Chapter 3.4-3.6 Flashcards

1
Q

Define CNS and PNS

A

CNS: brain and spinal chord; a great majority of neuronal cell bodies are found in here
PNS: includes all axons dendrites and cell bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Nuclei versus ganglia

A

Nuclei: bundle of nerve cell bodies in the CNS
Ganglia: bundle of nerve cell bodies in the PNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the three subdivisions of the brain?

A

Hindbrain ( rhomboencephalon)
Midbrain ( Mesencephalon)
Forebrain ( Prosencephalon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

CSF Cerebrospinal fluid

A

A clear liquid that the entire CNS floats in. Serves various functions such as shock absorption and exchange of nutrients and waste with the CNS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Spinal chord : Location, General Function

A

Spinal chord is connected to the brain and protected by the CSF and the vertebral column. Pathway for info to and from brain. Most sensory data is relayed to brain for info, but the SC is also a site for info integration.
General: Simple reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the hindbrain consisted of?

A

Medulla, pons and cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Medulla: Location, General Function

A

Location: Below the pons and is the area of the brain which connects to the spinal chord
General : Involuntary functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pons : Location, General Function

A

Location: Below midbrain and above the medulla , connection point between brain stem and the cerebellum
General: Relay centre and balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cerebellum : Location, General Function

A

Location: behind the pons and below the cerebral hemispheres
General: Movement coordination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Damage to cerebellum

A

Results in poor hand eye coordination and balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Midbrain: Location, General Function

A

Location: Above the pons and below the hypothalamus
General: eye movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Brainstem consists of :

A

Medulla, pons, midbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Forebrain includes:

A

Diencephalon and telencephalon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Diencephalon consists of:

A

Thalamus and hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Thalamus : Location, General Function

A

Location: Near the middle of the brain below the cerebral hemispheres and above the midbrain.
General: Integrating center and relay station

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hypothalamus: General Function

A

General: Homeostasis and behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Telencephalon: what makes it special

A

-Consists of two separate cerebral hemispheres, which is unlike all of the other parts of the CNS up to and including the diencephalon ( which forms a single symmetrical stalk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Left and R hemispheres and what they are responsible for

A

L hemi: primarily controls motor functions of the right side of the body; generally responsible for speech, dominant in most people
R hemi: controls motor functions of L side of the body; generally responsible for visual spatial reasoning and music

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Corpus Callosum

A

A thick bundle of axons which connect the cerebral hemispheres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Cerebrum

A

Largest region of human brain and consists of the L paired cerebral hemispheres.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Hemispheres of cerebrum consist of:

A
  • cerebral cortex ( outer layer of gray matter) plus an inner core of white matter connecting the cortex to the diencephalon
  • gray matter: composed of trillions of somas
  • white matter: composed of myelinated axons
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cerebral hemi general function

A

conscious thought processes and intellectual function

play a role in processing somatic sensory and motor info

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The cerebral cortex is divided into 4 lobes:

A

Temporal, Frontal, Parietal, Occipital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Frontal lobe

A

initiate all voluntary movement and are involved in complex reasoning skills and problem solving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Parietal lobes

A

involved in general sensation ( such as touch, temp, pressure, vibration, etc) and in gustation ( taste)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Temporal lobes

A

-process auditory and olfactory sensation and are involved in short term memory, language comprehension, and emotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Occipital lobes

A

Process visual sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Frontal eye field

A

Controls learned eye movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Broca’s A general function

A

speech production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Wernicke’s A general function

A

language comprehension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Basal nuclei : General Function

A
  • composed of gray matter and are located deep within the cerebral hemispheres; consists of several functioning divisions
    General: Movement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Limbic system: Location, General Function

A

Location: between the cerebrum and diencephalon
- includes substructures such as the amygdala , cingulate gyrus and hippocampus
-works closely with parts of cerebrum, diencephalon, and midbrain
General: Emotion, memory and learning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Basal nuclei and cerebellum

A

process and coordinate mvmt initiated by the primary motor cortex; basal nuclei are inhibitory ( prevent excess movement) whereas cerebellum is excitatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Cerebral cortex : General Function

A

General function: Perception, skeletal muscle mvmt, memory, attention, thought, language and consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

motor and sensory regions of the cortex are organized such that:

A

a particular small A of the cortex controls a particular body part, a larger A is dedicated to a body part which requires more and more sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

All neurons entering and exiting the CNS are:

A

carried by 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Cranial vs. Spinal nerves

A

Cranial: convey sensory and motor info to and from the brainstem
Spinal: convey sensory and motor info to and from the spinal chord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Vagus nerve: Effects

A
  • decreases heart rate and GI tract activity
  • part of the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system
  • consists of a bundle of axons that end in ganglia on the surface of the heart, stomach and other visceral organs; the axons consisting of the vagus nerve are pregang and come from somas in the CNS
  • on surface of heart and stomach, they synapse with posting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Somatic motor neurons

A

All innervate skeletal muscle cells, use ACh as neuro, cell bodies in brainstem or ventral ( front) portion of the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Somatic sensory neurons

A

All have long dendrite extending from sensory receptor toward the soma, which is located just outside of the CNS in a dorsal root ganglion. All somatic sensory neurons, the first synapse is in CNS; depending on the type of sensory info conveyed, axon synapses in the cord or stretches al the way up to the brain stem before its first synapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Dorsal root ganglion

A
  • Bunch of somatic and autonomic sensory neuron cell does located just dorsal ( back of ) the spinal cord
  • Pair of dorsal root ganglia for every segment of the spinal cord, and thus the dorsal root ganglia, form a chain along the dorsal ( back) aspect of the vertebral column
  • Dorsal root ganglia are protected within vertebral column but r outside the meninges ( protective sheath of the brain and cord) and thus outside the CNS
  • An axon extends from the somatic sensory neurons soma into the spinal cord
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Autonomic PNS efferents

A

Eff.ts of sympa and para systems consists of 2 neurons: pre and post

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Preganglionic neuron

A

Cell body in the brainstem or spinal cord
Sends axon to an autonomic ganglion , located outside the spinal column
In the ganglion, axon synapses with postganglionic neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Postganglionic neuron

