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PDG 2017 E-8-2s > Chapter 15 > Flashcards

Chapter 15 Flashcards

1
Q

What compromises a large portion of the AF budget

A

Manpower

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2
Q

All missions and programs compete for limited authorized military and civilian end strengths, established grade distributions, and must comply with other guidelines as directed by ____

A

congress

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3
Q

What are the programming requirements for manpower

A
  1. In accordance with validated manpower requirements
  2. Within fiscal limits
  3. Within acceptable risk
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4
Q

Who allocates programmed manpower resources to the commands directing implementation of approved programs

A

The directorate of manpower, organization and resources, program development division

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5
Q

Who serves as liaison between installation agencies and the MAJCOM A1M staff for manpower and organization issues

A

The installation Manpower and Organization Section

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6
Q

Who validates and approves command specific military and civilian manpower requirements before they can be used in the programming and resourcing process

A

MAJCOM A1M validates and headquarters US AF/A1M approves

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7
Q

Before manpower allocations can be changed, the requesting organization must give reasons for the requested change. What must the MAJCOM propose if the initiative requires and increase in military or civilian manpower

A

Specific tradeoffs

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8
Q

Is end strength programmed to accommodate cyclical and temporary requirements

A

No

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9
Q

How do manpower and organization section personnel help AF commanders and functional managers objectively quantify manpower requirements to distribute manpower resources

A
  1. Developing peacetime manpower standards
  2. Wartime manpower requirements
  3. Commercial services management actions
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10
Q

What does the AF manpower requirements determinations process systematically identify

A

The minimum essential manpower required for the most effective and econ9omical accomplishment of approved missions and functions within organizational and resource constraints

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11
Q

HQUSAF functional managers work with HA USAF/A1M to determine the appropriate manpower management tool conceit with what three things

A
  1. Resources needed to develop the manpower standard
  2. Required mix of military, civilian and or contract services
  3. Required military category and grade
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12
Q

Determining the correct amount of manpower to meet the AF most stringent wartime mission is key to achieving the national Military _____ and the defense planning guidance

A

Strategy

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13
Q

The defense planning guidance defines the planning scenarios used to size and shape the total force T/F

A

True

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14
Q

The AF must be organized to best use available resource. what does this require

A

Simple, streamlined structures designed for seamless transition from peace to war

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15
Q

The principal characteristic desired in AF organizations include what

A 
Mission orientation
unambiguous command
decentralization
agility
flexibility
simplicity
standardization
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16
Q

What are manpower standards established

A

To ensure work center operations are efficient and standardized to create the most efficient organization

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17
Q

in an organization, what is the ultimate goal of organizational performance

A

mission accomplishment

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18
Q

What should resource requirements reflected in a manpower standard be based on

A

An organization and process design which most effectively and effi3ently accomplishes the mission

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19
Q

To be effective, organizational change effort must include redesign and or coordination on what five interrelated forms

A 
Organization and People
technology
policies, legislation, and regulations
physical infrastructure
process
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20
Q

in performance improvement, where does the organization and people front focus as processes are redesigned or other changes are made

A

On the worker who must be
enabled with appropriate knowledge , skills, experiences and tools
empowered to learn and act
rewarded based on the recognitions values and measures

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21
Q

What does the technology front of performance improvement allow

A

compression of cycles, lead time and distance, broader access to information and knowledge assets, and elimination of barriers between customers and supplier

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22
Q

In performance improvement, the policies, legislation and _____ front makes the changes required for new processes

A

Regulations

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23
Q

In performance improvement, which front supports and maximizes changes in workflow, information technology and human resources by designing appropriate facilities, equipment and tools

A

The physical infrastructure front

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24
Q

In performance improvement, the ____ front redesigns work and information flow using standard continuous process improvement methodologies

A

Process front

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25
Q

What does the Organization and people front of performance improvement include

A

Reducing the number of distinct departments or groups
Organizing into teams and developing multi skilled workers
providing appropriate incentives for employees
empowering individuals and measuring performance in relation to the process

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26
Q

What does the Technology font of performance improvement include

A

Improving quality and timeliness of information
Streamlining process flow
empowering knowledgeable workers
enabling new geographic arrangements of work tasks
facilitating communication with customers and suppliers

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27
Q

What does the Policies, legislation and regulations front of performance improvement include

A

Changing policies to accommodate new technology and skills
using information to influence regulations and legislation
altering rules that govern relationships with other entities

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28
Q

What does the physical infrastructure front of performance improvement include

A

Modifying physical facilities to facilitate material movements
matching equipment capabilities to changes in workflow
improving tools and work areas to fit skills and responsibilities

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29
Q

What does the process front of performance improvement include

A

Eliminating bottlenecks
moving work in a continuous flow
Organizing work in parallel
moving activities closer to the customer

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30
Q

The ____ is the primary document that reflects the manpower required to accomplish the units mission

A

Unit Manpower Document (UMD)

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31
Q

What are seven of the data elements on the UMD that identify the unique attributes of a position

A 
Position number
AFSC
Functional Account Code
Office Symbols code
Grade 
Personnel accounting symbol 
Reason Code
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32
Q

Why should supervisors routinely check the UMD

A

For accuracy and to track their authorized manpower strength

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33
Q

The HQ US AF/A1M and the AF personnel center, directorate of manpower produce reports based on UMD data T/F

A

True

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34
Q

The enlisted promotion system provides a visible, relatively stable career progression opportunity over the long term. Name two additional objectives

A

Attracting, retaining and motivating to career service the kinds and numbers of people needed form military service.
Ensuring a reasonably uniform application of equal pay for equal work among the military services

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35
Q

Promotion quotas for the top five enlisted grades are tied to FY end strength and are affected by what three factors

A

Funding limits
regulatory limits
the number of projected vacancies in specific grades

