Chapter 30 - Alterations of Cardiovascular Function Flashcards

1
Q

Atherosclerosis raises the systolic blood pressure by:

a. increasing arterial distensibility and vessel lumen radius or diameter
b. increasing arterial distensibility and decreasing vessel lumen radius or diameter
c. decreasing arterial distensibility and increasing vessel lumen radius or diameter
d. decreasing arterial distensibility and lumen radius or diameter

A

d. decreasing arterial distensibility and lumen radius or diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Events in the development of atherosclerotic plaque include all of the following except:

a. oxidation of LDL
b. smooth muscle proliferation
c. decreased antithrombolytics
d. fibrous plaque overlies foam cells
e. complement activation

A

e. complement activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

G.P. is a 50-yr-old man who was referred for evaluation of blood pressure. If he had a high diastolic blood pressure, which of the following readings would reflect that?

a. 140/82 mmHg
b. 160/72 mmHg
c. 130/95 mmHg
d. 95/68 mmHg
e. 140/72 mmHg

A

c. 130/95 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The complications of uncontrolled hypertension include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. cerebrovascular accidents
b. anemia
c. renal injury
d. cardiac hypertrophy

A

b. anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Primary hypertension:

a. is essentially idiopathic mediated by a host of neurohumoral effects
b. can be caused by renal disease
c. can be caused by hormone imbalance
d. results from arterial coarctation

A

a. is essentially idiopathic mediated by a host of neurohumoral effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Orthostatic hypotension is caused by all EXCEPT:

a. increased age
b. increased blood volume
c. autonomic nervous system dysfunction
d. bed rest
e. severe varicose veins

A

b. increased blood volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Adiponectin is:

a. an enzyme
b. increased in obesity
c. antiatherogenic
d. inflammatory

A

d. inflammatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Transmural myocardial infarction:

a. displays non-STEMI
b. occurs when infarction is limited to part of the heart wall
c. a categorized as STEMI
d. displays T-wave inversion

A

c. is categorized as STEMI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A 76-yr-old male came to the ED after experiencing chest pain while shoveling snow. Lab tests revealed essentially normal blood levels of SGOT or AST, CPK, and LDH enzymes. The chest pain was relieved following bed rest and nitroglycerin therapy. The most probable diagnosis is:

a. myocardial infarction
b. emphysema
c. stable angina
d. hepatic cirrhosis
e. acute pancreatitis

A

c. stable angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In pericardial effusion:

a. fibrotic lesions obliterate the pericardial cavity
b. there is associated rheumatoid arthritis
c. tamponade compresses the right heart before affecting other structures
d. arterial blood pressure during inspiration exceeds that during expiration

A

c. tamponade compresses the right heart before affecting other structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
Increased chamber size is observed in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
cardiomyopathy.
a. dilated
b. hypertrophic
c. restrictive
d. constrictive
A

a. dilated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is NOT an expected finding in acute rheumatic fever?

a. history of pharyngeal infection
b. elevated ASO titer (anti-streptolysin O)
c. leukopenia
d. fever

A

c. leukopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In unstable angina:

a. pronounced Q waes are evident
b. transient ST elevation occurs
c. vasospasm occurs
d. T-wave inversion occurs

A

d. T-wave inversion occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Secondary hypertension is caused by:

a. sodium retention
b. renovascular disease
c. genetics
d. decreased cardiac contractibility
e. increased ventricular preload

A

b. renovascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following statements about hypertension is incorrect?

a. malignant hypertension is characterized by a diastolic pressure of more than 140 mmHg
b. approximately 90% of hypertension cases are of the essential or primary type
c. headache is the most reliable symptom
d. when left untreated, the major risks include CVAs and cardiac hypertrophy

A

c. headache is the most reliable symptom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A 53-yr-old man was admitted to the E.D. after experiencing SOB, weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias and CP that did not subside following nitroglycerine therapy. Lab tests revealed the patient had an elevated serum CPK and SGOT or AST level and troponin I monoclonal antibodies. ECG tracings revealed a prominent Q wave and an elevated ST segment. The most probably diagnosis is:

a. a transient ischemic attack
b. an acute myocardial infact
c. an attack of unstable angina pectoris
d. Prinzmetal angina
e. coronary artery vasospasm

A

b. an acute myocardial infarct

17
Q

Life-threatening consequences of coronary artery disease include:

a. angina
b. cardiomegaly
c. endocarditis
d. heart failure

A

d. heart failure

18
Q

Which accompanies an infarcted myocardium?

a. unconsciousness
b. transient ST elevation
c. left ventricular hypertrophy
d. arrhythmias

A

d. arrhythmias

19
Q

The most serious complication of infective endocarditis is:

a. valvular deformity
b. septic emboli
c. regurgitated blood by mitral valve
d. myocardial hypertrophy

A

b. septic emboli

20
Q

Patients with only left side heart failure would exhibit:

a. hepatomegaly
b. ankle swelling
c. pulmonary edema
d. peripheral edema

A

c. pulmonary edema

21
Q

In congestive heart failure, there is:

a. gastrointestinal disturbances
b. elevated venous pressure
c. decreased urinary output
d. ascites

A

c. decreased urinary output

22
Q

In right-sided heart failure, there is:

a. nocturnal dyspnea
b. dependent edema
c. blood-tinged sputum
d. rales

A

b. dependent edema

23
Q

The appropriate initial consequence of tricuspid regurgitation would be:

a. right ventricular hypertrophy
b. left ventricular hypertrophy
c. right atrial hypertrophy
d. left atrial hypertrophy
e. left atrial/right ventricular hypertrophy
f. right and left ventricular/left atrial hypertrophy
g. hypertrophy of all chambers

A

c. right atrial hypertrophy

24
Q

The appropriate initial consequence of mitral stenosis would be:

a. right ventricular hypertrophy
b. left ventricular hypertrophy
c. right atrial hypertrophy
d. left atrial hypertrophy
e. left atrial/right ventricular hypertrophy
f. right and left ventricular/left atrial hypertrophy
g. hypertrophy of all chambers

A

e. left atrial/right ventricular hypertrophy

25
Q

The appropriate initial consequence of mitral regurgitation would be:

a. right ventricular hypertrophy
b. left ventricular hypertrophy
c. right atrial hypertrophy
d. left atrial hypertrophy
e. left atrial/right ventricular hypertrophy
f. right and left ventricular/left atrial hypertrophy
g. hypertrophy of all chambers

A

f. right and left ventricular/left atrial hypertrophy