A

Sends an axon to an effector ( smooth muscle or gland)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

All autonomic pregang release

A

Acetylcholine as neuro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

All parasympa postgang neurons release

A

Acetylcholine as neuro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Sympa postgang neurons release

A

norepinephrine NE as their neuro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Location of preganglionic soma for syma

A

Almost all have cell bodies in the thoracic (chest) or lumbar ( lower back ) regions of the spinal cord
Therefore, they are located at the thoracolumbar region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Location of pregang soma for parasympa

A

Cell bodies in the brain stem ( head or cranium) or sacral portion ( lowest portion of the spinal cord)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Sympa Pre and Post gang length

A

Pre- short

Post- long

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

para pre and post gang length

A

pre - long

post - short

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Ganglia sympa

A

only a few ganglia
sympa ganglia are quite large
far from effector, close to cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Ganglia para

A

small ganglion, close to effector, far from cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Auto afferent ( sensory ) vs Somatic afferent

A

Similar except auto can synapse in PNS at auto ganglia with auto efferent neurons in what is known as a short reflex whereas the first synapse of somatic aff.t neurons is in the CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Adrenal cortex location and hormones released

A
Outer portion of  adrenal gland- cortex
secretes glucocorticoids ( cortisol) 
mineralocorticoids ( aldoseterone) and some sex hormones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Adrenal medulla location, relaton to autonomic , hormone relased

A

Inner portion of adrenal gland - medulla
Part of sympa system
embryologically derived from sympa postgang and directly innervated by sympa pregang.c neurons
Upon activation of sympa , adrenal gland is stimulated to release epinephrine , which is also known as adrenaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Epinephrine: derivatives, effects

A

Slightly modified version of norepinephrine, neuro released by sympa postgang
Epi is hormone because released into blood by ductless gland
Behaves like neuro because it elicits effects very rapidly and effects are quite short lived
Causes sudden flushing and sweating one experiences when severely startled, stimulation of heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Sensation , sensory receptors

A

Sensation: process by which we received info from the world around us
Sensory receptors; detect data both internally and externaly and send it to the CNS for processing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Sensation vs. Perception

A

Sensation: act of receiving info
Perception: act of organizing, assimilating, interpreting sensory input into useful and meaningful info

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How does the brain know the diff between stimulation of visual receptors and olfactory receptors?

A

Both signals are received in the brain as action potentials from sensory neurons. Brain distinguishes sensory stimuli based on which sensory neurons are signaling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Exteroreceptors

Interoceptors

A

Ex: sensory receptors that detect stimuli from the outside world
In: receptors that respond to internal stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Mechanoreceptors

A

respond to mechanical disturbances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Mechanoreceptor ex: pacinian corpuscles

A

pressure sensors located deep in the skin
shaped like an onion and composed of concentric layer of specialized membranes
when corpuscular membranes are distorted by firm pressure on the skin, nerve endings become depolarized and signal travels up the dendrite ( these are graded potential changes- not action potentials)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Graded potential changes vs Action potentials

A

Action potentials, once initiated, are all or nothing events
Graded potentials code info based on amplitude, They are initiated by a stimulus that vary in magnitude depending on strength of the stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Auditory hair cell vs. vestibular cells

A

Mechano
Auditory: specialized cell in cochlea of the inner ear
Vestibular: in special organs called semicircular canals,, also found in th inner ear
Role is to detect acceleration and position relative to gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Chemoreceptors

Ex

A

Respond to particular chemicals
Olfactory: detect airborne chemicals and allow us to smell things
Gustatory: taste buds
Auto: in walls of carotid and aortic arteries respond to changes in arterial pH , pCO2, pO2 levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Nocireceptors and ex

A

Pain receptors, stimulated by tissue injury
consist of free nerve ending that detects chemical signs of damages
can be auto or somatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Autonomic pain receptors

A

Do not provide the conscious mind with clear pain info, but they frequently give sensation of dull aching pain
create illusion of pain on skin, when their nerves cross paths with somatic afferents from the skin , phenomenon known as referred skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Thermoreceptors and 3 categories of thermo

A

stimulated by changes in temp
autonomic and somatic ex
cold sensitive, warm sensitive and thermal nociceptors ( detect painfully hot stimuli)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Electromagnetic receptors and ex

A

stimulated by electromagnetic waves
in humans, rods and cones of the retina of the eye
in other animals, electro and magneto r separate
ex: some fish detect electric fields with electroreceptors and magnetoreceptors allow animals to sense the earths magnetic field, which can help them navigate during migration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Four properties that need to be communicated to the CNS:

A

Stimulus modality, location, intensity, duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Stimulus modality

A

Type of stimulus, CNS determines his based on the type of receptor that is firing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Stimulus intensity

A

Coded by frequency of action potentials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Dynamic range

A

Range of intensities that can be detected by sensory receptors, can be expanded by range fractionation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Range fractionation and ex

A

Including multiple groups of receptors with limited ranges to detect a wider range overall
ex: in human cone cells which respond to different but overlapping ranges of wavelengths to detect the full visual spectrum of light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Stimulus location

A

communicated by receptive field of sensory receptor sending signal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Improving localization of stimulus

A

Overlapping receptive fields of neighboring receptors
works like a venn diagram
allows the brain to localize a stimulus activating neighboring receptors to the A where the receptive fields overlap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Discrimination between 2 stimuli

A

improved by lateral inhibition of neighboring receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Stimulus duration

A

can be coded explicitly or not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Tonic receptors

A

fire action potentials as long as stimulus continues
however, these are subject to adaptation , and the frequency of action potentials decreases as stimulus continues at the same level
explicitly communicates the duration of stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Phasic receptors

A

only fire action potentials when stimulus begins
do not explicitly communicate the duration of the stimulus
important for communicating changes in stimuli and essentially adapt immediately if stimulus continues at the same level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Adaptation

