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PDG 2017 E-8-2s > Chapter 19 > Flashcards

Chapter 19 Flashcards

1
Q

Why does OPSEC identify, analyze and control critical information indicating friendly actions, whether military operations or other activities

A

Identify actions that can be observed by adversary intelligence systems
Determine what indicators could be used to derive critical information useful to adversaries
Eliminate the vulnerabilities of friendly actions to adversary exploitation
Closely integrate and synchronize with other influence operations capabilities

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2
Q

_____ must be closely integrated and synchronized with other influence operations capabilities and all aspects of the protect operations

A

OPSEC

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3
Q

OPSEC is not a collection of specific rules and instructions applicable to every operation T/F

A

True

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4
Q

What is OPSEC purpose

A

To eliminate or reduce adversary collection and exploitation of critical information

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5
Q

OPSEC applies to all activities that prepare, sustain or employ forces during which phases of operations

A

All phases

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6
Q

Why should CC and other decision makers apply OPSEC analysis to the planning, preparation, execution and post execution phases of any operation or activity from the earliest stages of planning

A

To enhance operational effectiveness

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7
Q

OPSEC analysis helps decision makers weigh the ___ they will accept in specific operational circumstances

A

Risks

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8
Q

In what four situations are AF forces vulnerable to observation

A

At peacetime bases and locations
In training or exercises
While moving
When deployed during actual operations

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9
Q

Why is OPSEC incorporated into day to day operations

A

To ensure a seamless transition to contingency operations

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10
Q

What five distinct steps constitute the OPSEC process

A 
Identify Critical information
Analyze threats
Analyze vulnerabilities
Assess risk
Apply appropriate OPSEC measures
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11
Q

What five basic characteristics of OPSEC indicators make them potentially valuable to an adversary

A 
Signatures
Associations
Profiles
Contrasts
Exposure
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12
Q

Who is personally and individually responsible for protecting classified information and controlled unclassified Information under their custody and control

A

All personnel in the AF

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13
Q

Information is only classified to protect

A

National Security

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14
Q

What are the three levels of classified information

A

Top secret
Secret
Confidential

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15
Q

By what tow ways may information be classified

A

Original or derivative classification

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16
Q

Information classified as ___ can cause exceptionally grave damage to national security if it is disclosed

A

Top secret

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17
Q

Information classifieds as ____ can cause serious damage to national security if it is disclosed

A

Secret

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18
Q

Information classified as ___ can cause damage to national security if it is disclosed

A

Confidential

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19
Q

_____ classification is the initial decision by an original classification authority that an item of information could reasonably be expected to cause identifiable or describable damage to the national security subjected to unauthorized disclosure and requires protection in the interest of national security

A

Original Classification

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20
Q

Who may originally classify information

A

Only official who are designated in writing

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21
Q

The AF handles its classified information and Controlled Unclassified Information according to AF specific polices T/F

A

False

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22
Q

What documents provide guidance for managing classified information and controlled unclassified information

A

DoDM 5200.01 Volumes 1 and 4
DoDM 5200.01 Volumes 2 and 3
AFI 31-401

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23
Q

All cleared DoD personnel are authorized to derivatively classify information provided they have received initial training before making derivative classification decision and a refresher at least once every ___ years

A

Two

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24
Q

When is information derivatively classified

A

When it is incorporated, paraphrased, restated or generated in a new form or document

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25
Q

Photocopying, mechanically or electronically reproducing classified material is not derivative classification T/F

A

True

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26
Q

What is one of the most important respoiinsiblites of a derivative classifier

A

To observe and respect the classification determinations made by an original classification authority

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27
Q

How should all classified information be clearly identified

A

By marking, designation or electronic labeling

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28
Q

What are the purposes of marking on classified material

A

Alert holders to the presence of classified information
Identify the exact information needing protection
Indicate the assigned classification level
Provide any guidance on downgrading and declassification
Give information on the sources and reason for classification
Warn of special access, control or safeguarding requirements

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29
Q

Every classified document must be marked to show the ___ classification of information it contains

