95% copliant

129
Q

Relative to FY07, though life cycle cost effective measures, potable water consumption intensity must be reduced by ____% by the end of Calnder you 2020

A

26%

130
Q

Industrial, land ape and agricultural water consumption must be reduced by _____ percent annually or _____ percent by the end of FY20, relative to a baseline consumption inf FY10

A

2 Percent; 20 percent

131
Q

Compliance with energy management policy is assessed by measuring what two areas

A

Mobility Energy and facility energy

132
Q

How is the reduction of mobility energy assessed

A

By measuring actual petroleum consumption

133
Q

How is redcoat of faculty energy assessed

A

By measuring the consumption of electricityl,coal, natural gas, petroleum, water including all installation facitlies except privatized housing and facilities meeting Department of Energy exclusion requirements

134
Q

Research your topic to support your communication goals. What are the five approaches to effective research

A
  1. Review the purpose and scope of the overall project
  2. Assign a deadline for the research
  3. Ask the Boss
  4. Determine what you know about the topic
  5. Determine where to look for information
135
Q

Sometimes you may need to do preliminary research just to scope out the effort required for your communication goal T/F

A

True

136
Q

Why should you assign a deadline to finish your communication research

A

To ensure you don’t run out of time for the other steps

137
Q

To save some time, who should you ask for suggestions of where to start with a research project

A

Your supervisor

138
Q

They you should first look to your own knowledge about a research topic, what should you guard against while doing so

A

You own biases

139
Q

List some sources of information for your research project

A

Coworkers, base personnel, office files, printed references, computer network references, the internet and library

140
Q

Name six common types of evidence you’ll use to support your ideas when communicating

A

Definition, testimony, statistics, examples, facts, and explanations

141
Q

A ____ is the precise meaning or significance of a word or phrase

A

Definition

142
Q

In communication, what is considered testimony in support of your claim

A

The comments of recognized authorities including direct quotations or paraphrases

143
Q

What evidence provides as summary of data that allows your audience to better interpret quantitate information

A

Statistics

144
Q

How should you handle statistics when supporting your ideas

A

Keep them simple and essay to understand, round them off and document their exact source

145
Q

What is specific instance chosen to represent a larger fact, in order to clarify an abstract idea or support a claim

A

Example

146
Q

Good examples ore appropriate brief and interesting, and often presented in groups of ____ or ____ for impact

A

Two ro three

147
Q

A ____ is a noncontroversial piece of data that can be objectively verified

A

Fact

148
Q

Should you handle inferences as testimony or as fact

A

As testimony

149
Q

list the three styles of explanations used to support ideas

A

Analysis, comparison and contrast, and description

150
Q

Which type of explanation separates a whole into smaller pieces for further study, clarifying a complex issue by examining one piece at a time

A

Analysis

151
Q

In explanations, comparison dramatizes similarities between two objects or situations. What does contrast do

A

Emphasizes differences

152
Q

What type of explanation gives details, painting a picture with words

A

Description

153
Q

When you organize and outline your communication, select a ____ to help you and your readers move systematically and logically though your ideas

A

Pattern

154
Q

What factors influence your choice of pattern to organize and outline your communication

A

Your purpose, the needs of your audience and the nature of your material

155
Q

List the eight common organizational patterns of communication

A

Topical, compare or contrast, chronological, sequential, spatial or geographical, problem and solution, reasoning and logic, cause and effect

156
Q

Which organizational pattern of communication presents groups of ideas, objects or events by categories

A

Topical

157
Q

When would you use the compare and contrast pattern of organization for communication

A

To discuss similarities or differences

158
Q

You want to discuss events sequentially from past to present. Which organizational pattern should you use

A

Chronological

159
Q

The sequential pattern of organization is a step by step approach, similar to the chronological pattern. When would you use the sequential pattern

A

To describe a sequence of steps to complete a technical procure or process

160
Q

Which organizational pattern of communication starts at some point in space an proceeds in sequence to other points

A

Spatial or geographical

161
Q

Describe the problem and solution organizational pattern of communication

A

It identifies and describes a problem and possible solutions or an issue and possible techniques to resolve it

162
Q

Witch organizational pattern of communication states an opinion, then provides support for that position

A

Reasoning and logic

163
Q

You want to lead your audience down the path to your point of view on an issue. Which organization pattern of communication should you choose

A

Reason and logic

164
Q

The ____ and ____ organizational pattern of communication shows how one or more ideas, cautions or conditions lead to others

