Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ap world history yay > chapter 33 > Flashcards

chapter 33 Flashcards

the great war: the world in upheaval

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
AP® World History flashcards AP® U.S. History flashcards World History 101 flashcards European History 101 flashcards AP® European History flashcards World History 102 flashcards U.S. History 101 flashcards U.S. History 102 flashcards
1
Q

What ancient city was the capital of Bosnia-Herzegovina, twin provinces that had been under Ottoman rule since the 15th century?

A

Sarajevo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who annexed the twin provinces of Bosnia-Herzegovina in 1908?

A

Austria-Hungary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Who assassinated archduke Francis Ferdinand on June 28, 1914?

A

Bosnian Serb named Gavrilo Princip
- lunged at the archduke’s car and fired a revolver that left a gaping hole in the archduke’s neck, and also shot his wife in the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is pan-Serbism?

A

pertains to the unity of Serbs across the Balkan peninsula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What did Serbian nationalists despise archduke Francis Ferdinand, and his being the heir to the throne of Austria-Hungary?

A

Ferdinand was on record for favoring greater autonomy for the provinces, but Serbian nationalists hated the dynasty and the empire he represented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The conflict between what two powers following the assassination of archduke Francis Ferdinand, grew into a general European war, and ultimately into a global struggle involving 32 nations?

A

tensions between the Austro-Hungarian empire and the neighboring kingdom of Serbia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Out of the 32 nations involved in the Great War, 28 nations were collectively known as what?

A

the Allies and the Associated Powers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What was the name of the coalition that fought the Allies and the Associated Powers in the Great War? What countries did this coalition consist of?

A

The Central Powers: Germany, Austria-Hungary, the Ottoman empire, and Bulgaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

From what year to what year did the Great War span?

A

August 1914 to November 1918

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In terms of industrialization, why was the Great War particularly deadly?

A

total war depended on Industrial nations’ capacity to fight with virtually unlimited means and to conduct combat on a vast scale
- industrial nature of the conflict meant that it took the bloodiest in the history of organized violence–military casualties surpassed a threshold beyond previous experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The Great war led to the redrawing of ___________ boundaries and caused the demise of what four dynasties and their empires?

A
  1. Ottoman empire
  2. Russian empire
  3. Austrian-Hungarian empire
  4. German empire
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The Great War gave birth to what nine new nations?

A
  1. Yugoslavia
  2. Austria
  3. Hungary
  4. Czechoslovakia
  5. Poland
  6. Lithuania
  7. Latvia
  8. Estonia
  9. Finland
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Between what two great powers was the Great War responsible for the international realignment of power (shifted global dominance of the world to what nation)?

A

Europe and the United States
- undermined the preeminence and prestige of European society, signaling end to Europe’s global primacy
- United States lomed as an economic world power that played a key role in global affairs in the coming decades

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Nationalism was one of the underlying causes of the Great War besides archduke Francis Ferdinand’s assassination being the catalyst for the war. How did European nationalism start and spread? What were its effects in general?

A
  • French revolution and Napoleonic conquests spread nationalism throughout most of Europe, promoted self-determination
  • Self-determination vs dynastic and reactionary powers that dominated European affairs = powerful nationalistic movements and revolutions that unified nations, but also threatened to tear apart other nations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the concept of self-determination?

A

Belief popular in World War I and after that every people should have the right to determine their own political destiny; the belief was often cited but ignored by the Great Powers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Powerful nationalistic movements and revolutions allowed what three main powers to gain independence and/or unify their nation?

A
  1. Belgians gained independence from Netherlands in 1830
  2. promoted unification of Italy in 1861
  3. secured the unification of Germany in 1871
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Powerful nationalistic movements and revolutions in Europe threatened to tear apart what three main multinational empires?

A
  1. Ottoman
  2. Habsburg
  3. Russian dynasties
    - also with these dynasties, the balance of power
    - opposition to foreign rule played a large role in the construction of national identities and demands for self-determination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What territory of the Ottoman empire was the first to gain independence in 1830?

A

Greece
- Serbia, Romania, and Bulgaria followed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Poles, Czechs, Slovaks, Serbs, Croats, and Slovenes are referred to as _________ peoples.

A

Slavic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What was the Pan-Slavism movement and what did it seek to do?

A

19th century movement that stressed the ethnic and cultural kinship of the various Slav peoples of eastern and east central Europe
- sought to unite those peoples politically
- supported Slav nationalism in lands occupied by Austria-Hungary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How and why did Russia support Serbia, and their pressing for the unification with the independent kingdom of Serbia?

A

promoted Pan-Slavism!!
- to promote secession by Slav areas, thereby weakening Austrian rule and perhaps preparing territories for future Russian annexation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What European power backed Austria-Hungary in their confrontation with nationalist aspirations of Slavic peoples?