A

decrease in firing frequency when intensity of stimulus remains constant
allows the brain to tune out unimpt info from the environment
receptors do not stop being able to respond, they can still be triggered if the stimulus intensity increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Nervous system is programmed to respond to

A

changing stimuli
because constant stimuli are not a threat whereas changing stimuli need to be dealt with
nociceptors do not adapt under any circumstance, because pain something that the nervous system wants us to do something about

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Propioception

A

awareness of self and body position

also known as kinesthetic sense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Muscle spindle

A

important ex of a propioceptor , mechanoceptor
sensory organ specialized to detect mucle stretch
receptor that senses muscle stretch in the muscle stretch reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Other proprioceptors: Golgi tendon organs and joint capsule receptors

A

Golgi: monitors tension in the tendons
joint: detect pressure, tension and movement in the joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Purpose of proprioceptive system

A

Allow us to know positions of our body parts by monitoring the activity of the musculoskeletal system
Important during activity when precise feedback needed for coordinated motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Which portion of CNS do you expect to require input from proprioceptors?

A

Cerebellum, which is responsible for motor coordination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Gustation

Olfaction

A

gust: taste
olf: smell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Gustation process

A

Taste bud consists of specialized epithelial cells shaped like an onion
In centre of taste bud is a taste pore, with taste hairs which detect food chemicals
Info about taste is transmitted by cranial nerves to an A of brain in temporal lobe not far from where brain receives olfactory info

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Taste buds

A
Can only distinguish 5 different flavors
sweet ( glucose)
salty ( Na+)
bitter ( basic)
sour ( acidic)
 umami ( amino acids and nucleotides)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Olfaction process

A

Accomplished by olfactory receptors in the roof of the nasopharynx
Receptors detect airborne chemicals which dissolve in the mucus covering the nasal membrane
Olfactory nerves project directly to olfactory bulbs of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Olfactory bulbs

A

Located in temporal lobe of the brain near the limbic system, important for memory and emotion
Might explain why certain smells can bring back vivid memories or feelings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Pheromones

A

chemical signals which cause a social response in members of the same species,
not well understood in humans, but have been studied extensively in insects
important means of communicating info;
ex. alarm pheromones alert rest of beehive of danger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Outer ear structures

A

Auricle or pinna

External auditory canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Division of middle and outer ear

A

Tympanic membrane or eardrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Middle ear structures

A
Consists of the ossicles
Three small bones  called:
malleus ( hammer)
incus ( anvil)
stapes ( stirrup)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Division of middle and inner ear

A

oval window

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Structures of inner ear

A

cochlea
semicircular canals
utricle
saccule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Semicircular canals with utricle and saccule

A

Important for a sense of balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Membrane covered hole in cochlea near oval window and function

A

round window

releases excess pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Eustacian tube / auditory tube

A

Passageway from the back of throat to the middle ear
functions to equalize pressure on both sides of the eardrum and is the cause of ear popping 1 experiences in high altitudes or underwater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Mechanism of hearing

A

Sound waves enter external ear and pass into auditory canal- cause eardrum to vibrate
malleus receives vibrations and pass to incus and stapes
stapes contacts the oval window and vibration oval window creates pressure waves in perilymph and endolymph fluids in cochlea
pressure waves in endolymph cause vibration of basilar membrane
basilar membrane is covered with auditory receptor cells called hair cells
cells have cilia projecting from apicall surfaces which contact the tectorial membrane
when the basilar membrane moves , hairs dragged across tectorial mem and they bend
displacement opens ion channels in hair cells, which results in neuro release
dendrites from bipolar auditory afferent neurons are stimulated by neuro and thus the sound vibrations are converted to nerve impulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Organ of corti

A

basilar membrane, hair cells and tectorial membrane

primary site at which auditory stimuli are detected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Reason why bones in middle ear arranged in such a way

A

They amplify the sound vibrations passing through the middle ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Sound vibrations pass thru before being sensed

A

first conveyed through the air
then they are conveyed through bone
then liquid before they are sensed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

outer ear and middle ear

A

convey sound waves to the cochlea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

PItch

A

Frequency of sound is distinguished by which regions of the basilar mem vibrate, stimulating different auditory neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Basilar membrane thickness

A

Varies

Thick near oval window and gradually becomes thin and floppy near the apex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Low frequency

High frequency

A

Low: long wavelength, stimulated hair cells at the apex of the cochlear duct
High: short wavelength, stimulate hair cells at the base of the cochlea, close to oval window

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Loudness of sound

A

distinguished by the amplitude of vibration

louder sounds cause more frequent action potentials in the auditory nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Stereophonic hearing

A

Allowed for by having 2 ears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Determining the location of the sound

A

by the difference detected by the 2 ears
ex. if a horn blasts to your right, right ear receives sound waves slightly sooner and slightly more intensely than the L ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

If a sensory neuron leading from ear to brain fires an action potential more rapidly, how will the brain perceive this change?

A

More rapid firing of cochlear neuron indicates an increase in the volume of the sound
If pitch is changed, a different set of neurons would fire action potentials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

In some cases of deafness, sound can still be detected by conduction of vibration through the skull to the cochlea. If the auditory nerve is severed, can sound still be detected by conductance through bone?

A

Conductance through bone allows some hearing by causing the cochlea to vibrate, which stimulates action potentials that pass through the auditory nerve to the brain.
However, if the auditory nerve is severed, no hearing of any kind is possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

If the bones of the middle ear are unable to move, would this impair detection of sound by conductance through bone?