A

Highest

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30
Q

What are the three most common markings on a classified document

A

Banner lines
Portion marks
Classification authority block

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31
Q

Where are the banner lines placed on a classified document

A

at the top and bottom of the first page and if applicable on the front cover, title page and outside back cover or last page

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32
Q

What are the three most common portion marks unused on a classified document

A

TS - Top Secret
S Secret
C Confidential

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33
Q

Where is the classification authority block located on a classified document

A

On the face of each classified US document unless otherwise stated in DoDM 5200.01 Volumes 1-4

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34
Q

What are the two types of classification authority blocks for classified documents

A

Original classification and derivative classification

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35
Q

What lines appear in an original classification authority block on a classified document

A

Classified by
Reason
Downgrade to
Declassify on

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36
Q

What lines appear in a derivative classification authority block on a classified document

A

Classified by
Derived from
Downgrade to
D3eclassify on

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37
Q

What should you do if there is substantial evidence that a document has been classified erroneously

A

Submit challenges of classification to your security manager or the classifier of the information

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38
Q

Who is responsible for taking proper precautions to ensure that unauthorized persons do not gain access to classified information

A

Everyone who works with it

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39
Q

Classified information must be protected at all times by doing what

A

Storing it using approved means or having it under the personal observation and control of an authorized individual

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40
Q

What must a person have before gaining access to classified information

A

A security clearance
A signed Standard form 312
A need to know

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41
Q

Classified material must be kept under ___ surveillance by authorized persons cone removed from storage

A

Constant

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42
Q

What are the three forms used to cover classified information outside of storage

A

SF 703 - TS
SF 704 - S
SF 705 - C

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43
Q

What form is used to record end of day security checks of classified material

A

SF 701

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44
Q

What must you do if you find classified material out of proper control

A

Take custody of and safeguard the material

Immediately notify your commander, supervisor or security manager

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45
Q

What should you do if classified information appears in the public media or you are approached by a media representative

A

Be carful not to make any statement or comment that confirms its accuracy or verifies the information

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46
Q

What sanctions are DoD military and civilian personnel subject to if they knowingly, willfully or negligently disclose classified information to unauthorized persons

A

Sanctions include Warning, reprimand, suspension without pay, forfeiture of pay, removal, discharge, loss or denial of access to classified information , removal of classification authority, and actions taken under the UCM and under applicable criminal laws

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47
Q

Who is responsible for determining at origination whether the information may qualify for Controlled Unclassified Information status

A

The originator of a document

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48
Q

What is the most commonly used Controlled Unclassified Information Category

A

FOUO

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49
Q

FOUO is a ____ control applied by the DoD to unclassified information when disclosure to the public of that particular record, or portion thereof, would reasonably be expected to cause foreseeable harm to an interest protected by one or more the freedom of information Act exception 2 through 9

A

Dissemination

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50
Q

When may a person access information designated as FOUO

A

If he or she has a valid need for access in connection with the accomplishment of a lawful and authorized government purpose

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51
Q

With whom rests the final reasonability for determining whether an individual has a valid need for access to information designated for official us Only status

A

The individual who has authorized possession , knowledge or control of the information

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52
Q

During work hours, how should For official Use information be stored

A

Reasonable steps shall be taken to minimize the risk of access by authorized person

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53
Q

If a building is provided security by government or government contract personnel, where should for official Use only Info be stored after working hours

A

Unlocked containers, desks or cabinets

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54
Q

What program determines the reliability, trustworthiness, good conduct and character of individuals before they have access to classified information or are assigned to sensitive duties

A

The personnel Security Program

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55
Q

Once you receive a security clearance, are you subject to continual assessment of trustworthiness

A

Yes

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56
Q

Who grants denies and revokes security clearance eligibility

A

The DoD Central Adjudication Faculty

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57
Q

Personnel security clearances are recorded within what system

A

The Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS)

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58
Q

What is the AF policy on industrial security

A

To specify in its classified contracts government information and sensitive resources that must be protected against compromise or loss while entrusted to industry