A

Cause and effect

165
Q

When writing a draft you should focus on grammar, punctuation, spelling and word choice

A

False

166
Q

How can you avoid losing focus when writing a draft

A

Periodically check your outline

167
Q

You should break your draft into what three part structure

A

Introduction, body , and conclusion

168
Q

What should the introduction to your draft do

A

Capture your audiences attention, establish rapport and announce your purpose

169
Q

A Drafts typical introduction has what tee components

A

Stage setting remarks, Purpose statement and overview

170
Q

Which of the three components of a drafts typical introduction is optional, especially in very short messages

A

Stage setting remarks

171
Q

If you could only keep one sentence in a drafts introduction which one would it be

A

The purpose statement

172
Q

The ____ in your introduction clearly presents your main points, previews your paragraph sequence and items your main points to your purpose

A

Overview

173
Q

The ___ of your draft includes your main ideas and supporting details for your message

A

Body

174
Q

Generally you should write a separate paragraph in the body of your message for each main idea T/F

A

Trued

175
Q

IN a well arranged communication, what part come last, summarizing the main points and leaving a sense of closure

A

The conclusion

176
Q

the conclusion of your draft should bring up new information to avoid repetition T/F

A

False

177
Q

Paragraphs group related ideas into single units of thought. What should each paragraph contain as its focal point

A

A topic sentence

178
Q

Prepare all AF correspondence suing plain language. Give examples of plane language

A

Using logical organization, common everyday words, pronouns such as you and others, the active voice and short sentences

179
Q

Internal transitions are used within a sentence to improve its flow. how are external transitions used

A

To link separate paragraphs together

180
Q

What are the three considerations when drafting sentences

A

Use the active voice, avoid smothered verbs, and us parallelism

181
Q

Does the active voice or the passive voice show the subject as the receiver of the action

A

Passive voice

182
Q

Keep verbs active, lively, specific, concise and out in front not hidden t/F

A

True

183
Q

____ construction uses a constant pattern when making a list and doesn’t mix things and actions, statements and questions, or active and passive voice

A

Parallel construction

184
Q

Even experience writers can have a hard time getting started T/F

A

True

185
Q

List five fears that lead to writers block

A

Failure, rejection, success, offending, nd running out of ideas

186
Q

Writing just the topic sentences for each paragraph is one way to overcome writings block. Name several others

A

Brainstorm or free write to get started, don’t procrastinate, don’t worry about constraints on the first draft, bounce ideas off a friend or coworker, us visuals to show meaning and develop rituals or routines to get in the mood to write

187
Q

To edit efficiently, read your document at least ____ time

A

Three

188
Q

What should you do on the first editing pass

A

Look at the big picture

189
Q

On the first editing pass, what should you ensure about the purpose statement

A

That it answers the original tasker and is contained in the introduction

190
Q

What should you ensure in each paragraph during the first editing pass

A

That they clearly relate to the purpose statement, contain all main points and are arranged in a consistent order

191
Q

What should you check on the second editing pass

A

paragraphs, structure and clarity

192
Q

What three areas should you focus on in each paragraph during the second editing pass

A

Unity of focus, topic sentences, and supporting ideas

193
Q

On the second editing pass, ensure each paragraph contains _____ main points

A

One

194
Q

A a paragraph should have one sentence that captures its central idea. What is this called

A

The topic sentence

195
Q

How many sentences should a paragraph contain in total

A

Three to seven

196
Q

What should you check on the third editing pass

A

Sentences, phrases and words

197
Q

Why should you read the paper out loud during the tried editing pass

A

Because you may catch more errors when you slow down and use to senses - seeing and hearing

198
Q

Fight for feedback and have a second person review your communication. Who should you choose to give feedback

A

Coworkers familiar with the issue and its jargon or an expert in an area of compunction

199
Q

If you are feedback review, you should be consistent, objective, sensitive to the stated purpose and stick to what the person what’s from your review. Should you mark every possible change to the the author

A

No, distinguish between necessary, desirable and unnecessary changes. Only give the author a sense of what really needs to be changed

200
Q

To give effective feedback you should concentrate on improving content, not writing style or personal preferences. Should you use general statements or pinpoint specific problems

A

Pinpoint specific problems

201
Q

List the four writing feedback philosophies

A

Describe rather than judge, Be both positive and negative,- consider strong and weak points, strive to be specific, and direct feedback at behavior the author can control

202
Q

As a supervisor providing feedback for a subordinate, you should be tactful and patient. Should you help inexperienced subordinates revise or rewrite their communications

A

yes, if necessary