A

Bones of the middle ear serve to conduct vibration from outer ear to liquid within the cochlea but are not involved in detecting sound. Bone conductance can still stimulate the cochlea and result in hearing if the middle ear is non-functional.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Vestibular complex

A

Made up of 3 semicircular canals:
utricle, saccule and ampullae
Monitors static equilibrium and linear acceleration, which contributes to your sense of balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Semicircular canals

A

Tubes filled with endolymph, like cochlea, contain hair cells that detect motion
Function is to detect rotational acceleration of the head
Innervated by afferent neurons which send balance info to pons, cerebellum, and other areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Cornea

A

Clear portion at the front of the eye
Bends and refracts light as it passes through because the cornea is highly curved and acts like a lens , its refractive index is higher than that of air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Sclera

A

white layer that the cornea is continuous with at the borders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Choroid

A

Layer beneath the sclera

contains darkly pigmented cells which help absorb excess light within the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Retina

A

Layer beneath the choroid
Surface where light is focused
Detects light and converts stimuli to action potentials to send to the brain
located at the back of the eye
contains electromagnetic receptor cells ( photoreceptors) called rods and cones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Anteriror chamber

A

Just inside the cornea

Contains fluid called the aqueous humour

124
Q

Iris

A

Membrane at the back of the ant chamber
coloured part of the eye
Muscles of the iris regulate the diameter of the pupil

125
Q

¨Pupil

A

Opening in the iris

126
Q

Posterior chamber

A

Behind the iris

Also contains aqueous humor

127
Q

Lens

A

In the back part of the posterior chamber

Fine tune the angle of the incoming light so that beams are perfectly focused upon the retina

128
Q

Ciliary muscle

A

varies the curvature and refractive power of the lens

129
Q

Vitreous chamber

A

Where light passes thru on route to the retina from the lens

130
Q

Passage of light in the eye

A

Cornea- anterior chamber- pupil - posterior chamber- lens-vitreous chamber- retina
When passing through retina, pass through ganglion cells- bipolar cells before reaching cone and rod cells

131
Q

Rods and cones

A

responsible for detecting light

132
Q

Transmission of visual info

A

rods and cones synapse with nerve cells called bipolar cells ( 1 dendrite and 1 axon)
bipolar cells synapse with ganglion cells, whose axons make u the optic nerve, which travels from each eye to occipital lobe of the brain for complex analysis of visual image

133
Q

Optic disk

A

point on retina where many axons from ganglion cells converge to form the optic nerve
also known as blind spot because it has no photoreceptors

134
Q

Macula

A

oval shaped pigmented area near the center of the retina

135
Q

fovea centralis

A

at the center of the macula
contains only cones and is responsible for extreme visual acuity
also called the focal point

136
Q

visual acuity

A

sharpness of vision

137
Q

Rods and cones are made up of:

A

special pigment proteins that change tertiary structure upon absorption of light

138
Q

Opsin

A

Pigment protein in rods and cones

Each one is bound to 1 molecule of retinal and contains 1 molecule of retinal , which is derived from vit A

139
Q

Dark rods and cones and retinal, bipolar cells

A

Dark: rods and cones are resting and retinal has several trans double bonds and 1 cis double bond
retinal and opsin keep the Na channel open
cell remains depolarized
both rods and cones release Glu onto bipolar cells, preventing them from firing

140
Q

Light rods and cones and retinal , bipolar cells

A

absorb light , retinal converted to all trans form
series of reactions which closes Na channel, causing cell hyperpolarization
rods and cones stop releasing Glu , bipolar cell depolarizes, causes depolarization of ganglion cells and an action potential along axon of ganglion cell

141
Q

NIght vision

A

accomplished by rods, which are more sensitive to dim light and motion and more concentrated at periphery of the retina

142
Q

Colour vision

A

require cones, which require abundant light and are also responsible for high acuity vision
more concentrated at the fovea as a result
three cones consist of colour vision, absorb blue, green and red light

143
Q

What physical difference allows functional difference of cones?

A

Each type of cone makes a particular protein which is specialized to change conformation when light of appropriate frequency strikes it

144
Q

Emmetropia

A

normal vision

145
Q

Myopia

A

Nearsightedness
too much curvature causes light to be bent too much and to be focused in front of the retina
can be corrected by concave ( diverging) lens, which causes light to diverge slightly before they reach the cornea
too much refraction at the lens or an abnormally long eyeball results in a focal length that is too short

146
Q

Hyperopia

A

farsightedness
focusing light behind retina caused by too little curvature
can be corrected by convex (converging) lens , cauing light rays to converge before cornea
too little refraction at the lens or an abnormally short eyeball results in a focal length that is too long

147
Q

Presbyopia

A

inability to accommodate ( focus)

results from loss of flexibility of the lens, which occurs with aging

148
Q

Neurons in visual cortex

A

fire in response to very specific info

149
Q

Feature detecting neurons

A

specific neurons in the brain that fire in response to particular visual features, such as lines, edges, angles and movement
info is passed along to other neurons that begin to assimilate these distinct feature into ore complex objects and so on

150
Q

Feature detection theory

A

explains why a certain area of the brain is activated when looking at a face versus when looking at letters on a page

151
Q

Parallel processing

A

many aspects of a visual stimulus ( such as form, motion, color and depth) are processed simultaneously instead of in a step by step fashion different stimuli
used in order to vast amounts of information

152
Q

Occipital lobe constructs

A

holistic image by integrating all of the separate elements of an object, in addition to accessing stored information
ex. brain is simultaneously processing the individual features of an image, while also accessing stored info

153
Q

Amount of the cortex dedicated to processing:
visual info
touch info
auditory info

A

visual info: 30%
touch info: 8%
auditory: 3%

154
Q

Depth perception

A

describes ability to see objects in 3D despite the fact that images are imposed on the retina in only 2D
allows us to judge distance

155
Q

Depth perception experiments

A

Visual cliff
demonstrates that depth perception appears to be largely innate
babies placed on clear glass surface above a steep drop off
most babies not venture out over the visual cliff, indicating that their depth perception was developed enough to understand that the drop was dangerous

156
Q

Binocular cues (BC)

A

depth cues that depend on info received from both eyes and are most important for perceiving depth when objects are close to us in our visual field

157
Q

Retinal disparity

A

binocular cue
brain compares the images projected onto 2 retinas in order to perceive distance
greater difference or disparity between the 2 images on each retina, shorter the distance to the observer
farther images have less disparity ( images on each retina are quite similar)

158
Q

Convergence

A

binocular cue
describes the extent to which eyes turn inward when looking at an object
greater the angle of convergence or inward strain, the closer the object