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59
Q

Which AFI assigns functional responsibilities and establishes a system of review that identifies outdated inappropriate and unnecessary contractual security requirements

A

AFI 31-601

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60
Q

To whom do the industrial security policies, requirements and procedures identified in AFI 31-601 apply

A

AF personnel and on base DoD contractors performing services under the terms of a properly executed contract and associated security agreement or similar document, as determined appropriate by the installation commander

61
Q

What does the AF integrated Defense Program use to mitigate potential risks and defeat adversary threats within the Base Boundary and Base Security Zone

A

Multidisciplinary active, passive, offensive and defensive capabilities

62
Q

Why is it critical to integrate the AF integrated Defense Program with other AF capabilities

A

To achieve synergistic effects using an all hazards approach

63
Q

Name eight threats and hazards that the AF integrated Defense program protects against

A 
Terrorist Insiders
Criminals
Foreign Intelligence and Security Services
Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear and high Yield Explosive attacks
Natural and man made disasters
Major accidents
Releases of hazardous materials
Toxic Industrial materials or chemicals
64
Q

Integrated Defense is a fundamental battle competency T/F

A

True

65
Q

The teaming of Integrated Defense forces creates a united, seamless defense stronger than the defensive efforts of individuals or individual units. What does this ensure

A

That all AMN are trained to defend themselves and integrate into defense operations while in garrison or deployed

66
Q

Describe the four step process installation commanders use to implement integrated defense operations

A

Determine and prioritize installation assets
Analyze threats and the operating environment
Assess installation vulnerabilities
Make prudent ID decisions base on risk estimates

67
Q

Why is the Integrated Defense Risk Management Process (IDRMP) critical

A

It allows the Installation commander to make the best use of limited resources and personnel to achieve the integrated Defines mission

68
Q

The goal of Integrated Defense is to ____ security threats throughout the base boundary to ensure unhindered AF operations

A

Neutralize

69
Q

through integrated defense, commanders must minimize mission degradation from threat activity within the base boundary. what else must they do

A

Coordinate necessary security operations support within the Base Security Zone
Minimize injury and loss of life from threat activity
Protect government property and personnel

70
Q

Who’s coordinated effort is required to provide a seamless progression of protection programs to protect and defend an Air Base

A

Emergency Management, Antiterrorism and other mission support function forces under the force protection umbrella

71
Q

The Base boundary is not necessarily the base perimeter. Upon what factors is the BB established

A

Mission, Enemy, Terrain and weather, troops and support available time available, Civil considerations

72
Q

While the Base boundary may not necessarily coincide with the fenced perimeter, property lines or legal boundaries the Defense Force commander will strictly adhere to legal, jurisdictional and host nation constraints, Commanders intent and higher echelon orders and directives when conducting operations T/F

A

True

73
Q

What AF specific concept and term is used to describe the area of concern around an Air Base and to support the establishment and adjustment of the Base Boundary

A

Base Security Zone

74
Q

The base security Zone is the area outside the base perimeter from which a threat can launch an attack using ____ threats against personnel, resources or air craft approaching departing

A

Standoff Threats

75
Q

The installation commander should identify the Base Security zone. With whom should they coordinate via the operational chain of command for the BSZ to be identified as the base boundary

A

Local, state and federal agencies in the CONUS or host nation or area commander OCONUS

76
Q

What is the installation commander reasonable for if the base Boundary does not include all the base security Zone Terrain

A

Mitigating through local, state and federal agencies in the Conus or host nation or area commander Oconus, or accepting the risks of enemy attack

77
Q

what will vary in the Integrate Defense continuum from peacetime to wartime, regardless of the location of our installations

A

Threats

78
Q

That base se4curity zone and the base boundary are always the same T/F

A

False

79
Q

Who should coordinate with local, state and federal agencies in the CONUS or host nation or area commander OCONOUS to conduct base defense tasks in the terrain outside the Base Boundary, but within the Base Security Zone

A

The Def3ense force commander (DFC)