A

Germany

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In 1870, Britain produced what percent of the world’s total industrial output compared with Germany?

A

Britain: 32%
Germany: 13%
- by 1914, Britain had dropped to 14%, rough equivalence of industrial output strained relations between two economic powers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What were dreadnoughts, and which European power decided to construct these in response to a threat by Germany’s increasingly large naval fleet of battleships?

A

BRITAIN: A class of British battleships whose heavy armaments made all other battleships obsolete overnight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What were dreadnought warships characterized by?

A

high speed supplied by steam turbines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What two colonial powers faced off in Persia and Afghanistan?

A

Britian and Russia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What two colonial powers clashed in Siam (modern-day Thailand) and the Nile valley?

A

Britain and France

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What two European colonial powers clashed in east and southwest Africa?

A

Britain and Germany

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Germany and France disputed over colonies in what two regions (in Africa)?

A

Morocco and west Africa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What two European powers fought over Morocco in 1905 and threatened to start a war, had it not been for an international conference in Algeciras, Spain in the following year?

A

France and Germany
- trying to isolate the French diplomatically, the German government announced its support of Moroccan independence, which French encroachment endangered
- French responded to German intervention by threatening war

Germany probably acted this way because many of its imperial efforts were frustrated by the fact that British and French imperialists had already carved up most of the world

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What were the five states of the Balkan peninsula that fought two consecutive wars for possession of European territories held by the Ottoman empire?

A

Bulgaria, Greece, Montenegro, Serbia, and Romania

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When did the two Balkan wars take place? What was the impact of these wars?

A

Between 1912 and 1913
- Balkan wars strained European diplomatic relations and helped shape the tense circumstances that led to the outbreak of the Great War

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Compelled to achieve headline-grabbing foreign policy successes, policymakers and diplomats ran the risk of paying for ____________ triumphs with ______________ hostility from other countries.

A

short-lived; long-lasting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Mass production of newspapers, pamphlets, and books that fueled feelings of national arrogance and aggressive patriotism represented innovations in what that contributed to stronger pressure towards national greatness?

A

new means of COMMUNICATION nourished the public’s desire to see their country “come in first” (winning races and conflicts of the world beyond their home country)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Intended to preserve peace, rival alliance systems created a framework whereby even a ________ ____________ crisis could set off a chain reaction leading to _________ war.

A

small; international; global

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What was the common characteristic underlying all alliances made amidst escalating national rivalries and nationalist aspirations of subject minorities?

A

they outlined the circumstances under which countries would go to war to support one another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What major alliance grew out of a close relationship that developed between Germany and Austria-Hungary during the last 3 decades of the 19th century?

A

The Triple Alliance, also known as the Central Powers (Germany, Austria-Hungary, and the Ottoman empire)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

In 1879, the governments of Germany and Austria-Hungary formed what alliance as a defensive pact that ensured protection from a Russian attack and neutrality in case of an attack from any other power?

A

the Dual Alliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What was the main reason that Germans entered into the Dual Alliance pact?

A

fear of a hostile France

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What was the main reason that Austro-Hungarians entered the Dual Alliance pact?

A

viewed it as giving them a free hand in pursuing their Balkan politics without fear of Russian intervention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What European power joined the Dual Alliance in 1882, and transformed it into the Triple Alliance?

A

Italy, fearful of France

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What were the four threats that Italy posed in the Triple Alliance that threatened to wreck the alliance for other powers?

A
  1. Italian policy of expansion at the expense of the Ottoman empire
  2. Italy’s rivalry with Austria-Hungary
  3. Italian declaration of war on the Ottoman empire in 1911
  4. drive to annex the Tripoli region of northern Africa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How did the European powers of Russia, Britain, and France react to the Triple Alliance/which power did they feel threatened by?

A

France: determined to curb the growing might of Germany, especially after their humiliating defeat in the Franco-Prussian War
Russia: disturbed especially by Germany’s support of Austria
Britain: suspicious of any nation that seemed to threaten the balance of power on the Continent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The nations of France, Russia, and Britain formed what alliance that was more commonly referred to as the Allies?

A

Triple Entente
- organized series of agreements between Britain and France (1904) and Britain and Russia (1907) that aimed to resolve colonial disputes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The preservation of peace amidst the formation of military alliances was party difficult because the military staffs of each nation had devised _________ military plans and timetables to be carried out in the event of war.

A

inflexible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What did French military strategy revolve around? What did the plan amount to/what did it ultimately command?

A

Plan XVII = veritable celebration of offensive maneuvers = ATTACK
- enemy’s intentions are inconsequential, and huge number of casualties weren’t considered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

German war plans, devised out of fear of encirclement (isolating some area of importance of the enemy), were based on a strategy developed by who in 1905?