159
Q

Monocular cues

A

depth cues that depend on info available from either eye alone
important for judging distances of objects that are far from us since the retinal disparity is only slight
cannot rely on binocular cues for objects that are farther distances

160
Q

relative size

A

if objects are assumed to be the same size, the one with smaller image on retina appears more distant
MC

161
Q

interposition

A

if one object blocks the view of another, we perceive it as closer
MC

162
Q

relative clarity

A

perceive hazy objects as more distant than sharp clear objects
MC

163
Q

texture gradient

A

change from coarse distinct texture to a fine indistinct texture indicates increasing distance
MC

164
Q

relative height

A

perceive objects higher on the visual field as farther away

MC

165
Q

relative motion

A

MC

objects which are near to us appear to move faster than objects that are farther away

166
Q

linear perspective

A

parallel lines appear to converge as distance increases
greater convergence, greater distance
MC

167
Q

light and shadow

A

dimmer of two identical objects seems farther away
MC
closer objects reflect more light than distant objects

168
Q

receptor , receptor type, organ , stimulus for interoception

A
receptor: aortic arch baroreceptors
                pH receptors
receptor type: baroreceptor
                         chemo receptor
organ: aortic arch
            aortic arch  or medulla oblongata
Stimulus : blood pressure
                  pH
169
Q

Absolute threshold

A

minimum stimulus intensity required to activate a sensory receptor 50% of the time ( and thus detect the sensation)
can vary between individuals and different organisms
varies with age
ex. as we get older, we gradually lose our ability to detect higher pitched sounds
important for detecting the presence or absence of stimuli

170
Q

What is the anatomical reason for the loss of our ability to detect higher pitched sounds as we age?

A

Loud sounds mechanically harm the hair cells , causing them to die
When this occurs, hair cell can no longer send sound signals to the brain
once hair cell dies in a human, it never regrows
hair cells detecting higher frequency sounds are the smallest and most easily damaged, therefore as people age and more hair cells are damaged and lost, hearing loss occurs
since the smallest hair cells are the ones most likely lost, loss of sensitivity to high pitched sounds is common in older people

171
Q

Difference threshold

A

just noticeable difference or JND
minimum noticeable diff between any 2 stimuli 50% of the time
magnitude of initial stimulus influences the difference threshold

172
Q

Webers law

A

states that two stimuli must differ by a constant proportion in order for their difference to be perceptible

173
Q

Proportion 2 stim differ by in order to detect in humans for:
weight
light intensity
tone frequency

A

weight: 2%
light: 8%
tone: 0.3%

174
Q

Signal detection theory

A

attempt to predict how and when someone will detect presence of a given sensory stimulus ( signal) in presence of other sensory stimuli in the background ( the noise)
4 possible outcomes
hit: signal present and detected
miss: signal present but not detected
false alarm: signal not present but person thought it was
correct rejection: signal not present and person did not think it was

175
Q

Gesalt

A

organized whole perceived as more than the sum of its individual parts
when humans perceive an object, rather than seeing lines, angles, colors and shadows, they perceive the whole- a face, a table or dog
gesalt principles can be applied to any sensory modality

176
Q

Emergence

A

Gesalt principle
when attempting to identify an object, we first identify its outline, which then allows us to figure out what the object is
only after the whole emerges do we start to identify the parts that make it up

177
Q

Figure or ground

A

Gesalt principle
describes perpetual tendency to separate the figure or object from everything else ( background) based on a number of variables like size, shadow, contrast, color, etc
everything that is not figure is ground

178
Q

Multistability

A

gesalt principle of multistable perception

tendency of ambiguous images to pop back and forth between alternative interpretations in our brains

179
Q

Law of proximity

A

gesalt law of grouping
things that are near each other seem to be grouped together
nearby objects tend to be perceived as unit or group

180
Q

Law of similarity

A

gesalt law of grouping
things that are similar tend to appear grouped together
we perceive similar objects as a group or unit

181
Q

law of continuity

A

gesalt law of grouping
law of good continuation
we perceive smooth continuous line forms rather than disjoined one
when their is an intersection between two objects, people tend to perceive each object as a single uninterrupted object

182
Q

Law of closure

A

gesalt law of grouping
we perceive things as a complete logical entity because our brain fills in gaps in the information
minds tendency to see complete figures or forms even if the picture is incomplete

183
Q

law of common fate

A

gesalt law of grouping

objects moving in same direction or moving in synchrony are perceived as a group or unit

184
Q

law of connectedness

A

things that are joined or linked or grouped together are perceived as connected

185
Q

bottom up processing

A

begins with sensory receptors and works up to the complex integration of info occurring in the brain
also known as data driven processing
use bottom up processing when we have no little prior experience with the stimulus

186
Q

Top down processing

A

occurs when brain applies experience and expectations to interepret sensory info
instead of focusing on sensory input, we use our prior experience and knowledge to impose our expectations on the stimulus, which tends to occur with stimuli we are more familiar with

187
Q

Nervous system vs. Endocrine system :
time taken to act
length of the effects

A

NS is fast acting with relatively short term effects

endocrine system is slower at communicating signals but have generally longer lasting effects

188
Q

connection between nervous and endocrine

A

neurons can signal the release of hormones from endocrine glans

189
Q

What is one connection between the nervous and endocrine systems in the sympathetic nervous system?