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36
Q

Public law limits the daily average of Regular AF SMSgt and CMSgt positions during fiscal year to what percent of enlisted members on active duty

A

2.5 and 1.25 percent respectively

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37
Q

Why does the AF establish promotion cycles

A

To ensure timely periodic promotions and more accurate forecasting of vacancies

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38
Q

What four requirements form the basis for promotion eligibility

A

Proper skill level
sufficient time in grad
sufficient time in service
the immediate commanders recommendation

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39
Q

What are the TIS requirements for promotion to SR - CMSgt

A 
SrA - 36 Months
SSgt - 3 years
TSgt - 5 years
MSgt - 8 years
SMSgt - 11 years
CMSgt - 14 years
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40
Q

TIG requirements for promotion to SSgt-CMSgt

A 
SSgt - 6 Months 
TSgt - 23 Months
MSgt - 24 Months
SMSgt - 20 Months
CMSgt - 21 Months
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41
Q

What are the PECD for promotion from SSgt through CMSgt

A 
SSgt - 31 March
TSgt - 31 January
MSgt - 30 Nov
SMSgt - 30 Sep
CMSgt - 31 Jul
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42
Q

When is the promotion test cycle for SSgt, TSgt, and MSgt

A

SSgt - May and Jun

TSgt/MSgt - February and March

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43
Q

When are the promotion cycle for SMSgt and CMSgt

A

SMSgt - December

CMSgt - September

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44
Q

Name several reason why AMN may be considered ineligible for promotion

A

Approved retirement, declination for extension or reenlistment, court martial conviction, control roster action , not recommended by CC, failure to appear for scheduling testing without a valid reason, absent without leave, etc…

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45
Q

When individuals are ineligible for promti9on they cannot test or be considered if already tested. What happens to the projected promotion ,if already selected

A

It will be cancelled

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46
Q

The Promotion Sequence Numbers that AFPC assigns to AMN selected for promotion to SSgt-CMSgt are based on what

A

DOR, TAFMS, DOB,

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47
Q

Amn who accept a promotion are eligible for ____ and selective retraining in the projected grade

A

Reassignment

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48
Q

Why do members selected for promotion to MSgt and SMSgt with more then 18 years of TAFMS have to sign an ADSC or statement of understanding within 10 workdays after promotion selections are confirmed

A

To acknowledge that they must obtain two years of service retain ability from the effective date of promotion and incur a 2 year ADSC from the effective date of promotion to quality for no disability retirement

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49
Q

how much must a CMSgt Selects commit for

A

3 years

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50
Q

How and when amy AMN decline a promotion

A

In writing, any time prior to the effective date

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51
Q

Unless granted an EPME waiver, AMN selected for promotion must complete in resident EPME before assuming the rank of ____

A

SSgt

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52
Q

To remain eligible for promotion, AMN pending promotion to ____ must complete Phase 3 SNCO academy on or before the promotion eligibility cutoff date

A

SMSGt

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53
Q

Amn who fail to enroll, complete or pass phase 2 and phase 3 EPME distance learning within what time frame are considered ineligible for promotion

A

within one year of enrollment

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54
Q

on what basis does the AF normally promote eligible AMN to amn and a1c

A

on a noncompetitive basis, recommended by their commander

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55
Q

an AB must have ____ months TIG to be eligible for promotion to Amn

A

Six months

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56
Q

what is the TIG requirement for an Amn to be eligible for promotion to A1C

A

10 months

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57
Q

A1C must met skill level requirement by the effective date of promotion for SrA and by the PECD for SSgt T/F

A

True

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58
Q

HYT policy applicable as the PECD may affect promotion eligiblity in grades SrA and above T/F

A

True

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59
Q

SSgt must have a 5 skill level as o PECD to compete for TSgt promotion and a 7 skill level before promotion T/F

A

True

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60
Q

For which ranks may commanders waive the minimum skill level requirement to allow them to compete for portion

A

MSgt and SMSgt

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61
Q

There are no promotion opportunities for amn demoted to SrA , SSggt or TSgt if they are past their HYT for that grade T/F

A

True

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62
Q

The CCAF degree required for promotion to SMSgt and CMSgt must be selected from an approved list of disciplines T/F

A

False (the degree can be in any discipline)

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63
Q

There are different phase points for individuals graduating from BMT as Amn or A1C that correspond with their earlier promotions T/F

A

True

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64
Q

When are individuals initially enlisting for a period of six years, promoted from AB or Amn to A1C

A

Upon completion of either technical training or 20 weeks of technical training, whichever occurs first

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65
Q

When does the AF promote A1C to SrA

A

When they have either r36 months TIS and 20 months TIG or 28 months of TIG whichever occurs first

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66
Q

If an A1C is promoted to SRA BTZ when is his or her portion effective date

A

Six months before his or her fully qualified date

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67
Q

Promotion to SSgt and TSGt occurs under one of two programs

A

WAPS or STEP

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68
Q

Identify the six waps factors

A 
SKT
PFE
TIS
TIG
Decorations
EPRS
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69
Q

The PFE and SKT scores account for 200 of the ____ points possible for promotion

A

541 Points

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70
Q

In the WAPS, who do you compete with for promotions

A

All Amn in your grade currently working in your AFSC

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71
Q

What happens when more than one individual has the same total score at the promotion cutoff point

A

the AF promotes everyone with that score

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72
Q

When and why was STEP program established

A

in 1980, to promote a limited number of Amn with exceptional potential to the grades of SSgt and TSGt

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73
Q

Each MAJCOM determines its own proceeds and STEP selection levels T/F

A

True`

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74
Q

An individual may not receive more then one promotion under any combination of promotion programs within a 12 month period with what exception