A

General Count Alfred von Schlieffen (1833-1913)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What did Germany’s Schlieffen plan (developed by General Count Alfred von Schlieffen) call for?

A

swift knockout of France, followed by defensive action against Russia
- predicted strategy on knowledge that Russians couldn’t mobilize army as quickly as the French, allotting them time to concentrate full power on France

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What were the two main downsides to Germany’s Schlieffen war plan?

A
  1. serious logistical problems with moving 180,000 soldiers and their supplies into France and Belgium on 500 trains, with 50 wagons each
  2. serious obstacle to those seeking to preserve the peace
    - in event of Russian mobilization, Germany’s leaders would stick to plan and set in motion military conflict of major proportions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

By July of 1914, Austrian investigators had linked the assassins of archduke Francis Ferdinand to what terrorist group?

A

the Black Hand
- centered in Serbia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What was the Black Hand terrorist group dedicated to/what was their ultimate goal?

A

dedicated to the unification of all south Slavs (Yugoslavs) to form a greater Serbia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

As far as Serbian nationalists were concerned, the principal obstacle to Slavic unity was the _________________ empire, which explains why the heir to the Habsburg throne was a symbolic victim.

A

Austro-Hungarian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Determined to teach the Serbs a lesson, the Austrians issued a nearly unacceptable ultimatum to the government of Serbia to which the Serbian government accepted all terms except for what term?

A
  • ultimatum demanded that Austrian officials take part in any Serbian investigation of persons found on Serbian territory connected to the assassination of Francis Ferdinand
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What did Austria-Hungary do after determining Serbia’s reply to their ultimatum to be unsatisfactory?

A

Austria-Hungary declared war on Serbia and the Great War had begun

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What two main factors largely determined how the beginning of the Great War between Austria-Hungary and Serbia would play out?

A
  1. complex mobilization plans
    - mobilization orders and adherence to precise timetables = crucial to successful conduct of war
    - had to redirect all economic and social activities to support military efforts
  2. grinding logic of the alliance system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which Russian tsar took the decisive step in ordering mobilization against Germany?

A

Nicholas II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

After Nicholas II ordered mobilization against Germany, how did Germany react/what did they do to Russia?

A

precipitated a German ultimatum to Russia on July 31, demanding that the Russian army cease its mobilization immediately
- Russia replied with blunt “impossible”
- Germany also issued ultimatum to France demanding to know what their intentions were in case Germany and Russia went to war

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

After the Russians replied to the German’s ultimatum with a blunt “impossible”, and the French never answered, what did the German government do on August 1?

A

declared war on Russia, and France started to mobilize
- waited two more days and Germans declared war on France on August 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Why did German troops invade Belgium in accordance with the Schlieffen plan/why was it key to the plan?

A

wanted to attack weaker part of French army by a massive German force through Belgium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Over what conflict with Germany did Britain enter the war?

A

Germany was trying to invade Belgium to attack at the French army, but Belgian government refused to permit passage and called on signatories of treaty of 1839, which guaranteed Belgium’s neutrality
- Britain = one of the treaty’s signatories, and when German wartime leaders refused to respect British ultimatum demanding Belgian neutrality be respected, Britain declared war

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What treaty, guaranteeing Belgian neutrality, did the Belgian government call on when refusing to permit the passage of German troops through Belgium?

A

treaty of 1839

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

In the spirit of glory and honor, and believing that God was on their side, what was the inscription on the belt buckle of German recruits?

A

Gott mit uns (“God is with us”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What did British soldiers call for going into battle?

A

“For God, King, and Country”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

In 1915, what happened to Italy regarding its place in the Triple Alliance?

A

Italy left the Triple Alliance in favor of neutrality, but entered the war on the side of the Allies in 1915

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What did the Allies’ Treaty of London promise?

A

once victory was secured, they would surrender Austro-Hungarian-controlled territories to Italy
- specifically south Tyrol and most of the Dalmatian coast
- hoped that the Italians would pierce Austrian defenses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Trenches on the __________ front ran from the English Channel to Switzerland.

A

western

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What was no-man’s-land? How was barbed wire effective in these areas?

A

the deadly territory between opposing trenches
- barbed wire proved highly effective in frustrating the advance of soldiers across no-man’s land

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Who developed the machine gun?

A

by Confederate troops during the US Civil War
- one of the most important advances in military technology and compelled military leaders on all sides to rethink their battlefield tactics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What was the most unconventional weapon developed by industrial societies?

A

poisonous gas
- first used by German troops in January 1915

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What was a especially hated and much feared weapon by troops in trenches that when exposed to air, turned into a noxious yellow gas and rotted the body from within and without?

A

mustard gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Who first introduced tanks in September 1916, which the Allies deployed them to break down defensive trenches and to restore fighting?

A

the British

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The plane and the tank figured more prominently as important strategic weapons during what war?