80
Q

If forces/agencies are not available to coordinate base defense tasks within the Base Security Zone, who would the Defense Force commander coordinate with

A

The appropriate area commander via their operational chain of command

81
Q

Who should exercise TACON over defense forces operating outside the base boundary

A

The appropriate Area of Operations Commander

82
Q

Joint and coalition forces entering the Base Boundary should inform the Area of Operations commander before entering, and monitor the base defense Operations Center communication net while operating in the area T/F

A

False

83
Q

The Base Defense Operations Center is the command and control center for ____ operations during routine and emergency operations

A

Integrated Defense Operations

84
Q

At all location, home station and deployed the ___ performs the functions of central security control, law enforcement desk or other security forces control centers

A

Base Defense Operations Center (BDOC)

85
Q

What are the nine desired effects of integrated defense

A 
Anticipate
Deter
Detect
Assess
Warn
Defeat
Delay 
Defend 
Recover
86
Q

How do commanders achieve the Integrated Defense effect of anticipation

A

Through intelligence analysis

87
Q

_____ is an integrated Defense effect achieved through professionally and persistently executing security Tactics, Techniques and procedures

A

Deter

88
Q

Commanders achieve the Integrated Defense effect of detect using a variety of ___ processes and observation technologies

A

Screening

89
Q

To achieve the integrated Defense effect of assess, commanders ensure all AF personnel are cognizant, ready and aware, and understand threat tactics, techniques and procedures T/F

A

True

90
Q

How do commanders achieve the Integrated Defense effect of warn

A

Through standardized, reliable communications among and between units and personnel

91
Q

Commanders achieve the integrated defense effect of ___ by applying a multitude of relevant force applications to the threat

A

Defeat

92
Q

____ is an integrated Defense effect achieved by deliberately layering defensive applications to progressively weaken or hinder the enemy’s efforts

A

Delay

93
Q

How do commanders achieve the integrated Defense effect of defend

A

Through the coordinated and synchronized for application of all Airmen’s untied efforts against the enemy

94
Q

_____ is an integrated defense effect achieve suing prudent logistics and consequence management planning

A

Recover

95
Q

the nine integrated Defense effects utilize innovative and reliable tactics, techniques and procedures based on what

A

Integrated Defense Risk Management Process and analysis

96
Q

the ___ is an action group in which the security forces staff S-2 function coordinates with SME from the intelligence and OSI communities to collaborate and conduct intelligence Preparation of the Operational Environment

A

Intelligence Fusion Cell

97
Q

What is the goal of the Intelligence Fusion Cell

A

To leverage information and intelligence to support timely identification of indicators and warnings of emerging localize threats

98
Q

Who does the Intelligence Fusion Cell and its products directly support in making immediate, proactive decisions for integrated dense planning by providing information

A

The Defense force commander (DFC)

99
Q

In relation to integrated Defense desired effects it is preferred to ____ a threat, but if that doesn’t succeed the next ideal effect would be to ___ the threat

A

Deter, Detect

100
Q

Immediate retaliation by forces occurs when a threat has been detected T/F

A

False

101
Q

What actions do friendly forces take when a threat cant be eliminated or defeated

A

The threat must be delayed

102
Q

Defensive measures must be taken to mitigate the effects of the threat if unable to delay. ___ actions are then implemented to consolidate and reorganize friendly forces and restore operations

A

Recovery Actions

103
Q

Intelligence preparation of the Operation Environment (IPOE) is an analytical mythology that provides predictive intelligence to warfighters fro what purpose

A

Planning and executing operations

104
Q

Intelligence Preparation of the Operational Environment (IPOE) supports operational decisions by providing analyzed information regarding a threat and environment, achieving the Integrated Defense desired effect of ____

A

Anticipate

105
Q

Intelligence Preparation of the Operational environment enables the commander to visuals the spectrum of friendly and adversarial capabilities, weaknesses and what else

A

How they are affected by environmental factors and the logical predictions of the most likely and most dangerous Enemy Course of Action (ECOA)

106
Q

What re the four continuous parts of the Intelligence Preparation of the operation Environment process

A

Define the operating environment
Describe the operating environments effects
Evaluate the enemy
Determine Enemy course of Action

107
Q

The first part in the intelligent preparation of the Operational Environment process is comprised of comprehensive lists, dispositions and capabilities of forces that contribute to installation security and are available during enemy surges. What else does it consist of

A

Background data on the operating environment, including history, demographics, socioeconomic data, religious groups, terrain, weather, etc..