A

SrA must serve six months TIG before being promoted to SSgt

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75
Q

Should isolated acts or specific achievements be the sole basis for promotion under STEP

A

No

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76
Q

How are TIS points calculated for promotion to SSg-MSgt under the WAPS

A

1.33334 points for each year

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77
Q

How are the TIG points calculated under the Waps promotion

A

.3334 points for each month in current grade up tot 10 years (Max 40 points)

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78
Q

What is the maximum WAPS points for decorations and how is each decorations point value assigned

A

Maximum 25 points based on order of precedence

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79
Q

How many WAPS points are for MSM and AFCM

A

MSM - 5

AFCM - 3

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80
Q

Under WAPS, EPR scores for promotion are worth a maximum of ____ points

A

250 points

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81
Q

When three EPRs are available to calculate under WAPS, what time weighted factor is applied to each

A

50 percent for the most recent, 30 for next and 20 for last

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82
Q

What time weighted factor is applied when an Amn is in his or her first year of promotion

A

100% for epr

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83
Q

When an AMN is in their second year of eligibility, or has two eprs the weighted factor applied to each EPR is 50 T/F

A

False (60 - 40 respectively)

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84
Q

TO meet PFE/SKT minimum combined score of 90, AMN must have what individual minimum test scores

A

A minimum score of 40 on one and 50 on the other

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85
Q

When calculating the total weight EPR score under WAPS what are the five possible epr categories and the point values you will apply the weighted factor to

A 
Promote Now - 250
Must promote - 220
promote - 200
Not ready now - 150
do not promote - 50
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86
Q

Following completion of Phase I of the process for promotion to MSgt, what percentage of promotion eligibles by AFS C move on the Phase II

A

60 percent

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87
Q

What are the maximum points possible under Phase I and phase II waps evaluation for promotion to MSgt

A

Phase I - 541

Phase II - 741

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88
Q

How does Phase II of the promotion process to MSgt differ from Phase I

A

Phase II includes a Board and it replaces the EPRs

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89
Q

In phase II of the process for promotion to MSgt how is the board score of ran individual calculated

A

A record is scored by three panel members. The three scores are added together, resulting in a panel composite score. The panel composite score is multiplied by 15, resulting in a total BOARD SCORE

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90
Q

Describe the two phase process for promotion to SMSgt and CMSgt

A

Phase I is similar to the WAPS eval. Phase II is scored by AFPC using the whole person concept

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91
Q

The two phase promotion process for SMSgt and CMSgt has a maximum score of ____ points

A

631

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92
Q

Preparing for promotion testing is part of your enlisted professional development T/F

A

False (it is solely individual responsibility)

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93
Q

What disclosure rules apply to your WAOPS score notice

A

It should never be provided to or used by anyone other than yourself or your commander and cannot be disclosed without your written consent

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94
Q

An amn may choose to test for promotion early T/F

A

True

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95
Q

Obtain and review your ____ on VMPF to verify the information used in the promotion selection process

A

Data Verification Record

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96
Q

When would a supplemental promotion not be granted

A

if an error or omission appeared on the DVR and the individual took no corrective or follow up action before the promotion selection date

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97
Q

When is the Enlisted Promotion Reference and Requirements Catalog published

A

Late August each year

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98
Q

Who provides WAPS CDC for each member eligible for promotions

A

The AF Career Development Academy (AFCDA)

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99
Q

If you have not had access to required WAPS refernc3e material for at least ____ days prior to testing, you may request a delay in testing

A

60 days

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100
Q

How frequently is each promotion test revised

A

Annually

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101
Q

At the beginning of a test development project, why are the test sunder revision administered to the SMEs

A

To give test writers the test takers point of view and help them focus on evaluation how well the test content relates to performance in their specialties

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102
Q

What resources do SNCOs use to write the SKTs and tie test content to important tasks performed in their AF specialty

A

The CFETP, occupation analysis data and thie experiences

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103
Q

Which promotion test evaluates the practical military, supervisory and managerial knowledge required in the top two NCO grades

A

The USAFSE

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104
Q

What information do CMSgt sue to write the PFE and USAFSE tests

A

their experience and the MKTS chart

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105
Q

Why is every effort made to ensure test admin procedures for promotion test are standardized

A

to ensure fairness for everyone competing for promotion

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106
Q

Name three safe guards the AFPC uses to verify promotion test accuracy

A

All promotion tests are electronically scored
A percentage of answer sheets are hand scored
Answer sheets are physically reviewed

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107
Q

Group study to prepare for enlisted promotion testing is strictly prohibited T/F

A

True

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108
Q

Which article of the UCMJ is violated if you use group study to prepare for an enlisted promotion exam

A

Article 92

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109
Q

A conviction for enlisted promotion test compromise can result in what punishment

A

A dishonorable discharge, forfeiture of all pay and allowances, and confinement for up tot two years

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110
Q

Why is placing commercial enlisted promotion study guide software on government computers prohibited

A

Because it would imply AF sanction of the guides

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111
Q

When does AFPC conduct in system promotion consideration

A

as needed after initial promotion selection

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112
Q

Will supplemental promotion consideration be granted if an error or omission appeared on the DVR in the ARMS or SNCO selection record

A

Only if steps were taken tot correct prior to board

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113
Q

According to AFI 36-2623, why does the AETC Occupation Analysis program conduct occupational studies, develop survey instruments, analyze collected data and provide actionable AFS information

A

To equip senior leaders and managers of personnel and training programs with objective, fact based information about AF occupations and civilian occupational series

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114
Q

Occupational analysis helps provide an objective and factual orientation for what three tenets inherent to AFPD 36-26, total force development

A

Capabilities based training
personnel classification and utilization
promotion testing

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115
Q

How many of the eligible career field members in the targeted AFS or civilian occupation series receive the occupation survey