A

Second World War

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Because airplanes could not carry enough weapons to do serious damage to troops or installations on the ground, their real asset during the Great War was _________ __________________.

A

aerial reconnaissance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

How did the submarine begin to play a significant role in the Great War? Who used it effectively for their navy?

A

German navy deployed their diesel-powered submarine fleet against Allied commercial shipping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

In 1916, what did the Germans try to do that lead to devastating casualties and none of the participants gained any strategic advantage?

A

tried to break the stalemate with a huge assault on the fortress of Verdun
- French did not let the Germans pass, but at a tremendous cost:
French= 315,000 dead
Germans= 280,000 dead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Because they were crucial to the war effort, millions of people out of uniform became _________ of _________ military operations.

A

targets; enemy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What was a German zepellin?

A

a hydrogen-filled dirigible (one of those poofy hot-air balloon things that usually say “Good Year” on it) whose underbelly rained bombs
- heralded a new kind of warfare, air war against civilians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What were some main concerns of the Alliance?

A
  • worries over two-front war (these nations are in central Europe, and would have to fight enemies on both sides of them)
  • worries over English domination of the sea
  • worries over possibility of French attack, Prussian interference over Austrian Balkan policies
79
Q

In addition to the German zeppelins, what was a less novel, but more effective means of targeting civilian populations?

A

naval blockade
- used to deny food to whole populations
- hoping that starving masses would force their governments to capitulate

80
Q

The British blockade of Germany during the war contributed to the deaths of an estimated how many Germans?

A

half-million Germans

81
Q

Who was a former chief of the Prussian General Staff that said that future wars would not end with a single battle because the defeat of a nation would not be acknowledged until the whole strength of its people was broken?

A

Helmuth Karl von Moltke (1800-1891)

82
Q

What is total war/its characteristics?

A

war fought between entire societies, not just between armies
- total victory was the only acceptable outcome that might justify the terrible sacrifices made by all sides
- the nature of total war created a military front and a home front

83
Q

War on the western front was characterized with three years of what, and how did they fight it?

A

three years of stalemate
- trenches from English channel to Switzerland

84
Q

War on the eastern front, was characterized by more of what?

A

MOVEMENT
- a lot more like modern warfare, more movement than on the western front in trenches

85
Q

What did the term “home front” refer to?

A

essentially the civilian “front”–symbolic of the greater demands of the total war
- outcome of the war depended on how effectively each nation mobilized its economy and activated its noncombatant citizens to support the war effort

86
Q

As war weariness and a decline in economic capability set in, the response of nations was to limit individual freedoms and give control of society increasing over to whom?

A

military leaders
- patriotism and courage alone could not guarantee victory, government of nations in war assumed control of the home front (civilian “front”)

87
Q

Because bloody battlefields caused an insatiable appetite for soldiers, nations responded by extending ________ _______. This constant tapping into the available male population created an increasing demand for workers at _______, and __________ vanished virtually overnight.

A

military service; home; unemployment

88
Q

Conscription took _____ out of the labor force, and wartime leaders exhorted _______ to fill the gaps in the workforce.

A

men; women

89
Q

What was considered the most crucial work performed by women during the war/what did they make that was so important? What was the dangers of this work?

A

shells
- several million women and sometimes children put in long, hard hours in munitions factories, but the work exposed them to severe dangers from explosions to TNT poisoning

90
Q

How did middle and upper-class women view the war versus working-class women in cities?

A

middle and upper-class women: liberating experience, freeing them from older attitudes that had limited their work and their personal lives
working-class women: war proved less than liberating, promise of equal pay often remained unfulfilled, industrial wages rose, but measurable gap always remained between incomes of men and women

91
Q

How did the Great War contribute to the granting of greater rights to women in Britain, Germany, and Austria compared to in Russia and China?

A

Britain, Germany, and Austria extended voting rights to women shortly after the war, due in part to the role women assumed during the Great War
Great War served as liberating forces for women in Russia and China where new communist governments discouraged the patriarchal family system and supported sexual equality

92
Q

Who was a former prime minister of France who spent two years in prison awaiting trial because he had publicly suggested that the best interest of France would be to reach a compromise peace with Germany?

A

Joseph Caillaux
- representative of how some government officials busily censored war news, while some people had the temerity to criticize their nation’s war effort

93
Q

Amidst a time of raging propaganda, ironically, public disbelief of wartime propaganda led to an inability to believe in the abominations perpetrated during __________ wars.

A

subsequent

94
Q

What did the “Times” of London publish about Germans in a story in 1917?

A

claimed that Germans converted human corpses into fertilizer and food

95
Q

For what three main reasons did European civil war turn into a global conflict (in regards to the belligerent nations and their relationship with their colonies)?