A

sympa nervous system directly innervates the adrenal medulla to stimulate the release of epinephrine

190
Q

Hormone

A

signal of endo system
molecule which is secreted into he bloodstream by endocrine gland and which has effects on distant target cells with the appropriate receptor

191
Q

Endocrine gland

A

ductless gland whose secretory products are picked up by capillaries supplying blood to the region

192
Q

Exocrine gland

A

secrete products into external environment by the way of ducts, which empty into the intestinal lumen or external world

193
Q

Hormone receptor

A

polypep that possesses a ligand-specific binding site
binding of ligand ( hormone) causes the receptor to modify target cell activity
tissue specificity of hormone action is determined by whether the cells of a tissue have the appropriate receptor

194
Q

Autocrine activity

A

when signalling molecules modify the activity of the cell that secreted them
ex. T cells secrete interleukin 2, which binds to receptors on the same T cell to stimulate increased activity

195
Q

Hormone classes

A

2 classes
Hydrophillic such as peptides and aa derivatives, bind to receptors on cell surface
hydrophobic such as steroid hormones bind to receptors in the cellular surface

196
Q

Peptide hormones

A

synthesized in rough ER and modified in the Golgi
stored in vesicles until they are needed and released by exocytosis
dissolve in blood plasma in the blood stream because they are hydrophilic
communicate with interior of target cell by the way of a second messenger cascade

197
Q

Mechanism of peptide hormone on receptor cell

A

peptide hormone first messenger which must bind to a cell surface receptor
receptor is a polypeptide with a domain on the inner surface of the plasma membrane that contains the ability to catalytically activate a second messenger
end result of second messenger activation is that the function of proteins in the cytoplasm is changed
key feature of second messenger cascades is signal amplification, which allows a few activated receptors to change the activity of many enzymes in the cytoplasm

198
Q

overall effect of peptide hormones

A

modify activity of existing enzymes in the cytoplasm, effects are exerted rapidly, minutes to hours from time of secretion
duration of effects is brief

199
Q

Two subgroups within the peptide hormone category

A

polypeptides and amino acid derivatives

200
Q

Polypeptide hormone examples

A

Insulin, complex tertiary structure with disulphide bridges
secreted by beta cells of the pancreatic islets of Langerhans in response to elevated blood glucose and binds to cell surface receptor with cytoplasmic domain processing protein kinase activity

201
Q

Amino acid derivatives and example

A

derived from single amino acids and contain no peptide bonds
ex. Tyr is parent molecule for catecholamines ( including epinephrine) and thyroid hormones

202
Q

Catcholamines

A

act like peptide hormones
Epinephrine is an example
small cyclic molecule secreted by adrenal medulla upon activation of the sympathetic nervous system
binds to cell surface receptors to trigger a cascade of events that produces the second messenger cyclic AMP cAMP and activates protein kinases in the cytoplasm

203
Q

Thyroid hormones

A

act like steroid hormones
incorporate I into their structure
enter cells, bind to DNA and activate transcription of the genes involved in E mobilization

204
Q

Steroid hormones

A

hydrophobic molecules synthesized from cholesterol in smooth ER
diffuse freely thru biological membranes
not stored but diffuse into blood soon after they are made
if not needed, then it is not made
because of the hydrophobicity, they cannot be dissolved in the plasma

205
Q

what holds the steroid bound to a plasma protein?

A

no bond- just hydrophobic interactions

206
Q

mechanism of steroid hormones

A

small hydrophobic steroid hormone exerts its effects upon target cells by diffusing thru plasma membrane to bind with a receptor in the cytoplasm
once it has bound its ligand, the steroid hormone-receptor complex is transported into nucleus, where it acts as a sequence-specific regulator of transcription
because steroid hormones must modify transcription to change the amount and type of proteins in the cell, effects are exerted slowly , over a period of days and persist for days to weeks

207
Q

endocrine glands that secrete steroids and peptides

A

steroids regulating sexuality, reproduction and development are secreted by the testes , ovaries and placenta
steroids regulating water balance and other processes are secreted by adrenal cortex
all other endocrine glands secrete peptide hormones

208
Q

structure of peptides vs steroids

A

pep: hydrophilic , large ( polypeptides) or small ( aa derivs)
st: hydrophobic, small

209
Q

site of synthesis for peptides vs steroids

A

pep: rough ER
st: smooth ER

210
Q

Regulation of release for peptides vs steroids

A

pep: stored in vesicles until a signal for secretion is received
st: synthesized only when needed and then used immediately, not stored

211
Q

transport in bloodstream for peptides vs. steroids

A

pep: free
st: stuck to protein carrier

212
Q

specificity for peptides vs steroids

A

pep: only target cells have appropriate surface receptors (exception: thyroxine =cytoplasmic)
st: only target cells have appropriate cytoplasmic receptors

213
Q

mechanism of effect for peptides vs steroids

A

pep: bind to receptors that generate second messengers which result in modification of enzyme activity
st: bind to receptors that alter gene expression by regulating DNA transcription

214
Q

timing of effect for peptides vs. steroids

A

pep: rapid, short-lived
st: slow, long-lasting

215
Q

Feedback regulation example with calcitonin

A

function of calcitonin is to prevent concentration of calcium in the serum from peaking above normal levels, and amount of calcitonin secreted is directly proportional to increase in concentration of calcium in serum above normal
when concentration of calcium becomes elevated, calcitonin is secreted
thus when concentration of calcium in serum levels fall, calcitonin secretion stops
falling serum Ca level ( which is regulated) feeds back to the cells which secrete calcitonin ( regulators)
the serum Ca level is a physiological endpoint which must be maintained at constant levels
demonstrates the role of endocrine system in maintaining homeostasis

216
Q

homeostasis

A

physiological consistency

217
Q

tropic hormones

A

hormones that regulate hormones

meta regulators

218
Q

role of ACTH

A

stimulate increased activity of portion of adrenal gland called the cortex, which is responsible for secreting cortisol and other steroid hormones
tropic hormone
does not directly affect physiological endpoints
regulates another regulator ( cortisol)

219
Q

cortisol

A

regulates physiological endpoints including cellular responses to stress and serum glucose

220
Q

feedback regulation for ACTH

A

level of ACTH is influenced by the cortisol

when cortisol is needed, ACTH is secreted, and when the serum cortisol increases sufficiently, ACTH secretion slows

221
Q

inhibitory secretion

A

negative feedback or feedback inhibition
when the secretion of hormone inhibits further secretion
most feedback in endo is negative

222
Q

Portion of brain which controls much of endocrine system

A

hypothalamus, located at the center of the brain

223
Q

hypothalamus role in endocrine system

A

controls endo by releasing tropic hormones that regulate other tropic hormones called releasing and inhibiting factors or hormones

224
Q

Ex of hypo regulation of endocrine system

A

hypo secretes corticotrophin releasing hormone ( CRH or CRF) F stands for factor
role of CRH is to cause increased secretion of ACTH
inhibited by cortisol like ACTH secretion