A

All of them

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116
Q

Amn in a career field being surveyed must devote the time and commitment to completing the occupation survey. How does the data collected impact training and testing

A

The data collected translates into operationally relevant training programs, and fair and reliable promotion tests in their career filed under the WAPS

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117
Q

What records should you review for accuracy to be promoted as a SNCO

A

Data verification Record and SNCO selection folder documents

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118
Q

Who should you contact immediately if there are errors in the DVR ARMS and PRDA

A

Your military personnel section

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119
Q

Who do SMSgts compete with for promotion

A

Other SMSGts in the CEM cod3e of CAFSC held as of the PECD

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120
Q

When competing for promotion individuals with a reporting identifier or special duty identifier, designated as their control AFSC on the PECD will compete within that reporting identifier or special duty identifier T/F

A

True

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121
Q

Who do MSgt Compete with for promotion

A

other MSgts in the Superintendent level of the CAFSC they held as of the PECD

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122
Q

When must academic education be completed to be considered in SNCO promotion criteria

A

on or before the PECD

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123
Q

How many academic education levels can be reflected on the SNCO evaluation brief

A

Up to Three

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124
Q

What actions take place once a completed academic education level is updated in the PDS

A

The promotion files is updated and a new DVR and evaluation brief are produced reflecting the change

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125
Q

A CCAF degree is awarded before the PECD, but the SNCO evaluation brief was completed within 10 days of the board convening date. What must the education services office do

A

Update the PDS and notify AFPC by message with an informational copy to the individuals MPS

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126
Q

What determines the content of selection folder’s and information on promotion evaluation briefs

A

The PECD

127
Q

The number of EPRs in the SNCO selection folder is limited to reports closed out 10 years before the PECD with a maximum of

A

15 EPRS

128
Q

What data is shown on the SNCO evaluation brief

A 
Name
SSN
Grade
DOR
AFS information
Service Dates
Academic education level
Decorations
Duty information 
Duty history
PME/CCAF completion
129
Q

The SNCO promotion evaluation board can account for more than ____ of your total score

A

Half

130
Q

How many members are on a promotion evaluation board panel and what are their ranks

A

Three, one colonel and two CMSgt

131
Q

The promotion evaluation board president is always a

A

General officer

132
Q

The information in your DVR is always the same as what is in the MilpDS T/F

A

False

133
Q

The promotion evaluation board considers what

A 
Performance
Education
Breadth of experience
Job responsibilities
Professional competence
Specific achievements 
Leadership
134
Q

Why are you responsible for your promotion

A

Because you have control over the information the board reviews

135
Q

If your a strong performer what should your EPRs convey to the board

A

That you have demonstrated the highest qualities required of a leader and manager

136
Q

What is the most important consideration when the promotion board evaluates your academic education as part o the whole person concept

A

How the education enhances your potential to serve in the higher ranks

137
Q

When examining your breadth of experience the promotion evaluation board considers what

A

Overall professional background, experience and knowledge
Practical experience and knowledge in areas outside your current AFSC
Range of exposure if you’ve had a single career field
Potential to fill other types of jobs
Supervisory and managerial experience

138
Q

Command level experience is a consideration when the promotion evaluation board looks at your job responsibilities but it isn’t the primary considerations What is

A

What you have been asked to accompli9sh and how well you have done it

139
Q

The promotion evaluation bard considers your professional ____ when reviewing the comments of your rating and endorsing officials on your expertise

A

Competence

140
Q

Specific achievements are often recognized by awards and decorations. Where else can the promotion evaluation board find significant accomplishments

A

Within the narrative comments on the EPRS

141
Q

What do promotion evaluation board members look for when assessing your potential to be a leader

A

Information about how well you manage, lead and interact with peers and subordinates as well as what rating officials say or don’t say about your leadership qualities and potential

142
Q

What exercise helps promotion board members establish a scoring standard they can consistently apply through the board process

A

using the whole person concept, they score two selected sets of records by secret ballot as a practice exercise

143
Q

Eligibles competing for promotion in a single CEM code or AFSC may be evaluated by different panels T/F

A

False

144
Q

Each promotion board panel member scores each record using a 6-10 point scale in half point increments. What is the composite score range

A

18 - 30

145
Q

What formula does the promotion board panel use to determine the total board score

A

They multiply the composite score by a factor of 15 (270 - 450)

146
Q

Each promotion board member receives records to score. what process ensures each panel member scored the records independently

A

After scoring the ballots, members give them directly to a recorder

147
Q

What constitutes a split vote when the promotion board scores a record

A

A difference of more then one point between any of the panel members

148
Q

How are split votes resolved in the promotion process

A

The record is returned to the panel for open discussion. Only the panel members directly involved in the split are allowed to change their scores. IF the panel cannot agree, the board president makes the decision

149
Q

Why can scores vary significantly between promotion board panels

A

Because the decision is so subjective

150
Q

Whether a promotion board panel scores easy or hard is insignificant why

A

Because all records within the CEM or AFSC are evaluated by the same panel using the same standard

151
Q

Name the factors that may significantly affect promotion board scores from year to year

A

New panel members with different though processes, previous promotion eligibles with changed or improved records, or a large pool of new eligibles

152
Q

What is the whole person promotion board concept designed to do

A

Align all promotion eligibles in relative order of merit within the CEM code or AFSC based on the quality of their individual SNCO evaluation records

153
Q

The exact rationale behind the promotion boards Not Fully Qualified decision is explained to the individual T/F

A

False

154
Q

List three examples of factors that may contribute to a NFQ decision by a promotion board

A

The board chooses to exercise its authority to prevent promotion by default if the CEM has few eligible
A record may be considered non competitive overall as compared to peers
A record may contain demonstrated substandard performance and disciplinary problems