108
Q

What should be included in Part 1 of the Intelligence preparation of the operational environment process for later consideration during war gaming conduct in IPOE part 4

A

Incident and emergency response plans

109
Q

In part 2 of the Intelligence Preparation of the Operational Environment process, the collected data is analyzed and the factors affecting operations, equipment and personnel are described. Use color coded ___ charts when possible

A

Stoplight charts

110
Q

Historical data, existing intelligence analyses and other reports about adversaries operating in the geographic area of concern are collected ruin part 3 of the intelligence preparation of the Operation environment process. What must be considered about each specific group or adversary

A

Their capabilities and weaknesses without assuming that all enemy forces collaborate and the effects of the operating environment

111
Q

In part 4 of the Intelligence Preparation of the operational environment process, establish a prediction of the most likely and most dangerous ECOA and then establish COA through a process of wargameing

A

Friendly

112
Q

To whom does the Integrated Defense Risk Management Process provide the ability to produce effects based Integrated Defense Plans by using a standardized model to identify risks and develop risk management strategies

A

Installation Commanders, integrated Defense Working Groups, defense force commanders and defense planners

113
Q

The integrated Defense Risk management process identifies at risk assets and aids the ___ in generating the critically assessment and the risk assessment products

A

Integrated Defense Working Groups

114
Q

What is an Integrated Defense Risk Management Process risk reduction decisions based upon

A

A clear understanding of what is important, the estimated threat and how the asset might be damaged or destroyed

115
Q

The integrated Defense Risk Management Process analyzes an installations defense capabilities and provides options to mitigate security risks. What are some 3exmaples of these options

A

Additional Tactics, Techniques and procedures, facility hardening and technology insertion

116
Q

What are the four main integrated defense risk management process components influenced by the evolving situation monitored through the intelligence preparation of the operational environment cycle

A

Risk Assessment
Risk Tolerance decision
Course of Action determination
Decision and implementation

117
Q

The four components of the Integrated Defense Risk Management Process are performed in seven steps . name them.

A
  1. Develop the critically assessment
    2 & 3. Develop the Threat Assessment and Vulnerability Assessment
  2. Develop the Risk assessment
  3. Risk tolerance Decision
  4. Present Countermeasure courses of action
  5. Decision and Implementation
118
Q

What is accomplished in step 1 of the Integrated Defenses Risk Management Process (IDRMP)

A

The critically Assessment identifies assets worthy of protection whose loss or damage would have a negative impact on the mission

119
Q

What types of criteria are fundamental to the evaluation in Step 1 of the Integrated Defense Risk Management Process

A

Mission criticality, impact on national defense, irreplaceability, monetary value and relative or intrinsic value

120
Q

During which step of the Integrated Defense Risk Management Process are threat assessments and Vulnerability assessments developed

A

Steps 2 and 3

121
Q

Information is required about the operational capability, intentions, activity, operating environment and history to know if adversaries pose a threat. What are some examples of adversaries and their tactics

A

Hackers, terrorist, criminal and protesters

122
Q

_____ are weaknesses that can be exploited by an adversary because of inadequate security, lax or complacent personnel trends, vulnerable software or hardware and insufficient security polices or procedures

A

Vulnerabilities

123
Q

Identification and evaluation of existing threats and vulnerabilities may be supplemented with other documents, such as AT vulnerability assessment. When are these threats identified

A

During Parts 1 through 3 of the Intelligence Preparation of the operational Environment process

124
Q

During which step of the Integrated Defense Risk Management Process is the Risk assessment developed