A
  1. European governments carried their animosities into their colonies, embroiling them (especially African societies) in their war
  2. Europe’s human reserves were not enough, and British and French augmented their ranks by recruiting men from their colonies
  3. desires and objectives of some principal actors (Japan, US, and the Ottoman empire) that entered the conflict had little to do with the murder in Sarajevo or the other issues that drove the Europeans to battle
96
Q

The British relied on troops from what colonies to support their military efforts in the Great War?

A

Australia, New Zealand, Canada, Newfoundland, South Africa, and India

97
Q

On August 15, 1914, the Japanese government sent an ultimatum to which European power demanding that they hand over their territory of Jiaozhou (northeastern China) to Japanese authorities without compensation?

A

Germany
- same note also demanded that Germany navy unconditionally withdraw its warships from Japanese and Chinese waters

98
Q

How did Germany and Japan react to the Germans’ refusal to hand over Jiaozhou and withdraw their warships from Japanese and Chinese waters?

A

Germans refused to comply, Japanese entered the war on the side of the Allies on 23 August 1914

99
Q

Between August and November of 1914, what colonies/lands of the Germans did the Japanese take posession of?

A

Marshall Islands, the Mariana Islands, Palau, and the Carolines
- New Zealand and Australia joined Japan in seizing German-held Pacific Islands–portions of Samoa and German-occupied possessions in the BIsmarck Archipelago and New Guinea

100
Q

What was the Twenty-one Demands issued by Japan on China significant for (in terms of Japan’s authority in the world, and its relationship with China)?

A

reflected Japan’s determination to dominate east Asia and served as the basis for future Japanese pressure on China

101
Q

What were some of the most important demands of the Japanese twenty-one demands, presented to the Chinese government on 18 January 1915?

A
  • Chinese confirm the Japanese seizure of Shandong from Germany
  • grant Japanese industrial monopolies in central China
  • place Japanese overseers in key government positions
  • give Japan point control of Chinese police forces
  • restrict their arms purchases to Japanese manufacturers
  • could make those purchases only with the approval of the Tokyo government
102
Q

What were the four German colonies in Africa?

A

Togoland, the Cameroons, German Southwest Africa, and German East Africa

103
Q

Allied forces in Africa included individuals from what European powers ?

A

British, Portuguese, French, and Belgian troops
- Indian, Arab, and African soldiers too

104
Q

_______ were frequently more deadly than Germans; tens of thousands of Allied soldiers and workers succumbed to deadly _________ diseases.

A

Germs; tropical

105
Q

The Ottomans were a weak ally of which main European alliance group?

A

Central Powers

106
Q

Who was the first lord of the Admiralty (British navy) who suggested that an Allied strike against the Ottomans would hurt the Germans?

A

Winston Churchill (1874-1965)

107
Q

How did the military campaign at Gallipoli begin/what were the British and French intentions behind it?

A

1915- British and French naval forces conducted an expedition to seize the approach to the Dardanelles Strait in an attempt to open a warm-water supply line to Russia through the Ottoman-controlled strait

108
Q

What was the result of the military campaign at Gallipoli? How many casualties were there?

A

250,000 casualties on each side
- stalemate, took Allied leaders nine months to admit that their campaign had failed

109
Q

Although the British directed the ill-fated Gallipoli campaign, it was what three groups that suffered terrible casualties?

A

Canadians, Australians, and New Zealanders suffered terrible casualties

110
Q

How is the day 25 April 1915 significant in Australia?

A

the date of the fateful landing, became enshrined as Anzac Day (acronym for Australian and New Zealand Army Corps)
- remains the country’s most significant day of public homage

111
Q

Whose political career as a commander of the Turkish division was launched at the battle for the Dardanelles Strait (Gallipoli military campaign)?

A

Mustafa Kemal (1881-1938)
- went on to play a crucial role in the formation of the modern Turkish state

112
Q

Who was the last major non-Muslim ethnic group under Ottoman rule seeking autonomy and eventual independence?

A

Armenians

113
Q

After 1913 the Ottoman state adopted a new policy of __________ nationalism, which only aggravated tensions between Turkish rulers and non-Turkish subjects of the empire.

A

Turkish

114
Q

Who did the Ottoman state view as a particular obstacle to their new policies of Turkism?

A

Christian minorities

115
Q

During the Great War, what ethnic group did the Ottoman government brand as a traitorous internal enemy, who threatened the security of the state, and then unleashed a murderous campaign against?

A

Armenians
- wartime atrocities that took place principally between 1915 and 1917 have become known as Armenian genocide

116
Q

Best estimates suggest how many Armenians were victim to the Ottomans’ Armenian genocide?

A

one million

117
Q

Although it was generally agreed that the Armenian genocide occurred, how did the Turkish government reject this and view Armenian deaths?