155
Q

Explain how post board processing works

A

An electronic operation combines the board and weighted factors scores to build an order of merit listing by total scored within each CEM code or AFSC. The overall promotion quota is then applied to each list

156
Q

Who should you contact if you have questions regarding the MSgt SMSgt or CMSgt promotion selction process

A

Your MPS career development element

157
Q

What report shows you how well you fared in the promotion board process

A

The score notice

158
Q

Identify the five criteria for SMSgt and CMSgt promotions

A 
USAFSE
TIS
TIG
Decs
Board Score
159
Q

what is the maximum value for the USAFESE in SNCO promotions

A

100 points

160
Q

What is the maximum value for TIS in SNCO

A

16 points

161
Q

What is the maximum value for TIG points

A

40 points

162
Q

What is the maximum value for decorations and awards for SNCO

A

25 Points

163
Q

How do you compute the TIS points for SNCO promotions

A

.05334 point for each month up to 25 years

164
Q

How do you compute TIG points for SNCO

A

.3334 point for each month in grade up to 10 years

165
Q

What is the maximum value for the board score for SNCO promotions

A

450 points

166
Q

How is the promotion point value for decorations and awards assigned

A

Based on their order of precedence

167
Q

When calculating SNCO promotion scores, cut off the scores after the ____ decimal place

A

Second

168
Q

A minim USAFSE score of ____ is required to maintain promotion eligibility

A

45

169
Q

If you review your DVR and SNCO section folder carefully and take prompt action to correct any error, you will not have to worry about losing ____ promotion consideration

A

Supplemental

170
Q

Supplemental promotion consideration is not allowed for AMN needing more then the maximum board score of ____ points for selection

A

450 points

171
Q

Is supplemental promotion consideration authorized to add a PME course or delete a projected retirement date that was not valid when the board met

A

Yes

172
Q

Supplemental promotion consideration is authorized if the correction adds, removes or makes a significant change to an EPR T/F

A

True

173
Q

Is supplemental promotion consideration authorized if the correction shows an increased academic level, corrects an academic specialty or adds a decoration citation

A

Yes

174
Q

Supplemental promotion consideration is authorized for individuals with an approved extension of HYT date if they were ineligible for promotion consideration because of a HYT date T/F

A

True

175
Q

When should WAPS score notices be provided to or used by anyone other the individual and his or her commander

A

Never

176
Q

What is required in order to disclose and Airman’s WAPS score

A

The AMNS written consent

177
Q

How must commanders restrict their use of an AMNs WAPS score

A

They must restrict it to notification and advisory counseling on behalf of the AMN

178
Q

Where should promotion eligible AMN obtain and review their DVR

A

On the vMPF site

179
Q

To whom should promotion eligible AMN report errors in their data verification record

A

The MPS

180
Q

A promotion eligible AMN notices an error in the data verification record, reports it and receives an updated version. What must he or she do

A

Verify the updated information

181
Q

The ____ displays current and projected unit requirement and can be configured to display desired fields in various formats

A

UMD

182
Q

How often do unit commanders and supervisors request a UMD from the installation Manpower and Organization section

A

On an as needed basis

183
Q

With whom should work center supervisors coordinate UMD changes

A

Their unit manpower POC, who serves as liaison between the unit and Manpower and organization section

184
Q

What is a manpower requirement

A

A statement of the manpower needed to accomplish a job, workload, mission or program

185
Q

What are the two types of manpower requirements

A

Funded and unfunded

186
Q

What program ensures enlisted grades are equitably allocated and don’t exceed constraints

A

The enlisted Grades Allocation Program

187
Q

what can cause grade imbalances between what is required and what is funded.

A

Legislative and budgetary constraints on the allocated grades

188
Q

HQ USAF implements congressional and DoDD grade constraints by creating grade factors. What two factors are created and distributed

A

Overall command grad factors for each enlisted grade

Career Progression Group factors for each AFSC to the first three digits

189
Q

What ensures authorized grades do not exceed command ceiling constraints

A

Command Grade Factors

190
Q

The _____ factors ensure equitable allocation of grades within each AFSC in each command

A

Career Progression Group

191
Q

AFCFM can recommend command grade factors and Career Progression Group adjustments, with what constraints

A

They must maintain a zero balance of total grades allocated for each command

192
Q

Commands may engage in grade swaps via the AFCFM and respective functional area managers T/F

A

True

193
Q

A ____ is used when a unit needs to change an existing requirement on the UMD

A

Authorization Change Request

194
Q

Which office evaluates Authorization Change Request, enters them into the Manpower Programing and Execution System (MPES) and makes recommendations for approval or disapproval to the MAJCOM

A

The manpower and Organization Section

195
Q

Name the four actions that most frequently necessitate and Authorization Change Request

A

AFSC changes
Position realignments
Redistribution of funding from a funded to an unfunded requirement
Grade conversion

196
Q

UMD changes must be processed within resource constraints minus no noticed increase in resources, grades, et. what example does AFH 1 use to explain this process

A

If a unit wants to fund a potion that is currently unfunded, a funded position must be identified for conversion to unfunded and detailed rationale for the change must be provided

197
Q

Who works closely with the unit POC when developing an Authorization Change request

A

The servicing Manpower and organization section

198
Q

Whose approval is required before all authorizations change request actions can be submitted to MAJCOM POC

A

The unit commanders

199
Q

What shows the approved UMD change and the rationale for the change

A

An Authorization Change Notice generated by the Manpower Programming and execution system detailing the approved change

200
Q

What office helps effectively manage manpower resources in a variety of ways

A

The installation Manpower and Organization Section

201
Q

What do the Manpower and organization sections core competencies encompass

A

Organization Structure
Requirement determination
Program allocation and control
Process improvement

202
Q

What services do Manpower and organization section personnel provide

A

Day to day manpower resource management services including UMD management
Assistance with Authorization Change Requests, Authorization Change notices and organizational structure changes
Performance management
Commercial activity service
Airmen powered by innovations program
Continuous process improvement/AF Smart Operations
Management advisory studies

203
Q

From what two sources does the AF provide most civilian personnel services

A

Installation Civilian Personnel Section

AF Personnel Center

204
Q

Military pay is centrally managed by HQ USAF. How is civilian pay managed

A

It is a budget line item at MAJCOM, Field operating Agency and installation levels as well as at HQ USAF

205
Q

The availability of performance payout and number of authorized civilian positions are the base line of civilian employment levels. For what five reasons are additional funds required

A

Civilian Overtime
Performance awards
Retention, recruitment and relocation bonuses
Seasonal and longer term over hires
Voluntary separation incentive payment to minimize involuntary reduction in force separations

206
Q

Who do commanders and senior leaders depend on to recommend effective use of employees, funds and manpower authorizations to meet mission requirements

A

Human resource officers, financial managers and manpower officers

207
Q

How do MAJCOMS and installations manage annual appropriations, revolving funds and reimbursements for civilian employment costs

A

With a board structure that meets at least quarterly

208
Q

Most civilian overtire positions are filled using temporary appointments that don’t exceed one year. What happens if the workload continues beyond a year

A

Term appointments of up to six years may be used

209
Q

Civilian employees at or below grade GS-15 take the grade, not the rank, of the position they occupy. These grade potions have detailed written job descriptions that are used to determine what four things

A

Pay
Qualification requirements
performance expectations
Appraisal ratings

210
Q

Civilian potion descriptions historically covered duties, responsibilities and supervisory controls. The scope of Core personnel documents has expanded to include what

A

Performance standards
Qualification required for recruitment
Training requirements for a new employee in the position

211
Q

Supervisors are responsible for the accuracy of the Core Personnel Document and for implementing Standard Core Personnel Documents. How do they benefit from SCPDs

A

They save the time needed to write a new document and determine correct pay plans or schedules, occupation series or codes and grades

212
Q

What is required if standard core personnel documents are used as a template for a unique core personnel document

A

A new classification Analysis

213
Q

AF civilian personnel sections with large numbers of ____ retain potion classification authority and responsibilities until they transition tot he AF personnel center/Directorate of civilian force integration

A

Serviced civilian personnel

214
Q

Who performs classification support for installations with smaller civilian employee populations

A

Air Force Personnel Center/Directorate of Civilian Force Integration (AFPC/DPIC)

215
Q

When filling civilian jobs, do supervisors always have an opportunity to s3elect from a list of applicant

A

No

216
Q

Who normally receives mandatory selection or priority referral rights when filling civilian jobs

A

Employees adversely affected by reduction in force through downgrade or separation

217
Q

Explain the process for filling vacant civilian positions when mandatory selection or priority referral rights don’t apply

A

Supervisors may consult with a staffing specialist in the Civilian personnel section or AFPC to determine recruitment sources
The vacancy for competitive fill actions is announced
Candidates are screened by the AFPC
One or more lists of candidates are referred to the supervisor

218
Q

Civilian employees with qualify experience and or education can enter civil service at different pay grade levels T/F

A

True

219
Q

What are the priory qualification indicators in most GS or equivalent pay schedules occupations

A

Directly related work experience and college education

220
Q

To fill civilian positions , supervisors can choose either internal or external recruitment sources, or both, or all us citizens. Internal recruitment involves current, permanent AF employees. What may external recruitment involve

A

All transfers from other DoD and non DoD agencies
Reinstatement of former career and or career conditional employees
Various Veterans preference applicants

221
Q

Using the civilian personnel candidate referral list, the supervisor may confer with the civilian personnel section to determine interview procedures. Circumstance dictate whether interviews take place. What is important to remember if interviews are arranged?

A

The supervisor arranges the interview
CPS must approve the interview questions
All candidates should be asked the same questions
Interview periods should be of relatively equal lengths

222
Q

Centrally managed career programs cover most vacancies in grades GS ___ through GS - 15

A

GS -12

223
Q

Senior functional mangers set career development and placement polices for civilian employees in career program covered potions. Are these programs subject to the same recruitment processes as non-centrally managed positions

A

Yes

224
Q

How do supervisors use civilian training and development to improve employee performance skills

A

Supervisors determine training requirements and work with the Civilian Personal Section or the education training function to identify appropriate training sources

225
Q

Organization funds must often support training needs T/F

A

True

226
Q

The annual training needs survey helps supervisor project training requirements for the upcoming fiscal year. When can supervisors request out of cycle training

A

Any time during the year, when there are un forecasted mission requirements

227
Q

Who’s input can help first line supervisor analyze and determine civilian development needs

A

Higher level managements other supervisors or the employees own input

228
Q

Can all civilian training and developmental needs be met through AF sponsorship

A

No

229
Q

What is the next step in civilian training and development after training needs have been identified

A

Determine what training sources are available to fill the requirement

230
Q

Identify the three primary sources of civilian training

A

Agency
Interagency
Non government

231
Q

Which form is sued to request approve and document civilian training away from the work site

A

SF 182, Authorization agreement and certification of Training

232
Q

AF agency training may include OJT, in-house training and AF formal schools. Why are OJT and in house training often the most effective

A

Because the supervisor tailors the training to meet the specific job requirements

233
Q

Agency training can be casual or formal T/F

A

True

234
Q

When is in house agency training most effective

A

When a large number of employees need instruction on common occupation skill requirements

235
Q

Formalized agency classroom training is available through AF forma schools listed in the Web Based ____

A

Education and Training Course Announcement (ETCA)

236
Q

What do career filed management programs plan for and sponsor to help develop current and future managers