225
Q

damage to connection between hypo and pituitary

A

is fatal, unless daily hormonal replacement therapy is given

226
Q

hypothalamic-pituitary control axis

A

endocrine control center

227
Q

hypothalamus and pituitary

A

hypo controls pituitary by secreting hormones into bloodstream
unique mini circulatory system is provided for efficient transport of hypothalamic releasing and inhibitory factors to the anterior pituitary

228
Q

hypothalamic pituitary portal system

A

hypothalamic hypophysial portal system

blood supply which links the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland

229
Q

pituitary gland

A

hypophysis

has 2 halves: front ( anterior) and back ( posterior)

230
Q

general rule for blood leaving the heart

A

moves through a capilliary bed before returning to the heart, since pressure drops substantially in capiliaries

231
Q

portal system blood flow

A

portal system consist of 2 capilliary beds in sequence, allowing for direct communication between near by structures

232
Q

2 portal systems you need to understand

A

hypothalamic pituitary portal

hepatic portal system ( from GI to liver)

233
Q

Anterior pituitary

A

adenohypophysis
normal endocrine gland
controlled by hypothalamic releasing and inhibiting factors ( essentially tropic hormones)

234
Q

posterior pituitary

A

neurohypophysis
composed of axons which descend from the hypothalamus
consist of neuroendocrine cells from the hypo

235
Q

neuroendocrine cells

A

neurons that secrete hormones into the bloodstream

hypothalamic neurons that send axons down to post.r pit.y are an examples

236
Q

hormones of posterior pituitary

A

ADH ( antidiuretic hormone or vasopressin)
causes kidney to retain water during times of thirst
oxytocin : causes milk let-down for nursing as well as uterine contractions during labor

237
Q

Are the hormones of the posterior pituitary created by the axon termini in the posterior pituitary or somas in the hypothalamus ?

A

All hypothalamic and pituitary hormones are peptides, no protein synthesis at axon termini. Therefore, ADH and oxytocin must be made in nerve cell bodies in the hypothalamus and transported down the axons to the posterior pituitary .

238
Q

Is epinephrine secreted by duct into the bloodstream?

A

No. Endocrine hormones are not secreted through ducts.

239
Q

Hormones which have broad effects on metabolism and energy usage

A

Thryoid hormone and cortisol

240
Q

Thyroid hormone

A

produced from Tyr in the thyroid gland and comes in 2 forms, with 3 or 4 I atoms per molecule
production increased by thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) by the anterior pituitary , which is regulated by the hypo and the CNS

241
Q

Mechanism of action of thyroid hormone

A

bind to a receptor in the cytoplasm of cells that regulates transcription in the nucleus
effect of regulation: increase overall metabolic rate and body temperature and to stimulate growth in children
exposure to cold increases the production of thyroid hormone

242
Q

Cortisol

A

Secreted in response to ACTH from the pituitary by the adrenal cortex

243
Q

Effects of cortisol

A

help body deal with stress
helps to mobilize glycogen fat stores to provide energy during stress and increase consumption of proteins for energy
effects are essential, removal of adrenal cortex can result in death of animals exposed to even a little stress

244
Q

Long term effects of cortisol

A

negative

including suppression of the immune system

245
Q

Would an inhibitor of protein synthesis block the action of thyroid hormone?

A

Yes. Thyroid hormone binds to a receptor that regulates transcription. The mRNA stimulated by thyroid hormone receptor in the nucleus must be processed and translated before effects of thyroid hormone can become evident.

246
Q

Would the production of ATP by mitochondria be stimulated or repressed by thyroid hormone?

A

Thyroid hormone stimulates basal metabolic rate throughout the body. More ATP is consumed so mito is stimulated to make more ATP

247
Q

Would thyroid hormone affect isolated mitochondria directly?

A

No Thyroid hor affects mito indirectly, thru regulation of nuclear genes

248
Q
releasing and inhibiting factors :
 class and gland which releases it
A

peptides

hypothalamus

249
Q

releasing and inhibiting factors:
target
effect

A

target: anterior pituitary
effect: modify activity

250
Q
growth hormone:
 class and gland which releases it
A

peptides

anterior pituitary

251
Q

growth hormone:
target
effect

A

target: throughout the body, but primary one is the liver
effect: increase bone and muscle growth, increase cell turnover rate

252
Q
prolactin:
 class and gland which releases it
A

peptide

anterior pituitary

253
Q

prolactin:
target
effect

A

target: mammary gland
effect: milk production

254
Q
thyroid stimulating hormone :
 class and gland which releases it
A

tropic hormone
peptide
anterior pituitary

255
Q

TSH:
target
effect

A

target: thyroid
effect: increase synthesis and release of TH

256
Q
adrenocorticotrophic releasing hormone (ACTH) :
 class and gland which releases it
A

peptide
tropic hormone
anterior pituitary

257
Q

ACTH:
target
effect

A

target: adrenal cortex
effect: increase growth and secretory activity in adrenal cortex

258
Q
lutenizing hormone (LH) :
 class and gland which releases it
A

gonadotropic hormone
peptide
anterior pituitary

259
Q

LH:
target
effect

A

target: ovary, testes
effect: ovulation, testosterone synthesis

260
Q
follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) :
class and gland which releases it
A

gonadotropic hormone
peptide
anterior pituitary

261
Q

FSH:
target
effect

A

target: ovary, testes
effect: follicle development, spermatogenesis

262
Q
antidiuretic hormone (ADH) :
class and gland which releases it
A

aka vasopressin
peptide
posterior pituitary

263
Q

ADH:
target
effect

A

target: kidney

effect : water retention

264
Q
oxytocin :
class and gland which releases it
A

posterior pituitary

peptide

265
Q

oxytocin:
target
effect

A

target: breast, uterus
effect: milk letdown, contraction

266
Q
thyroid hormone : (TH)
class and gland which releases it
A

aka thyroxine
modified amino acid
thyroid

267
Q

TH:
target
effect

A

child: necessary for physical and mental development
adult: increase metabolic rate and temperature