A

rejected labels of genocide and claimed that Armenian deaths resulted from communal warfare perpetrated by Christians and Muslims, disease, and famine

118
Q

In 1916, encouraged by what European nation did the nomadic bedouin of Arabia and others rise up against Turkish rule?

A

Britain

119
Q

Who led the nomadic bedouin of Arabia to rise up against Turkish rule?

A

Hussein bin Ali, sharif of Mecca and king of the Hejaz

120
Q

The motivation for the Arab revolt centered on achieving what two main things?

A
  1. securing independence from the Ottoman empire
  2. creating a unified Arab nation spanning lands from Syria to Yemen
    - British government did not keep its promise of Arab independence after the war
121
Q

How did the secret agreement, the Sykes-Picot Treaty of 1916, between British and French governments affect Arabs in 1917?

A

divided the Arab provinces of the Ottoman empire outside the Arabian peninsula into areas of British and French control

122
Q

What did the Balfour Declaration of 1917 do? Who issued it, and who was affected?

A

British government issued, publicly declared its support for “the establishment in Palestine of a national home for the Jewish people”
- created future source of conflict, Arab lands given away

123
Q

Who did the provisional government of the Romanov dynasty have to yield their power to, which ultimately took Russia out of the war in early 1918?

A

Bolshevik revolutionaries

124
Q

How did the Great War undermine the Russian state, and cause the Romanov dynasty to disappear after more than 300 years of uninterrupted rule?

A

spring of 1917, disintegrating armies, mutinies, food shortages provoked strikes in St. Petersburg = police forces unable to suppress uprisings = mutiny of troops garrisoned in the capital and persuaded Tsar Nicholas II to abdicate the throne = Russia ceased to be a monarchy

125
Q

Which Russian tsar was persuaded to abdicate his throne, and caused Russia to cease to be a monarchy, and brought an end to the Romanov dynasty?

A

Tsar Nicholas II (r. 1894-1917)

126
Q

During the spring of 1917, the Russian state’s being undermined through street demonstrations and strikes was referred to as what?

A

the March revolution (or the February Revolution)

127
Q

After success in Petrograd (St. Petersburg) and the Russian revolution spread throughout the country, what two new agencies did political power in Russia shift to?

A
  1. provisional government
  2. the Petrograd soviet of Workers’ and Soldiers’ Deputies (revolutionary councils organized by socialists)
128
Q

The period between March and November 1917 was characterized by political struggle between Russia’s provisional government and the powerful Petrograd soviet. What was a fundamental point that these agencies disagreed on?

A

provisional government: failed to satisfy popular demands for an end to war and for land reform
- claimed that being provisional, it could not make fundamental changes
Petrograd soviet: called for an immediate peace
- determined to end the war and hence gain more support from the people of Russia

129
Q

Although he was a Marxist, how did Vladimir Lenin’s views of the industrial working class contrast with Marx’s?

A

viewed the industrial working class as incapable of developing the proper revolutionary consciousness that would lead to effective political action (aka the proletariat wouldn’t be powerful, rich, strong, enough to overthrow the capitalists)

130
Q

To Vladimir Lenin the industrial proletariat required what in order for revolution and for the realization of a socialist society?

A

required the leadership of a well-organized and highly discipline party

131
Q

Who was a revolutionary Marxist who was transported to Russia by the German High Command to stir up trouble and bring about Russia’s withdrawal from the war and lead the Bolsheviks?

A

Vladimir Ilyich Lenin (1870-1924)

132
Q

Heading the Bolsheviks, the radical wing of the Russian Social Democratic Party, what did Vladimir Lenin advocate for?

A
  • called for the transfer of legal authority to the soviets
  • advocated uncompromising opposition to the war
    (Lenin’s party originally opposed his radicalism, but soon converted to his proposals)
133
Q

What were the three main policies/factors contributing to the ease of the Bolsheviks’ gaining control of the Petrograd soviet (regarding the provisional government)?

A

provisional government
1. kept insisting on continuing the war
2. unable to feed the population
3. refusal to undertake land reform
- policies led to growing conviction among workers and peasants that their problems could only be solved by the soviets

134
Q

In April 1916, Irish nationalists mounted what rebellion which attempted unsuccessfully to overthrow British rule in Ireland?

A

Great Easter Rebellion

135
Q

The Central Powers suffered food shortages as a result of the ___________ blockade, and increasing numbers of people took to the streets to demonstrate against declining food rations.

A

British

136
Q

For the first ____ years of the Great War, most people supported their governments’ war efforts, but the continuing ravages and years of bloodletting took their toll everywhere.

A

two

137
Q

By the spring of 1918, Germany took the risk of throwing its remaining might at the western front, and the Allies breaking through the front and pushing the Allies back was a result of what on Germany’s part?

A

by that time, Germany had effectively exhausted its human and material means to wage war

138
Q

Finally, at the conclusion of the war, the Germans accepted a truce that took effect when?