A

Developmental assignments
Tuition assistance
Formal Training
Education

237
Q

Leadership and management developmental opportunities are available to eligible high potential civilian employees. Where can you find information about them

A

www.afciviliancareers.com/apply/howtoapply/

238
Q

What is interagency training

A

All training sponsored by US government agencies outside the employing agency

239
Q

There are many interagency training sources. Which ones are mention in chapter 15 of the AFH 1

A

Office of Personnel Management, the US Departments of Army and Navy, and the US Departments of Labor and Agriculture

240
Q

Federal regulations require agencies to condor and select government training sources before turning to non governmental alternatives. When can non governmental sources be considered

A

Agency or interagency courses cant satisfy training needs

Non governmental training is more advantageous

241
Q

Civilian employees receive ____ appraisals of how well they perform their duties

A

Annual

242
Q

Performance ____ are the duties and tasks supervisors set for the civilian employees they supervise

A

Elements

243
Q

Performance ____ describes how a particular element or duty must be accomplished by a civilian employee

A

Standards

244
Q

How are civilian performance elements and standards document if a Core Personnel Document is not used

A

In writing on AF Form 860, Civilian performance Plan

245
Q

Civilian performance appraisals serve as the basis for what four personnel actions

A

Identifying and correcting work performance problems
Recognizing and rewarding quality performance
Improving productivity
Granting periodic pay increases

246
Q

AFI ____ managing the civilian performance program provides guidance for evaluation civilian employee performance for GS and federal Wage system employees

A

AFI36-1001

247
Q

What tools are used to motivate general schedule and federal wage system employees to perform above an acceptable level and to compensate them for performing beyond expectations

A

Performance awards

248
Q

What process occurs when civilian employees fail one or more performance elements

A

Employees receive an unacceptable appraisal with an opportunity to improve. Possible causes for poor performance are identified. If a satisfactory level is not achieved, the employee is removed from the potion and possibly placed in another position at the same or lower grade

249
Q

DoD 5500.7R, Joint ethics Regulation and AFI ____ Civilian Conduct and Responsibility cover mandatory and prohibited activities for civilian employees

A

AFI 36-703

250
Q

What standards of conduct are required of all civilian employees

A

Comply with standards of conduct in all official matters
Maintain high standards of honesty, responsibility and accountability
Adhere to the AF core values

251
Q

Misconduct will not be tolerated. Name three of the many prohibitions on civilian employees personal conduct

A

Discrimination and sexual harassment
Drug and alcohol abuse
misuse of government purchase cards, computer stencils and other equipment
taking bribes
Conduction personal business at work
Criminal Off duty behavior that reflect adversely upon the AF

252
Q

When is disciplinary action taken to correct a civilian employees misconduct or performance

A

When the employ can control the essential of the performance problems and has the skills knowledge and capacity to perform well, but is unwilling to do so

253
Q

What is the AF goal for Civilian discipline

A

Maintaining a constructive working environment

254
Q

If you must take disciplinary or adverse action against a civilian employee, you must do so without regard to what

A

Race, color, religion, sex , national origin, age, disability, marital status or politics

255
Q

When is it appropriate to take adverse action based on an employees inability to perform because of a physical or mental disability

A

Only if the employees disability cannot reasonably be accommodated

256
Q

Civilian employees must receive advance notice of imp3ending disciplinary actions T/F

A

True

257
Q

Disciplinary or adverse actions against civilian employees must be prompt, equitable and comply with what

A

The letter and intent of all governing requirements

258
Q

During an investigatory interview, when do employees who are members of a bargaining unit have a right to union representation

A

Upon request, if they reasonably believe disciplinary action may result form the interview

259
Q

Name four levels of disciplinary action civilian personnel may face

A

Oral admonishment
Written reprimands
Suspension
Removal

260
Q

____ places civilian employees in a non pay and non duty status, usually for a specific length of time

A

Suspension

261
Q

For what length of time may civilian employees accuse of a serious crime be suspended

A

Indefinetnley

262
Q

Supervisors must ensure civilian disciplinary actions are warranted and well documents. With whom must reprimands, suspensions and removes be coordinated so procedural violations are admistatrive oversight don’t jeopardize valid disciplinary actions

A

The Civilian personnel section and staff Judge Advocate

263
Q

How frequently are civilian employees paid

A

Every Two weeks

264
Q

____ employee pay is expressed as an annual salary

A

GS

265
Q

High cost areas have higher GS pay rates and all GS pay rates in the US include locality pay. How do GS pay rates differ OS

A

They do not include locality pay and are approximately 10 percent lower than US rates

266
Q

In what month are GS pay scales normally increased each year though the legislative process

A

January

267
Q

What are the wage categories in the Federal Wag system

A

Wage Grade
Wage Leader
Wage Supervisor

268
Q

The federal wage system pay is expressed as an annual salary T/F

A

False

269
Q

Do federal wage system or general schedule rates vary more between local areas

A

FWS rates

270
Q

How do the annual Federal Wage system rate increases differ from the GS rate increases

A

GS rates normally increase each January through the legislative process. FWS rates may increase annually, but on an area by area basis through the year

271
Q

Both the GS and FWS have steps in each grade; employees progress through thee steps vial longevity. How do the GAS and FWS steps differ

A

GS grades have 10 steps and the within grade or step increases start at 1 year intervals and slow to 3 year intervals in the higher steps. FWS grades have only five steps and the within grade increases start at 6 month intervals an slow to 2 year intervals

272
Q

What is the overtime pay cap for GS employees

A

1.5 times the GS 10 Step 1 Pay rate or the hourly rate of basic pay, whichever is greater

273
Q

How much compensatory time off is earned for each hour of civilian overtime

A

One hour

274
Q

Does working at night, on Sunday or a federal holiday earn civilian employees extra pay

A

Yes

275
Q

Civilian work hours are more precisely defined and less flexible than those of Regular AF military personnel. How are their work schedules defined

A

As administrative workweek, basic workweek, regular tour of duty, uncommon tour of duty and part time tour of duty

276
Q

The regular tour of duty most civilians work consists of what

A

Normally five 8 hour days, Monday through Friday

277
Q

When may civilian employees be asked to work on uncommon tour of duty

A

When necessary for mission accomplishment

278
Q

Special circumstances permit part time, intermittent or special tours of duty. Who establishes the daily work hours including designated rest and lunch periods

A

Installation and tenant commanders

279
Q

What two types of alternative civilian work schedules can be implemented by organization commanders

A

Flexible work schedules to allow employees to start and end work at different times
Compressed work schedules that cover 80 hours in a pay period in fewer than 10 workdays

280
Q

Describe the most common compressed work schedule for civilian employees

A

Four 9 Hour days each week, an 8 hour day in one week and a regular day off in the other week

281
Q

Which AFI covers civilian work scheduling

A

AFI 36-807, weekly and daily scheduling of work and holiday observances

282
Q

How many days of sick leave do civilian employees earn each year

A

13 Days

283
Q

How many days of annual leave do civilian employees earn each year

A

13, 20 or 26 depending on length of service

284
Q

Annual leave accumulation is capped at ____ days for most GS and FWS employees

A

30 Days

285
Q

Civilian employees working overseas can accumulate ____ days of annual leave

A

45 days

286
Q

Is there a cap on the accumulation of civilian sick leave

A

No

287
Q

____ leave is used for civilian employee vacations and or personal reason and should be approved in advance unless emergency conditions exist

A

Annual

288
Q

Civilian leave is charged and taken in ____ minute increments

A

15 minutes

289
Q

Civilian sick leave for medical appointments or family member care should be scheduled and approved in advance, except in cases of emergency. when should an illness or injury that keeps an employee away from work be reported to a supervisor

A

During the first two hours of the duty day

290
Q

Are absences for jury duty, dismissals for extreme weather conditions or absences excused by the installation commander charged to a civilian employees annual leave

A

No

291
Q

Civilian employees who have earned ___ time for overtime or time for awards should schedule absences to use that time like they schedule annual leave

A

Compensatory

292
Q

Which AFI covers civilian employee absence and leave

A

AFI 36-815, absence and leave

293
Q

Labor agreements between unions and installations or MAJCOMS cover approximately ___ percent of AF civilian employees

A

70 Percent

294
Q

Unions have legal status under federal law. Guidance is included in AFI ____ labor management relations

A

AFI 36-701

295
Q

Who is usually the liaisons between supervisors and other management officials and union officials

A

A labor Relations Officer or specialist in the Civilian Personnel section.

296
Q

The Labor Relations Officer speaks for ____ in routine communications with the union and with parties outside the AF who have roles in labor contract negotiations and dispute resolution

A

Management

297
Q

A variety of Union officials act for and make commitments for unions. Who might these include

A

Elected officers such as the president, vice presidents and treasures and appointed officials such as stewards and union delegates

298
Q

____ officials raise employee concerns in the early stages of policy formulation and resolve employee complaints

A

Union

299
Q

Managers should strive to work with union officials in a professional, non defensive manner. When is this particularly important

A

When grievances have been filed

300
Q

Management and union representatives negotiate collective bargaining agreements that cover what topics

A

Grievance procedures
Use of official time for union matters
use of AF resources by unions
Other local or MAJCOM wide items of interest impacting the working condition of bargaining unit employees

301
Q

Union contracts bind both sides, with agreements subject to interpretation by third parties outside the DoD and the AF. What issues are not covered by contracts

A

Pay, benefits or other matters governed by federal laws and government wide regulations

302
Q

Revised AF instructions that differ from provisions of a contract may need to be negotiated. What recent example confirms this

A

Civilian performance appraisal changes were not implanted at some installations until lengthy negotiation between management and union s concluded

303
Q

Labor management contracts must include a negotiated grievance procedure that must be used by members of the bargaining unit. Where do most negotiations start

A

With an option to seek resolution using outside, neutral facilitator or mediators

304
Q

_____ Grievances follow two or more steps before one side deices to refer the dispute to a paid outside arbitrator

A

Formal

305
Q

In dispute resolution, who usually bears the cost of the arbitration

A

Costs are usually shared equally by the union and management

306
Q

In dispute resolution are the artribiatros decisions final

A

Yes

307
Q

AFI ____ covers the administrative grievance process that supervisors, managers and employees who are not covered by a collective bargaining agreement, or who are not members of the bargaining unit, follow

A

AFI 36-1203, Administrative Grievance System

308
Q

Although outside fact finders may be used at management option, admistatrive grievances are usually decided by whom

A

AF official, usually the installation commander or his or her designee

309
Q

a number of personnel decision are excluded from admistatrive grievances and most negotiated grievance procedures. Name two examples

A

Non selection for Promotion and

Performance recognition

310
Q

What board hears appeals of civilian suspension without pay of more than 14 days, demotions and removals

A

The merit system protection board (MSPB)

311
Q

Disputes pursued as grievances can be duplicated as Equal Employment opportunity complaints and vice versa T/F

A

False

312
Q

Who investigates charges of Unfair Labor Practice to resolve disputes between a union and management concerning the statuary rights of either party

A

The federal Labor Relations Authority

313
Q

Most unfair labor practice charges are filed by unions when mangers or supervisor are accused of changing working conditions or calling formal meeting without proper notice to the union. If found guilty, what may be required of management

A

Management may be required to revert back tot he previous working condition, and the commander of the OR may be required to post an admission of managements wrongdoing on official bas bulletin boards

PDG 2017 E-8-2s (19 decks)

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