268
Q
calcitonin:
class and gland which releases it
A

thyroid C cells

peptide

269
Q

calcitonin:
target
effect

A

target: bone , kidney
effect: lowers serum calcium ion concentration

270
Q
parathyroid hormone ( PTH):
class and gland which releases it
A

parathyroids

peptide

271
Q

PTH:
target
effect

A

target: bone, kidney small intestine
effect: raises serum calcium ion concentration

272
Q
thymosin:
class and gland which releases it
A

found in children only
peptide
thymus

273
Q

thymosin:
target
effect

A

T cell development during childhood

target: white blood cells

274
Q
epinephrine :
class and gland which releases it
A

modified amino acid

adrenal medulla

275
Q

epi :
target
effect

A

sympathetic stress response, rapid

target: muscles and blood vessels

276
Q
cortisol  :
class and gland which releases it
A

glucocorticoid
steroid
adrenal cortex

277
Q

cortisol:
target
effect

A

longer term stress response, increase in blood glucose concentration, increase protein catabolism, decrease inflammation and immunity
target: liver, fat, muscles

278
Q
aldosterone  :
class and gland which releases it
A

mineralcorticoid
steroid
adrenal cortex

279
Q

aldosterone:
target
effect

A

target: kidney

increase sodium ion reabsorption to increase blood pressure

280
Q
sex steroids  :
class and gland which releases it
A

steroids

adrenal cortex

281
Q

sex steroids:
target
effect

A

not normally important, but an adrenal tumour can over produce these, leading masculinization or femininization

282
Q
insulin:
class and gland which releases it
A

absent or ineffective in diabetes mellitus
secreted by beta cells
peptide
endocrine pancreas ( islets of Langerhans)

283
Q

insulin:
target
effect

A

decrease blood glucose and increase glycogen and fat storage

284
Q
glucagon:
class and gland which releases
A

alpha cells secrete
peptide
endocrine pancreas ( islets of Langerhans)

285
Q

glucagon:
target
effect

A

increase blood glucose and decrease glycogen and fat storage

286
Q
somatostatin:
class and gland which releases
A
peptide
delta cells secrete
endocrine pancreas ( islets of Langerhans)
287
Q

somatostatin:
target
effect

A

inhibits many digestive processes

288
Q
testosterone:
class and gland which releases
A

steroid

testes

289
Q

testosterone:
target
effect

A

male characteristics, spermatogenesis

290
Q
estrogen:
class and gland which releases
A

steroid

ovaries or placenta

291
Q

estrogen:
target
effect

A

female characteristics, endometrial growth

target: female reproductive system

292
Q
progesterone:
class and gland which releases
A

steroid,

ovaries or placenta

293
Q

progesterone:
target
effect

A

endometrial secretion, pregnancy

target: mammary glands, uterus

294
Q
atrial natriuretic factor (ANF)
class and gland which releases
A

peptide

heart secretes this

295
Q

ANF:
target
effect

A

target: kidney

increase urination to decrease blood pressure

296
Q
erythropoietin
class and gland which releases
A

peptide

kidney

297
Q

erythropoietin:
target
effect

A

target: bone marrow

increase RBC synthesis

298
Q

SC:

specific functions

A

Specific: controls simple stretch and tendon reflexes

controls primitive processes such as walking, urination and sex organ function

299
Q

Medulla:

specific functions

A

Specific: - controls autonomic processes such as blood pressure, blood flow , heart rate, respiratory rate, swallowing and vomiting

  • controls reflex reactions such as coughing and sneezing
  • relays sensory info to the cerebellum and thalamus
  • rhythymicity centers found here
300
Q

Pons: specific functions

A

Specific:

  • controls antigravity posture and balance
  • connects spinal chord and medulla with upper regions of brain
  • relays info to cerebellum and thalamus
  • receives info from vestibular apparatus in the inner ear, which monitors acceleration and position relative to gravity
301
Q

Cerebellum: specific functions

A

Specific:

  • Integrating center for complex movements
  • coordination of complex movement, balance and posture , muscle tone, spatial equilibrium
  • receives info from vestibular apparatus in the inner ear, which monitors acceleration and position relative to gravity
302
Q

Midbrain: specific functions

A

Specific:

  • integration of visual and auditory info
  • visual and auditory reflexes
  • wakefulness and consciousness
  • coordinates info on posture and muscle tone
  • contains much of reticular activating system (RAS) , which is responsible for arousal or wakefulness.
303
Q

Thalamus: specific functions

A

Specific:

  • relay and processing centers for somatic ( conscious) sensation
  • relay info between the spinal cord and cerebral cortex
304
Q

Hypo: specific functions

A

Specific:

  • controls homeostatic functions ( such as temp regulation, fluid balance, appetite) through both neural and hormonal regulation
  • controls primitive emotions such as anger, rage , sex drive
  • controls pituitary gland
  • contains centers for controlling emotions and autonomic functions, has a major role in hormone system especially since it has a primary link between nervous and endocrine systems and by controlling pituitary gland, is fundamental control center for endocrine system
305
Q

Basal nuclei: specific functions

A

Specific:

  • regulate body mvmt and muscle tone
  • coordination of learned mvmt patterns
  • general pattern of rhythm mvmts ( such as controlling the cycle of arm and leg movements during walking)
  • subconscious adjustments of conscious mvmts
  • voluntary motor control
306
Q

Limbic system: specific functions

A

Specific:

  • controls emotional states
  • links conscious and unconscious portions of the brain
  • helps with memory storage and retrieval
307
Q

Cerebral cortex: Specific functions

A

Specific:

  • divided into 4 lobes ( parietal, temporal, occipital , frontal) with specialized subfunctions
  • conscious though processes and planning, awareness and sensation
  • perception and processing of special senses ( vision, hearing, smell, taste, touch)
  • intellectual function ( intelligence, learning, reading, communication)
  • abstract thought and reasoning
  • memory storage and retrieval
  • initiation and coordination of voluntary mvmt
  • complex motor patterns
  • language ( speech production and understanding)
  • personality