A

11 November 1918

139
Q

The virulent influenza pandemic left more than ________ million dead.

A

twenty
- the disease killed more people than the Great War

140
Q

Which group of society did influenza affect with particular ferocity?

A

young adults

141
Q

Why do contemporaries call influenza the Spanish flu?

A

the first major documented outbreak of the disease occurred in SPain in late 1918

142
Q

Who was the representative of France at the postwar settlement in Paris in 1919?

A

Georges Clemenceau (1841-1929)

143
Q

Who was the representative of Great Britain at the postwar settlement in Paris in 1919?

A

Lloyd George (1863-1945)

144
Q

Who was the representative of the United States at the postwar settlement in Paris in 1919?

A

Woodrow Wilson

145
Q

Significantly, which European nation was not invited to the postwar conference/settlement in Paris?

A

the Soviet Union

146
Q

The potential of the League of Nations was severly limited because of what nation’s refusal to join?

A

the United States

147
Q

One estimate puts deaths in India due to influenza at ________ million.

A

seven

148
Q

In the United States, the flu killed more Americans than all the wars fought in the ___________ century put together.

A

twentieth

149
Q

Which region of the world suffered the worst of all by the flu?

A

the Pacific Islands, wiped out up to 25% of their entire population

150
Q

How many nations were represented in the Paris Peace Conference?

A

27

151
Q

Open agreements of peace, absolute freedom of navigation on seas in peace and war, removal of all economic barriers and the establishment of an equality of trade conditions among all nations, adequate guarantees for a reduction in national armaments, etc. were some key points in what? Who promoted these ideas?

A

Woodrow Wilsonś Fourteen Points

152
Q

In addition to requiring ___________ to accept sole responsibility and guilt for causing the war, the victors demanded a reduction in the military potential of the former Central Powers.

A

Germany

153
Q

What did the Treaty of Versailles (1919) do to the Germans?

A
  • denied the Germans of a navy and an air force
  • limited the size of German army to 100,000 troops
  • prohibited Germany and Austria from entering into any kind of political union
154
Q

Although the German government and the public decried the Treaty of ___________ as being excessively harsh, it was no more severe in its terms than the Treaty of ______-_________ that the Germans imposed on Russia in 1918.

A

Versailles; Brest-Litovsk

155
Q

What European nation accepted the Treaty of Neuilly (1919) and ceded only small portions of territory?

A

Bulgaria
- Allies didn’t want major territorial changes to destabilize the Balkans

156
Q

Under the impact of the war, what happened to the dual monarchy of Austria-Hungary?

A

imperial unity disintegrated, peacemakers recognized the territorial breakup of the former empire in two separate treaties

157
Q

The Allies and the Republic of Austria recognized the breakup of Austria-Hungary in what treaty?

A

the Treaty of St. Germain (1919)

158
Q

The Allies and the kingdom of Hungary recognized the territorial breakup of Austria-Hungary in what treaty?

A

the Treaty of Trianon (1920)

159
Q

Austria and Hungary suffered severe territorial losses in the peace settlement that reduced Hungarian territory to _________ of its prewar size and decreased the nation’s population from 28 to ___ million people.

A

one-third; 8

160
Q

What treaty effectively dissolved the Ottoman empire, and called for the surrender of Ottoman Balkan and Arab provinces and the occupation of eastern and southern Anatolia by foreign powers.

A

the Treaty of Sèvres (1920)

161
Q

While the Treaty of Sèvres was acceptable to the government of sultan Mohammad VI, Turkish nationalists rallying around their wartime hero _________ _______ set out to defy the Allied terms.

A

Mustafa Kemal

162
Q

After Mustafa Kemal organized a national army that drove out Greek, British, French, and Italian occupation forces and abolished the sultanate, and replaced it with the Republic of Turkey, what did the Allied powers do?

A

officially recognized the Republic of Turkey in a final peace agreement, the Treaty of Lausanne (1923)

163
Q

What did Mustafa Kemal become known as now that he was the president of the republic?

A

Ataturk (“Father of the Turks”)

164
Q

The Turkish government’s policy of __________ dictated the complete separation between the existing _______ religious establishment and the state.

A

secularism; Muslim

165
Q

The two decades following the peace settlement became merely a __________ year truce, characterized by power rivalries and intermittent violence that led to yet another global war.

A

twenty

166
Q

What were the two main flaws of the League of Nations?

A
  1. it had no power to enforce its decisions
  2. it relied on collective security as a tool for the preservation of global peace
167
Q

What was the basic premise underlying collective security arrangements?

A

the concept that aggression against any one state was considered aggression against all the other states

168
Q

Ironically because the League of Nations was proposed by Woodrow Wilson, who was one of the major powers that did not join the League of Nations?