A

Step 4

125
Q

What equation issued to determine quantitative measurement of risk in step 4 of the integrated Defense Risk Management Process

A

Risk = Asset critically multiplied by

126
Q

If Information required to assess risks is defined in Step 5 of the Integrated Defense Risk Management Process what should be developed or modified to guide the intelligence community’s collection efforts

A

A command critical intelligence requirement

127
Q

In todays resource constrained environment, some risks must be accepted T/F

A

True

128
Q

Why are some risks intolerable during Step 5 of the Integrated Defense Risk Management Process

A

Due to their frequency or severity of consequences

129
Q

In step 5 of the Integrated Defense Risk Management Process, the installation commanders intent for ____ will define the level of tolerance

A

Integrated Defense

130
Q

During which step of the Integrated Def3ensee Risk management process will the integrated defense Working Groups develop countermeasure Courses of Action to remove or mitigate vulnerabilities and reduce unacceptable risks

A

Step 6

131
Q

An estimate of risk deduction can be prepared, alone with showing the costs associated with ____ implementation during step 6 of the Integrated Defense Risk Management Process

A

Course of Action Implementation

132
Q

What is the most important step in the integrated defense risk management process

A

Step 7 - Decision and Implementation

133
Q

What will the installation commander do during step 7 of the Integrated Defense Risk management process

A

they will select the course of Action that will reduce risks to tolerable levels and direct resources to implement the decision

134
Q

What is closely tied with Step 7 in the Integrated Defense Risk Management Process

A

Continuous Assessment

135
Q

What can decision makers do during step 7 of the Integrated Defense Risk management process by immediately identifying changes to their installations critical assets threats and vulnerabilities

A

Continually refine the installations risk posture

136
Q

Integrated defense provides flexible planning and execution opportunities that allow owners or users of Protection Level 1, Protection Level 2, protection Level 3 and protection level 4 assets to become actively involved in what

A

The defense of their areas

137
Q

The integrated defense risk management process provides a more precise understanding of how the three risk factors of threat, vulnerability and asset critically relate to each other. Why should commander understand these relationships

A

It will assist in mitigating, accepting and reducing risks

138
Q

Operationalize ____ to maintain optimal situational awareness through the base boundary and base security zone by developing a robust intelligence information collaboration, analysis and fusion capability

A

Force Protection Intelligence

139
Q

What protection level is assigned to resources who’s los, theft, destruction, misuse or compromise would result in great harm to US strategic capability

A

PL 1

140
Q

Give examples of PL 1 resources

A

Nuclear weapons in storage, mated to a delivery system or in transit, designated Command control and communication facilities, Aircraft designated to transport the President of the US

141
Q

Which protection level provides maximum means to detect, intercept and defeat a hostel force before it is able to seize, damage or destroy resources

A

PL1

142
Q

Which protection level is assigned to resources whose loss, theft, destruction, misuse or compromise would cause significant harm to US war fighting capability

A

PL 2

143
Q

Give examples of PL2 Resources

A

Nonnuclear alert forces, designated space and launch systems, expensive, few in number or one of a kind systems or facilities, and intelligence gather systems

144
Q

What protection level is assigned to resources who’s loss, theft, destruction, misuse or compromise would damage US war fighting capability

A

PL3

145
Q

Give examples of PL3 resources

A

Non alert resources that can be generated to alert status such as F-16 , selected Command, Control and communications facilities, systems and equipment and non launch critical or non unique space launch system

146
Q

Which protection level is assigned to resources that do not meet the definitions of the other levels

A

PL 4

147
Q

Give examples of PL4 resources

A

Facilities storing Cat I, II, or III sensitive conventional A A and E, fuels and liquid oxygen storage areas and AF accounting and finance vault areas

148
Q

How are PL 4 resources secured

A

By containing them in controlled areas patrolled by armed security forces

149
Q

Who is responsible for providing physical protection for PL 4 resources

A

Unit commanders

PDG 2017 E-8-2s (19 decks)

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