A

the United States

169
Q

The League of Nations established the pattern for a permanent international organization and served as a model for its successor, the __________ ___________.

A

United Nations

170
Q

The principal of self-determination translated into reality for what three European nations?

A

Poland, Czechoslovakia, and Yugoslavia

171
Q

The League of Nations divided the mandates into three classes based on what?

A

the presumed development of their populations in the direction of fitness for self-government

172
Q

What was the mandate system? When was it developed?

A

System that developed in the wake of World War I when the former colonies ended up mandates under European control, a thinly veiled attempt at continuing imperialism.

173
Q

Where the Arabs hoped to form independent states, the French (in Lebanon and Syria) and the British (in Iraq and Palestine) established _________.

A

mandates

174
Q

The Allies viewed the mandate system as a reasonable compromise between the reality of ____________ and the ideal of ______-_____________.

A

imperialism; self-determination

175
Q

The war of 1914-1918 accelerated the growth of _____________ in the European-controlled parts of the world, fueling desires for independence and self-determination.

A

nationalism

176
Q

Nothing is more indicative of Europe’s reduced economic might than the reversal of the economic relationship between __________ and the ___________ _______.

A

Europe; United States
- whereas the US was a debtor nation before 1914, owing billions of dollars to European investors, by 1919 it was a major creditor

177
Q

Describe how Europe’s colonies responded and contributed to Europe’s loss of prestige and undermined global hegemony?

A

Europe seemed weak, divided, and vulnerable, white overlords no longer appeared destined to rule over colonized subjects
- colonials who returned home from the war were less inclined to be obedient imperial subjects
- war helped spread revolutionary ideas to the colonies

178
Q

Who publicly proposed that “the interests of the native populations be given equal weight with the desires of European governments”?

A

Woodrow Wilson
- seemed to call for nothing less than national independence and self-rule

179
Q

Nationalists struggling to organize anti-imperialist resistance sought inspiration from what European power, whose leaders denounced all forms of imperialism and pledged their support to independence movements?

A

the Soviet Union

180
Q

What was one of the Bolsheviks most famous slogans?

A

“Peace, Land, and Bread”

181
Q

The night of November 6, when armed workers, soldiers, and sailors stormed the winter palace (the home of the provisional government), is also known as what?

A

The November Revolution
- virtually overnight, power passed into the hands of Vladimir Lenin and the Bolshevik Party

182
Q

Who referred to the happenings of the November Revolution as “ten days that shook the world”?

A

US journalist John Reed

183
Q

Bolshevik rulers signed what document with Germany on 3 March 1918 ending Russia’s involvement in the Great War?

A

the Treaty of Brest-Litovsk

184
Q

What was the tradeoffs of Russia signing the treaty of Brest-Litovsk with Germany?

A
  • gave the Germans control over much of Russia’s territory and one quarter of its population
  • terms were harsh and humiliating but withdrawing from the war gave Russia and opportunity to deal with internal problems
185
Q

What did Russia’s departure from the war mean for Germany?

A

Germany could concentrate all of its resources on the western front (one enemy down, a few to go, but no longer divided between the two)

186
Q

What year did the United States enter the Great War on the side of the Allies?

A

1917

187
Q

Which American president was reelected on a platform of nonintervention with the Great War, but soon changed?

A

Woodrow Wilson
- soon pursued a neutrality that favored the Allies, later increasingly committed economically to Allied vicotry

188
Q

During the first two years of the war, US unemployment was at a low of what percent?

A

15 percent

189
Q

As the US economy was in serious business recession, what did their economic recovery become dependent upon as the war progressed?

A

sale of war materials!!
- especially British orders for munitions

190
Q

What were the two main factors that made US direct participation in the Great War more imperative for an Allied victory, and the ability to pay of Allied war debts?

A
  1. Allies took huge loans with American banks
  2. 1917 Allies had depleted their means of paying for essential supplies from the US, could not have maintained war effort had US remained neutral
191
Q

Aside from paying off war debts and the Allies’ reliance on the US for war supplies, what was the official factor in the US’s decision to enter the Great War?

A

Germany’s resumption of unrestricted submarine warfare in February 1917

192
Q

What was the name of the British passenger liner sank by the Germans on May 7, 1915, with a loss of 1,198 lives including 128 US citizens?

A

Lusitania

193
Q

The coded telegram dispatched by the foreign secretary of the German empire Arthur Zimmerman, to the German ambassador in Mexico in 1917 was also known as what?

A

the Zimmerman telegram

194
Q

What message was encoded in the Zimmerman telegram/what did it ask of the Mexican government?

A

diplomatic proposal for Mexico to join the Central Powers in the event of the United States joining the Great War on the side of the Triple Entente
- in return for military service, Mexico was promised territories in Texas, New Mexico, and Arizona

ap world history yay (26 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions